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Benchmark # 1 - Review of Questions

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 4hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The table shows the masses and velocities of four moving objects. Which object has the most kinetic energy?

a)

Object A

b)

Object B

c)

Object C

d)

Object D

2.

Examine the images. Which table correctly identifies the type of potential energy in each image?

a)

  1. Elastic
  2. Electric
  3. Gravitational

b)

  1. Gravitational
  2. Electric
  3. Elastic

c)

  1. Electric
  2. Gravitational
  3. Elastic

d)

  1. Elastic
  2. Gravitational
  3. Electric

3.

Which example best shows heat transfer by conduction?

a)

A boy’s skin warms up by standing in the sunlight.

b)

Hot air rises from a heating vent on the floor.

c)

A metal spoon gets cold when placed in a container of ice cream.

d)

A girl’s hand feels warm when placed near a lamp that is turned on.

4.

On Earth, the ocean waters at the North and South Poles receive less direct sunlight than other ocean waters located closer to the equator. As a result, sea ice forms. Sea ice is frozen fresh water that floats on top of the ocean in long, flat, white sheets. As the temperature changes throughout the year, the sea ice thaws and refreezes repeatedly. About 15% of Earth’s oceans are covered by sea ice for part of the year.


Which argument supports the idea that sea ice and climate are related?

a)

Sea ice is frozen fresh water; therefore, sea ice stores a high amount of solar energy from the Sun for summer months.

b)

Sea ice freezes and thaws repeatedly; therefore, ocean water refreezes to create the same amount of ice every winter to cool the air in the atmosphere.

c)

Sea ice has a white surface; therefore, sea ice reflects a large amount of sunlight up into the atmosphere and back into outer space.

d)

Sea ice covers part of Earth’s oceans; therefore, ocean water remains colder than land across the world and keeps coastline temperatures moderate throughout the year.

5.

A student creates a model to explain the formation of a desert near 30°N latitude.


Which statement best describes the student’s model?

a)

Air near the equator is warmed by sunlight and blows northward, creating a desert at 30°N latitude.

b)

Air near the equator and air at 30°N latitude are warmed by sunlight, and the cycling of warm air creates a desert at 30°N latitude.

c)

Warm, moist air rises near the equator and releases rain as it cools. The cool, dry air falls near 30°N latitude, promoting the formation of a desert.

d)

Cool, moist air rises near the equator and releases rain as it warms. The warm, dry air falls near 30°N latitude, promoting the formation of a desert.

6.

A diver jumps off a tall diving board into the air and completes a spin before falling into a swimming pool.


Between which points does kinetic energy transform into gravitational potential energy?

a)

points 1 and 2

b)

points 2 and 3

c)

points 3 and 4

d)

points 3 and 5

7.

Which data is added to Model 2 to make it different from Model 1?

a)

atmospheric temperatures

b)

Earth’s rotation

c)

change in seasons throughout the year

d)

equal heating of Earth’s surface

8.

Carbon dioxide is a solid at temperatures below -78.5°C. A sample of solid carbon dioxide is placed on a table near a window inside a classroom. The temperature in the classroom is 22°C. Students observe that the solid changes directly into a gas within a few minutes.


Which statement best explains the students’ observation?

a)

The air warms the sample by conduction, and sunlight warms the sample by radiation.

b)

The air warms the sample by convection, and sunlight warms the sample by conduction.

c)

The air warms the sample by radiation, and sunlight warms the sample by convection.

d)

The air warms the sample by radiation, and sunlight warms the sample by conduction.

9.

A student designs two different insulated bottles using household items to keep drinks warm. Each bottle is filled with 300 mL of water at 70°C. The diagram shows the different designs, and the table shows the starting and final temperatures of the water after 30 minutes.


The effect of which factor in the design can be determined by analyzing the results?

a)

amount of water

b)

presence of a lid

c)

material of the bottle

d)

thickness of the rubber sheet

10.

The graph shows the relationship between salinity and depth in the ocean for three different locations during the month of August.


