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Dental Decks: ORAL PATHOLOGY

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 4hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth:

a)

hypodontia - absence of only a few teeth

b)

oligodontia

c)

diphyodontia - having 2 successive sets of teeth as opposed to polyphyodontia

d)

anodontia - all teeth are missing

e)

hypsodontia - teeth with high crowns

2.

Which type of dentinogenesis imperfecta features multiple pulp exposures, periapical radiolucencies, and a variable radiographic appearance

a)

type I - patients with osteogenesis imperfecta; blue sclera

b)

type II - no bone development

c)

type III

3.

Most common supernumerary tooth with a cone-shaped crown and a short root between the maxillary central incisors.

a)

mesiodens

b)

concrescence - cementum of two teeth becomes united

c)

fusion - developmental union of two teeth

d)

dens in dente - tooth within a tooth; by deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation

4.

Teeth that are most frequently involved in hypercementosis - excessive deposition of secondary cementum

a)

molars

b)

incisors

c)

premolars

d)

canines

5.

Enamel defect resulting from the incomplete formation of the enamel matix

a)

enamel pearls

b)

enamel hypocalcification - defective mineralization and maturation of ameloblasts

c)

enamel hypoplasia

d)

regional odontodysplasia - ghost teeth

6.

Division of a single tooth germ by invagination

a)

gemination

b)

fusion - union of two tooth germs by dentin during development

c)

concrescence - union of the roots of two teeth by cementum

d)

twinning - complete division of a single tooth bud

e)

ankylosis - fusion of cementum/dentin to surrounding alveolar bone after loss of PDL

7.

True about amelogenesis imperfecta

a)

inherited condition transmitted as a dominant trait

b)

often discolored, sensitive to temperature changes and painful to brush

c)

only affects permanent teeth

d)

causes enamel to be soft and thin; easily damaged and susceptible to decay

e)

teeth appear yellow because dentin is visible through thin enamel

8.

Abnormal loss of tooth structure due to nonmasticatory physical friction

a)

erosion - loss of tooth structure from nonmechanical means; acid

b)

abfraction - cervical erosive lesions

c)

attrition - wearing away of enamel and dentine due to normal function, grinding/gritting

d)

abrasion

9.

Causes intrinsic staining of teeth

a)

dentinogenesis imperfecta - opalescent hue; gray to bluish-brown

erythroblastosis fetalis - bluish-black, greenish-blue, tan or brown

b)

porphyria - red or brownish | internal resorption - pinkish hypomineralized enamel - white to brown | fluorosis - white opacities

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

pulpal injury - starts pink, becomes orange-brown to bluish-black

tetracycline - varies from light yellow-orange to dark gray-brown

e)

bacteria, iron, tobacco, foods, beverages, gingival hemorrhage, restorative materials, medications

10.

What is the most probable diagnosis of the x-ray where tooth has appearance of a pink-hued area on the crown of the tooth?

a)

internal resorption

b)

idiopathic external resorptive lesion - invasion of the cervical region of the root by fibrovascular tissue which resorbs dentin, enamel and cementum while the dental pulp remains protected

11.

A patient with which type of amelogenesis imperfecta will have teeth that demonstrate enamel that varies from thin and smooth to normal thickness with grooves, furrows and/or pits?

a)

Type I (Hypoplastic)

b)

Type II (Hypomaturation) - normal thickness with enamel that often chips and abrades easily

c)

Type III (Hypocalcified) - normal thickness with enamel that often chips and abrades easily

12.

In Type I dentin dysplasia, roots appear extremely short, and pulps are:

a)

normal

b)

somewhat smaller

c)

extremely large - Type II (coronal dysplasia)

d)

completely obliterated

13.

Leukemia is a group of bone marrow diseases involving an uncontrolled increase in

a)

red blood cells

b)

platelets

c)

plasma cells

d)

white blood cells

14.

A 48 year old female patient walks into your office. She states that she is diagnosed with some disease which she can't remember the name of. Her physician wants her to follow up with you, her dentist, regularly to watch out for cancer of the tongue and throat. She also has a bald tongue, and states that her fingernails "look funny." What disease does she have?

a)

aplastic anemia - affects young adults, pallor, weakness, malaise, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), headache and vertigo. Oral symptoms include spontaneous bleeding, bruising (petechiae) and gingival infections.

b)

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

c)

pernicious anemia

d)

Cushing's syndrome

15.

What disorder is a result of a genetic mutation causing the substitution of glutamic acid by a valine and results in dental radiographs with enlarged marrow spaces?

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

muscular dystrophy

c)

polio

d)

sickle-cell anemia

16.