How does the data provide evidence for the formation of ocean currents?

a)

The data shows that different areas of the ocean have water at different depths, influencing the global movement of water in ocean currents.

b)

The data shows that different areas of the ocean have water with similar salinity, influencing the global movement of water in ocean currents.

c)

The data shows that water from different areas of the ocean has different densities, influencing the global movement of water in ocean currents.

d)

The data shows that water from different areas of the ocean has similar temperatures, influencing the global movement of water in ocean currents.

11.

An experiment is conducted by dropping two different objects, A and B, from 45 meters above the ground. The graph shows the changes in kinetic energy of each object as it falls.


Which statement explains why Object A and Object B have different amounts of kinetic energy right before hitting the ground?

a)

Object A is a different shape than Object B.

b)

Object A is a smaller size than Object B.

c)

Object A has a slower speed than Object B.

d)

Object A has a larger mass than Object B.

12.

It takes 2.5 seconds for the arrow to hit the target after it is released. Which data table best explains the transformation of energy on the arrow from after its release to before it hits the target?

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.

A student heats a pan with water over a burner. Labels P, Q, and R represent locations of different types of heat transfer.


Which table best matches the method of heat transfer shown at each location?

a)

P. Conduction

Q. Radiation

R. Convection

b)

P. Conduction

Q. Convection

R. Radiation

c)

P. Convection

Q. Radiation

R. Conduction

d)

P. Convection

Q. Conduction

R. Radiation

14.

Which statement about the energy of the cart is true?

a)

The cart’s kinetic energy increases, and its gravitational potential energy remains the same as it moves along the track.

b)

The cart’s gravitational potential energy increases, and its kinetic energy remains the same as it moves along the track.

c)

Both the cart’s kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy remain the same as it moves along the track.

d)

Both the cart’s kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy change as it moves along the track.

15.

Which option correctly shows atmospheric circulation near the ocean?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.

What do thermal energy and kinetic energy have in common?

a)

Thermal energy and kinetic energy are both present in all particles and objects.

b)

Thermal energy and kinetic energy are both stored in particles or objects.

c)

Thermal energy and kinetic energy are both destroyed by collisions of particles and objects.

d)

Thermal energy and kinetic energy are both related to the motions of particles or objects.

17.

Which two actions from the model will decrease the salinity of ocean water?

a)

Evaporation and Icebergs melting

b)

Freezing of seawater and rainfall

c)

Icebergs Melting and rainfall

d)

Mineral salt runoff and freezing of seawater

18.

A spring with an object attached is stretched, compressed, and released.


When is elastic potential energy in the spring transformed into kinetic energy?

a)

when the spring is most stretched

b)

when the spring is most compressed

c)

when the spring is compressed and holds the object

d)

when the spring is released and moves the object

19.

The diagram shows climates on both sides of a mountain.


Which statement correctly explains the difference in climates?

a)

Sunlight falls on only one side of the mountain.

b)

The high mountain stops wind from reaching one side of the mountain.

c)

Cool air near the top of the mountain causes more rainfall on one side of the mountain.

d)

Access to warm ocean water causes more wind on one side of the mountain.

20.

A playground designer is concerned that certain materials outside in the sunlight may get too hot for children. The designer investigates different building materials by recording the changes in temperature of each material outside in sunlight over 4 hours. The table shows the results.


The designer decides to avoid using metal for handrails on the playground. How does the data support the designer’s decision?

a)

Metal releases the most thermal energy from sunlight and can transfer the most heat through convection to a child’s hand.

b)

Metal absorbs the most thermal energy from sunlight and can transfer the most heat through conduction to a child’s hand.

c)

Metal creates the most thermal energy from sunlight and can transfer the least heat through convection to a child’s hand.

d)

Metal stores the most thermal energy from sunlight and can transfer the least heat through conduction to a child’s hand.

21.

A student performs an activity in which a large tank is filled with salt water. An ice block is placed at one end and a heat lamp at the other end. The student adds a drop of color dye in the water near the ice block. The color dye sinks near the ice block and rises near the heat lamp, as shown by the arrows.


Which conclusion can be made about ocean currents from the activity?

a)

Surface wind changes the density of water in the ocean, causing ocean currents to sink.

b)

Heat from Earth’s interior creates pockets of warm air, causing ocean currents to circulate.

c)

Ice found near Earth’s poles adds more salt to the ocean, forming ocean currents.

d)

Energy from the atmosphere causes convection of water, forming ocean currents.

22.

A person rolls a bowling ball to try and knock down 10 pins.


Which two changes will increase the kinetic energy of the bowling ball before it hits the pins?

a)

decrease the size of the bowling ball and decrease the number of pins

b)

increase the mass of the bowling ball and increase the velocity of the bowling ball

c)

decrease the number of pins and increase the mass of the pins

23.
Which point has the greatest potential energy (GPE)?
a)
A
b)
G
c)
D
d)
C
24.

At which position does the child on the swing have the most gravitational potential energy?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

25.

What is elastic potential energy?

a)

energy stored in stretched or compressed elastic materials

b)

energy that comes from the temperature of matter

c)

energy transferred through the substance in a wave

d)

energy stored in the height of the object off the ground

26.
A ______ stores chemical energy that is released as electrical energy.
a)
battery
b)
conductor
c)
insulator
d)
wire
27.
Which form of energy do our bodies use from the food we eat?  
a)
chemical
b)
electrical
c)
light
d)
mechanical
28.
Which of the following has potential energy?  
a)
a ball that has been batted 
b)
  a rock sitting at the bottom of a hill
c)
a piece of pottery on the edge of a high shelf
d)
a hockey stick lying on the garage floor
29.

Which statement is true?

a)

Oranges contain Elastic Energy

b)

Food contains Chemical Energy

c)

Phone on the table doesn't contain Gravitational Energy

d)

Radiator contains Nuclear Energy

30.

What is an example of Electric Energy

a)

Apple

b)

Rubber Bands

c)

Car Battery

d)

Table

31.

Which 2 types of energy does the object in the image use?

a)

Electric and Thermal

b)

Nuclear and Elastic

c)

Chemical and Mechanical

d)

Sound and Elastic

32.

The measure of the amount of matter in an object

a)

mass

b)

force

c)

speed

d)

acceleration

33.

The energy an object has due to its motion is called

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

gravitational potential energy

34.

The energy that results from the position (height off the ground) or shape (stretched or compressed) of an object is called

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

gravitational potential energy

35.

Energy is directly related to an object's height off the the ground

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

potential energy

d)

gravitational potential energy

36.

Energy that is due to an object being compressed or stretched is called

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

potential energy

d)

gravitational potential energy

37.

The energy of electric charges is called

a)

mechanical energy

b)

thermal energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

electrical energy

38.

This type of energy is a form of potential energy that is stored in chemical bonds between atoms.

a)

electromagnetic energy

b)

energy transformation

c)

chemical energy

d)

law of conservation of energy

39.

The rule that energy cannot be created or destroyed is

a)

electromagnetic energy

b)

energy transformation

c)

chemical energy

d)

law of conservation of energy

40.

Which answer choice best describes thermal energy?

a)

energy an object has due to its height

b)

energy an object has due to the motion of its molecules

c)

energy an object has due to being stretched or compressed

d)

energy an object has due to its mass and speed

41.

Which 2 types of energy are being used by the bungee jumper in the image?

a)

Elastic

b)

Chemical

c)

Gravitational

d)

Thermal

42.

What type of energy does pizza provide for us?

a)

Pizza is chemical potential energy that is transformed to kinetic energy later on, as we move.

b)

Pizza is gravitational potential because our body will digest it.

c)

Pizza is elastic potential because the cheese stretches out of its normal position.

d)

Pizza is chemical potential energy that is later destroyed in our bodies.

43.
At which point is kinetic energy greatest? 
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
44.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
45.

Holding a marble at the top of a ramp

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

46.

A slinky moving down a set of stairs

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

47.

A boy standing on top of a slide

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

48.
What are the two factors that affect kinetic energy?
a)
time and energy
b)
power and mass
c)
mass and speed
d)
time and work
49.

If these are all moving at the same speed, the vehicle with the greatest KE would be

(Think about their sizes)

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

Determine whether the following example is Potential Energy (PE) or Kinetic Energy (KE):


flashlight turned off

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

51.
In order to INCREASE the potential energy of an object, you need to:
a)
put the object lower to the ground
b)
raise the object higher
52.