Pigmented (purple; 3-10mm) lesions in the skin, mucous membrane and internal organs caused by extravasation of blood from the capillaries

a)

petechiae - small size (<3mm)

b)

purpura (pinpoint spots)

c)

ecchymosis - large purpura spots (>10mm)

d)

varicose veins

17.

All statements are true EXCEPT

a)

Acute leukemias have a slow onset and progression

(Acute leukemias have a rapid onset and progression)

b)

Acute leukemias are characterized by the appearance of immature, abnormal cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood and frequently in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and other parenchymatous organs

c)

The clinical picture of acute leukemias are marked by the effects of anemia, which is usually severe (fatigue, malaise), an absence of functioning granulocytes (proneness to infection and inflammation), and thrombocytopenia (hemorrhagic diathesis)

d)

The spleen and liver usually are moderately enlarged, while enlarged lymph nodes are seen mainly in acute lymphocytic leukemia. Fever and a very high ESR are found

e)

Leukocyte counts vary greatly in the acute leukemias

18.

You have a patient who has an "overactive thyroid." You ask him about his medications and he states that he took methimazole (antithyroid drugs: propylthiouracil, carbimazole). He has ragged necrotic ulcers covered by gray membrane on gums and palate. This condition also has signs and symptoms of sudden onset of high fever, chills, jaundice, weakness, sore throat, and rapid periodontal destruction.

a)

thrombocytopenic purpura

b)

agranulocytosis/granulocytopenia

c)

sickle-cell anemia

d)

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

19.

The term used to describe a leukemia where leukemic cells appear in the blood but there is no significant increase in the number of white blood cells

a)

aleukemic leukemia - there are leukemic cells present in the bone marrow, but the circulating white blood cells are neither immature nor increased in number

b)

subleukemic leukemia

c)

stem cell leukemia - abnormal cells that are poorly differentiated but are considered to be precursors of lymphoblasts, myeloblasts or monoblast

d)

leukemoid - marked increase in the number of circulating granulocytes

20.

The patient has pernicious anemia - chronic, progressive, megaloblastic anemia caused by lack of secretion of intrinsic factor in normal gastric juice.

The patient consults the dentist for relief of

a)

denuded gingiva

b)

sore & painful tongue (atrophic glossitis); also angular cheilitis, tingling numbness of extremities, difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia), painful swallowing (odynophagia)

c)

edematous buccal mucosa

d)

severe gingivitis

21.

A 6 month old child's teeth appear green, blue, brown due to deposition of blood pigment in enamel and dentin. Which of the following conditions did the mother have during her pregnancy?

a)

sickle-cell anemia

b)

erythroblastosis fetalis - anemia in the baby caused by Rh incompatibility. The mother produced antibodies which crossed the placenta, destroying the fetus' RBCs.

c)

patent ductus arteriosus

d)

low-weight preterm birth

22.

True about chronic leukemias

a)

they have rapid onset and progression

they have slower onset and progression

b)

they have shorter, more devastating clinical course than the acute leukemias

they have a longer, less devastating clinical course than acute leukemias

c)

they are characterized by proliferation of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of the acute leukemias

d)

they constitute 75% of all leukemias

they constitute about 50% of all leukemias

23.

Leukemias are evenly split between the acute and chronic forms; but among children, this form accounts for about two-thirds of cases.

a)

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

b)

acute myeloid leukemia (AML) - common type in adults

c)

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) - most common type in adults

d)

acute monoblastic leukemia (AMoL)/acute monocytic leukemia - least common leukemia

e)

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) - Philadelphia chromosome: translocation of 22 to 9

24.

Patient has Osler's disease caused by living at a high altitude. His tongue is deep purplish-red and his gingiva bleed easily.

a)

polycythemia vera (primary)/erythemia - occurs when

excess erythrocytes are produced as a result of tumorous abnormalities.

b)

secondary polycythemia - increase in the total number of erythrocytes due to chronic tissue hypoxia of advanced pulmonary disease, high altitude, or the secretion of erythropoietin by certain tumors

c)

hemophilia B

d)

thalassemia major

e)

porphyria

25.

The translocation of the long arm of chromosome 22 to chromosome 9 or the Philadelphia chromosome is a finding of this leukemia. Symptoms include spongy bleeding gums, fatigue, fever, weight loss, splenomegaly, joint and bone pain, and repeated infections.

a)

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

b)

chronic myeloid(myelocytic, myelogenous, granulocytic) leukemia (CML) - characterized by the abnormal overgrowth of granulocytic precursors (myeloblasts and promyelocytes) in bone marrow, peripheral blood and body tissues.

c)

acute myeloid leukemia (AML) - malignant disease of the bone marrow in which hematopoietic precursors are arrested in an early stage of development

d)

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

26.