The more mass an object has the _____________ kinetic energy it has

a)

more

b)

less

53.
John measures a rock and finds it to be 16 grams.  What does John know about the rock?
a)
its mass
b)
its weight
c)
its volume
d)
its momentum
54.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has. 
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
55.
If you double the speed of an object, you __________ the amount of kinetic energy.
a)
double
b)
triple
c)
quadruple
d)
don't change
56.

If two objects with different masses are moving in the same direction and at the same speed, what will happen to the kinetic energy?

a)

Both objects will have the same kinetic energy because they are traveling at the same speed

b)

The object with less mass will have greater kinetic energy

c)

The object with greater mass will have greater kinetic energy

d)

We can’t tell which has greater kinetic energy from this information

57.

Speed is...

a)

how much an object weighs.

b)

how much matter is in an object.

c)

the rate at which an object moves.

d)

how much kinetic energy an object has.

58.

Which of the following is an example of convection?

a)

the rays of the Sun warming the earth

b)

hot air rising and cooler air falling

c)

a hot object transferring heat to a cooler one

d)

a hot oven warming the air around it

59.

Heat is the transfer of _______ energy.

a)

mechanical

b)

chemical

c)

thermal

d)

electrical

60.

Lakelynn pours hot coffee into a cold mug. A few moments later, she picks up the mug, and it is now warm.


What is the main form of energy transfer involved in heating the mug?

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

all of the above

61.

Once heat from the Sun penetrates the Earth's atmosphere, the heat is circulated as warm air rises and cold air sinks. What is this process called?

a)

radiation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

d)

reflection

62.

Which of the following is an example of heat transfer by radiation?

a)

the Sun warming the Earth

b)

an electric space heater warming a room

c)

a fire warming a group of campers

d)

all of the above

63.

Heat can be transferred through conduction, convection, and radiation. What is necessary in order for heat to be transferred by conduction?

a)

The substances must be liquids or gases

b)

The objects must be in direct contact with one another.

c)

Heat must be transferred through space.

d)

Heat must be transferred in the form of currents

64.
 In which step of Design Process do you compare the various ideas and select the best approach
a)
Ask
b)
Imagine
c)
Plan
d)
Improve
65.

1. Rob and his team have been chosen to build a wind turbine at a local ski resort that needs to generate electrical energy and withstand the harsh environment of the mountains. Rob and his team have done their research on the problem. What would be the next step for the team?

a)

Create a prototype of the wind turbine

b)

Develop possible solutions(s) for the turbine and how it will fit the criteria needed

c)

Test the wind turbine on the mountains during the harsh winter months

d)

Redesign a new solution for this turbine

66.

A company is designing a new automobile brake system. After repeated testing of the brake system prototype, engineers presented a report to their company explaining that they discovered a major problem in the system.

Which of the following should the engineers do next?

a)

redesign the brake system

b)

build a full-scale version of the brake system

c)

identify the reasons for building the brake system

d)

evaluate the quality of the report about the brake system

67.

Cold water near the ocean floor often flows in deep-water currents. The cold water flows toward the deepest regions of the ocean because

a)

it is more dense than the warm water above it.

b)

the water above it is frozen in icebergs.

c)

the water above it contains less algae

d)

it is warmer than the cold water above it.

68.

Water is cooler near the poles and warmer near the equator. Movement of cooler and warmer water from these regions moderates the global climate. Which of the following describes the movement of water between the poles and the equator?

a)

evaporation

b)

gravity

c)

ocean currents

d)

tides

69.

The image above shows part of an ocean current in the Pacific Ocean. The blue line represents the motion of deep, cool water. The red line represents the motion of warm surface water. What most likely causes the current to behave as shown in the image?

a)

When the deep water is cooled, it loses energy and becomes denser.

b)

When the surface water is heated by the Sun, it becomes denser.

c)

When the cold water evaporates, less dense water rises to take its place.

d)

When the water is heated, it becomes less dense and rises

70.

The ocean's currents are driven by differences in temperature and density. Different masses of water are warmer and less dense than other masses. This water tends to move along the ocean's surface in surface currents. Colder masses and more dense masses of water tend to sink and move along the ocean floor in deep-water currents. As shown in the diagram above, at several locations warm, less dense water cools, becomes more dense and falls to the ocean floor. At other locations, cold, dense water warms, becomes less dense and rises back to the surface.


This cycling of ocean water along currents is an example of _______.

a)

absorption

b)

convection

c)

conduction

d)

radiation

71.

A student puts water in a long glass tank to make a model of ocean currents. He heats the left side of the tank and cools the right side. This heating and cooling produces a current of water in the tank. Which diagram correctly shows the flow of the water?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

72.

The currents of the Earth's oceans are caused by

a)

global winds and differences in temperature and salinity.

b)

waves and earthquakes along tectonic plate boundaries.

c)

disturbances by submarines and large ships.

d)

marine organisms and volcanic eruptions.

73.

The following image shows the Earth's jet streams. In this picture, most of the United States lies in the yellow zone between the polar jet and the subtropical jet streams. The United States is marked with an X. Based on the directions in which air moves in the jet streams, how would you expect weather patterns in the United States to move?

a)

from east to west

b)

from south to north

c)

from west to east

d)

from north to south

74.

A student wants to model the Coriolis effect. She spins a globe and then uses a marker to draw a line on it while it spins. She begins drawing near the North Pole and moves her hand directly toward the Equator.


Which diagram best represents the line drawn on the globe?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

75.

Which of the following factors drives all the weather on Earth, including large-scale storms and local weather systems?

a)

The greenhouse effect ensures that some thermal energy will always be trapped near the Earth's surface.

b)

The Sun heats up the air at different rates, and the atmosphere undergoes changes to equalize temperatures and pressures.

c)

The Coriolis effect curves the motion of wind due to the Earth's rotation.

d)

The ocean holds thermal energy more efficiently than land.

76.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
77.
What part of the water cycle does this picture show?
a)
condensation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
78.
When water condenses, the liquid water forms ______________.
a)
water vapor
b)
steam
c)
air
d)
clouds
79.
Which stage does ground water try to return to the ocean or soak into the ground?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
run off
80.

The water cycle is the earth's way of

a)

Getting rid of water

b)

Recycling water

c)

Using up all of our water

d)

None of the above

81.

Where does the energy that powers the water cycle come from?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Electric outlets

d)

The sun

82.

Most of the earth's fresh water is beyond our reach because it is

a)

Buried deep within the earth.

b)

frozen into glaciers and polar caps.

c)

Taking up most of the ocean

d)

In the sky in the form of clouds

83.

How could pesticides get into lakes and streams?

a)

too much pesticide could be sprayed and it runs off

b)

it could be sprayed too close to a stream

c)

rain could wash pesticides into a lake

d)

all of the above

84.

Which practice could humans do to save or manage water usage?

a)

restrict irrigation (watering lawns & crops)

b)

redirect the flow of a river

c)

drain the wetlands

d)

build a hydroelectric dam

85.
What are the two main factors that determine the climate of an area?
a)
precipitation and humidity
b)
temperature and air pressure
c)
wind conditions and humidity
d)
temperature and precipitation
86.

Which side of the mountain usually gets deserts and why?

a)

windward, because of rising, moist air

b)

leeward, because of rising, dry air

c)

windward, because of sinking, moist air

d)

leeward, because of sinking, dry air

87.

Which side of a mountain range is closer to the ocean?

a)

leeward side

b)

rain shadow side

c)

windward side

d)

downwind side

88.
Ocean currents have an affect on which two things
a)
climate and weather
b)
temperature and density
c)
land and sea
d)
equator and poles
89.

Why would places near the north with the same latitude have very different climates?

a)

One place is near a warm ocean current.

b)

It is not possible

c)

Because of La Nina

d)

Because of El Nino

90.

After the rain falls down onto Earth's natural surfaces, what most likely happens next?

a)

Most of the water is infiltrated into the ground.

b)

Groundwater starts to evaporate

c)

Transpiration happens to the plants.

d)

The liquid turns into an gas or an water vapor

91.

97% of the Earth's water is accumulated and located in....

a)

ground wat

b)

the ocean

c)

lakes, rivers, and streams

d)

glaciers

92.

What is a layer of rock or sediment that pools and stores water underground?

a)

glacier

b)

well

c)

aquifer

d)

natural spring

93.

Which answer choice best describes humidity?

a)

the force exerted onto a surface by the weight of the air

b)

the amount of water vapor (moisture) in the air

c)

measurement of how fast the air is moving

d)

the direction the wind is moving

94.

A barometer measures…

a)

Direction of the wind

b)

How fast the wind is moving

c)

Temperature

d)

Air pressure

95.

A hygrometer measures…

a)

Wind speed

b)

Air pressure

c)

Humidity level

d)

Temperature

96.

A wind vane shows…

a)

Direction of the wind

b)

Humidity level

c)

Temperature

d)

Air pressure

97.

How does air pressure affect weather?

a)

High air pressure means “lousy” weather such as rain or storms.

b)

High air pressure means “happy” weather such as clear skies.

c)

Low air pressure means “lousy” weather such as sunny skies.

d)

Low air pressure means “happy” weather such as rainy conditions.

98.

Which of the following weather conditions can you predict with the following data?

Air Pressure- decreasing

Temperature-75°F

Humidity - rising from 60%

a)

Warm and rainy

b)

Cold and rainy

c)

Cold and foggy

d)

Warm and snowing

99.

Which weather conditions can be predicted using the following data?


Temperature- 75 degrees

Humidity- 50%

Air Pressure- moving from high to low

Wind speed- 4 mph

a)

Cold and clear

b)

Warm and clear

c)

Cool and foggy

d)

warm and rainy

100.

11. The following weather conditions are forecasted for Knoxville, TN today. What type of weather should we expect?


Air pressure: High Humidity: 17%

Temperature: 25 F Wind Speed: NE at 7mph

a)

clear and warm

b)

clear and cold

c)

cloudy and cool

d)

snowy and cool

101.

12. Based on the data in the graph, which statement best explains the relationship between the data provided and fall bird migration?

a)

When average monthly temperatures begin to decrease, migration should begin.

b)

When average monthly temperatures are constant, migration should begin.

c)

When the temperatures are highest for the year, it means migration should begin.

d)

When the temperatures are above or below the shaded region indicating average temperature, it means migration should begin.

102.

Which is the process by which liquid changes to a gas?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

infiltration

d)

precipitation

103.

Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples of ________________.

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

accumulation

d)

precipitation

104.

During evaporation, water changes from a _________ to a __________.

a)

liquid, solid

b)

solid, liquid

c)

gas, liquid

d)

liquid, gas

105.

During ________________, water vapor cools into water droplets, which causes the formation of clouds.

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

precipitation

d)

runoff (collection)

106.

What might happen to the gorilla population if the Leopard population was over-hunted?

a)

The gorilla population would increase.

b)

The gorilla population would decrease.

c)

The gorilla population would stay the

same.

d)

The gorilla population would become extinct.

107.

When two air masses meet, there is a _____, or boundary.

a)

thunderstorm

b)

watch

c)

front

d)

cloud

108.
An occluded front may remain in the same place for several days, producing light wind and precipitation.
a)
True
b)
False
109.
Which front leads to steady rain for several days?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
110.
Which condition usually means cloudy, stormy weather?
a)
high pressure
b)
low pressure
111.
name this symbol
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
112.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
113.
What does this symbol indicate on a weather map? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
114.
What kind of weather is usually associated with a high pressure system?
a)
Sunny weather
b)
Precipitation (rain, snow, etc.)
115.
A cold front moving into an area can bring this type of weather...
a)
Warmer Temperatures, Clear Skies
b)
Colder Temperatures, Clear Skies
c)
Warmer Temperatures, Clouds
d)
Colder Temperatures, Clouds, and Precipitation
116.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold Front
d)
Warm Front
117.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
118.

1. What are organisms that eat both producers and consumers classified as?

a)

producers

b)

omnivores

c)

carnivores

d)

herbivores

119.

Which answer is the correct order for a food chain?

a)

sun --> producers --> scavengers --> herbivores

b)

consumers --> sun --> producers --> decomposers

c)

sun --> decomposers --> producers --> consumers

d)

sun --> producers --> consumers --> decomposers

120.

1. Which organisms are receiving the greatest amount of energy according to the energy pyramid?

a)

Buzzards and Foxes

b)

Berries and plantains

c)

Dragonflies and rabbits

d)

Frogs

121.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor in a desert?

a)

cactus

b)

heat

c)

scorpions

d)

fox

122.

Which one of the following is a biotic factor of the taiga?

a)

cold temperatures

b)

snow

c)

seal

d)

rich soil

123.

A worm that breaks down a zebra’s body when it dies is considered a …

a)

consumer

b)

decomposer

c)

producer

d)

scavenger

124.

Which answer is a true statement? Use the food chain to answer the question.

a)

The mushrooms break down the mountain lion because it is a scavenger

b)

The mountain lion eats the deer and is a carnivore

c)

The plant is a producer and gives energy directly to the carnivore

d)

The deer is an omnivore because it eats only plants

125.

Which 2 answers are true statements about energy pyramids?

a)

As you go up the pyramid, energy passed on greatly increases

b)

As energy is passed from one trophic level to the next, 90% is used up through activity, or transformed into heat

c)

As you go up the pyramid, energy passed on greatly decreases

d)

Producers pass on only 10% of their energy to carnivores

126.

Which of the following answer choices best describes the difference between a food chain and a food web?

a)

A food chain shows a more accurate representation of energy flow

b)

A food chain shows how energy passes from one organism to another, which is more accurate than a food web

c)

A food web better demonstrates the flow of energy through an ecosystem because it shows multiple feeding relationships

127.

In a meadow ecosystem, a population of rabbits increases. What populations are most likely to increase as a result?

a)

foxes, hawks, and other predators of the rabbits

b)

leafy plants that rabbits eat

c)

rabbits that live elsewhere

d)

worms that live in the meadow soil

128.

All the living and nonliving things in an area make up a/an

a)

community.

b)

ecosystem.

c)

population.

d)

environment.

129.

A ________ is all the members of one kind of plant or animal in a community.

a)

ecosystem

b)

environment

c)

population

d)

community

130.
Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.  
a)
Competition
b)
Mutualsim
c)
Predation
d)
Commensalism
131.
Field mice eat corn. Which would most likely happen if the field mouse population grew?
a)
There would be more corn to feed the field mice.
b)
There would be less corn due to the mice eating it.
c)
The habitat would get overpopulated because the mice woudl eat too much.
132.

In a forest ecosystem, which of the following are the best examples of limiting factors for a rabbit population? SELECT TWO.

a)

Squirrel Population

b)

Sunlight

c)

Grass available

d)

Fungi growth

e)

foxes

133.
What would the carrying capacity of this graph be
a)
530
b)
400
c)
500
d)
480
134.
In general, which of the following is a true statement about population size?
a)
If birth rate < death rate, population size increases
b)
If death rate < birth rate, population size decreases
c)
If birth rate > death rate, population size increases
d)
If death rate > birth rate, population size increases
135.
What year is the zebra population the highest?
a)
1920
b)
2000
c)
1960
d)
2020
136.

Which graph matches what would happen with a population of mice and a population of owls?

a)
b)
c)
137.
The kangaroo rat is able to get all of the water it needs through it's food and therefore, never needs to drink liquid. This animal has adapted to survive in which biome?
a)
Forest
b)
Tundra
c)
Desert
d)
Grassland
138.
Which biome is characterized by low temperatures and low amounts of rainfall?
a)
Tundra
b)
Desert
c)
Temperate Deciduous Forest
d)
Tropical Rainforest
139.
The rainforest has the greatest variety of different organisms that live there. In other words, the rainforest has the greatest ______.
a)
speciation
b)
biodiversity
c)
climate
d)
succession
140.
How much rain falls in the desert?
a)
10 inches
b)
more than 10 inches
c)
less than 10 inches
d)
none at all
141.

The taiga

a)

a cold, treeless, desert-like biome found near the North and South Poles

b)

found mostly in Africa

c)

a cold forest biome covered by coniferous trees, such as pine and spruce

d)

a dry, rocky biome found in the central part of South America.

142.

One abiotic feature of the tundra is that only the surface thaws in the summer and refreezes in the winter, leaving a permanently frozen subsoil that plant roots cannot penetrate. This characteristic is known as

a)

winter frost

b)

Glaciation

c)

Permafrost

d)

Crystallization

143.
We would NOT find this animal in the deciduous forest
a)
squirrel
b)
deer
c)
bear
d)
giraffe
144.

Which of the following in a coastal ecosystem is classified as a biotic factor?

a)

Rock

b)

Sand

c)

Wind

d)

Palm Tree

145.

Which of the following in the desert is an abiotic factor?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Cactus

c)

Scorpion

d)

Snake

146.
Nonliving elements in an ecosystem are called _______________. 
a)
biotic factor
b)
abiotic factor
c)
limiting factor
d)
carrying capacity 
147.
A living or once-living organisms in an ecosystem is a
a)
population
b)
biotic factor
c)
abiotic factor
d)
community
148.
Which biome has 4 seasons?
a)
Taiga
b)
Tundra
c)
Grasslands
d)
Temperate Deciduous Forest
149.
Which biome is MOST LIKE the "desert" in terms of precipitation?
a)
tropical rainforest
b)
temperate deciduous forest
c)
tundra
d)
coniferous forest
150.

How does light, soil composition, and temperature influence most land biomes?

a)

They cause the ecosystem to become extinct

b)

They cause water in the ecosystem to be polluted

c)

They don't influence a land biome

d)

They help determine what types of plants and animals that live in the biome

151.

Which biome would have large herbivores, few trees, wildfires, and seasonal rainfall?

a)

Tundra

b)

Savanna

c)

Rainforest

d)

Taiga

152.

Which biome does this climate graph belong to?

a)

Desert

b)

Deciduous forest

c)

Grasslands

d)

Tundra

153.

What biotic and abiotic factors are found in a Marine biome? (Choose 3)

a)

Freshwater

b)

Saltwater

c)

water depth

d)

water temperature

e)

song birds

154.

What biome is represented here?

a)

Desert

b)

Taiga

c)

Rainforest

d)

Savanna

155.

Habitat fragmentation occurs when…

a)

An ecosystem is able to recover, or adjust easily to change

b)

The temperature of ocean water causes algae to leave coral reefs.

c)

Smaller fragments of a habitat join to make a large habitat

d)

A large area of habitat is broken up into smaller isolated areas

156.

Why is habitat fragmentation hazardous to animals?

a)

Animals may not thrive in their new habitat

b)

If coral reefs die, so will many fish species that depend on them

c)

Habitat fragmentation causes loss of habitat for many organisms

d)

Habitat fragmentation does not pose a threat to animals.

157.

A resilient ecosystem…(2 answers)

a)

Is able to recover from, or adjust easily to change.

b)

Has less biodiversity due to invasive species.

c)

Has been impacted by a natural disaster such as a tornado.

d)

Is more likely to have greater biodiversity

158.

What is the environmental variable that caused The Great Smoky Mountains to be less resilient during the 2016 fire?

a)

Hurricane

b)

Tornado

c)

Drought

d)

Earthquake

159.

What happened as a result of The Great Smoky Mountains 2016 fire?

a)

$1 million worth of damage, 1,000 acres burned, injuries, decreased biodiversity

b)

$ 8 million worth of damage, 5, 000 acres burned , increased biodiversity

c)

$ 10 million worth of damage, 8,000 acres burned, increased biodiversity

d)

$ 500 million worth of damage, 17, 000 acres burned, decreased biodiversity

160.

Human activities such as deforestation, transportation, and industry are causing…

a)

Increased biodiversity in many ecosystems

b)

Increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere

c)

more resilient ecosystems

d)

None of the above

161.

Why are coral reefs so important to our ocean ecosystems?

a)

Many other species depend on them for a habitat

b)

Many tourist travel to see the coral reef, and spend money supporting local economies

c)

Many endangered fish species eat coral skeletons for their main source of nutrients

d)

They are beautiful, and surrounded by diverse fish species

162.

Biodiversity refers to…

a)

variety of abiotic factors in an ecosystem

b)

nonrenewable resources

c)

the rate of species decline

d)

the variety of species in an ecosystem