Which of the following is a troublesome fibroblastic neoplasm that is locally aggressive and infiltrative?

a)

neurilemmoma (Schwannoma) - encapsulated mass presents as asymptomatic lump

b)

traumatic neuroma - nodule which may be painful to digital pressure

c)

nodular fasciitis (pseudosarcomatous fasciitis) - firm mass, rapid growth, pain and tenderness

d)

fibromatosis (extra-abdominal desmoids)

e)

neurofibroma - solitary neurofibroma: asymptomatic nodule; multiple: syndrome neurofibromatosis

27.

A 3 month old has a large (20cm) fluid-filled, fluctuant, painless mass on her neck. The diagnosis is a cystic hygroma (cystic hygroma/hygroma coli). This lesion is under which umbrella of lesions, which also contains enlarged tissue on the posterior and lateral border of the tongue? Lesions can also be seen on lips and labial mucosa?

a)

angiomas

b)

lymphangiomas - no sex predilection, do not undergo malignant change, aspirated first before excision

c)

Schwannomas

d)

fibrosarcomas

28.

A 24-year-old female patient comes into your office complaining of 14-mm exophytic, red mass present on the gingiva between teeth 5 and 6. A health history reveals that she is a smoker and is 3 months pregnant. Her oral hygiene is poor. A likely diagnosis of the mass is

a)

lipoma

b)

pyogenic granuloma

c)

epulis granulomatosum - caused by retained foreign material in the post-extraction socket (iatrogenic)

d)

peripheral fibroma - reactive hyperplastic mass that occurs in the gingiva

e)

focal fibrous hyperplasia/traumatic fibroma/irritation fibroma/ hyperplastic scar - caused by chronic trauma to oral mucous membranes; giant cell fibroma

29.

A patient presents to your clinic with multiple exophytic masses covering the buccal mucosa, tongue and lips. A biopsy reveals that these are mucosal neuromas - alert for early diagnosis and treatment. Patient should be referred to a physician because of the risk of related:

a)

squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue

b)

pituitary hyperplasia

c)

medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - ability to metastasize and cause death

d)

Sipple's syndrome/MEN2/subtype 2A - parathyroid hyperplasia adenoma, pheochromocytomas of adrenal medulla, medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland

30.

Which of the following is probably the most common benign peripheral nerve tumor?

a)

traumatic neuroma - trauma to a peripheral nerve

b)

neurilemmoma (Schwannoma) - benign neoplasm of Schwann cells

c)

neurofibroma - tumor of the nerve fibers itself; appears as a sessile, firm, pink nodule

d)

nodular fasciitis/pseudosarcomatous fasciitis - reactive lesion; proliferation of fibroblasts

e)

fibromatosis/extra-abdominal desmoids - benign fibrous proliferation of fibroblasts

31.

A patient presents to the dermatologist light brown birthmark-like (Cafe-au-lait) spots on his back. A thorough scan reveals freckles in his armpits (Crowe sign) and pigmented lesions within the iris (Lisch spots). Intraorally, this patient has multiple lesions on the gingiva and alveolus. What is the most likely diagnosis of these oral lesions?

a)

neurilemmoma

b)

neurofibroma - Von Recklinghausen's disease/neurofibromatosis

c)

neuroma

d)

fibroma

32.

A 55-year-old patient has a tooth fracture (due to decay) of tooth #31. A smooth, firm, asymptomatic lesion is noted on the lateral border of the tongue adjacent to the sharp enamel of tooth #31. The patient states that the lesion has been there for years and accidentally bites it sometimes. Name this most frequently encountered intraoral benign neoplasm of connective tissue origin,

a)

leiomyosarcoma

b)

traumatic fibroma

c)

leiomyoma - slow-growing, asymptomatic submucosal masses

d)

rhabdomyoma - asymptomatic, well-defined submucosal mass

e)

rhabdomyosarcoma - rapidly growing mass, causes pain with jaw involvement

33.

Scleroderma is a systemic disease that affects many organ systems. The symptoms result from inflammation and progressive tissue fibrosis and occlusion of the microvasculature by excessive production and deposition of:

a)

types II and IV collagens

b)

types I and III collagens

c)

elastin and reticulin

d)

all of the above

34.

A newborn baby girl was delivered via caesarian section due airway patency concerns. During ultrasound, there was the discovery of a tumor of the oral cavity. Upon delivery, the pink, compressible tumor of the anterior maxilla was deemed to be a congenital epulis of the newborn/gingival granular cell tumor. This lesion is composed of cells that are identical to those of the:

a)

traumatic neuroma

b)

Schwannoma

c)

granular cell myoblastoma/granular cell tumor - uninflamed, asymptomatic mass less than 2cm in diameter, more in females; pseudoepitheliomatus hyperplasia

d)

lipoma

35.

Patient has a swelling of the left submandibular space. He says his lower left molar recently 'broke down" and has been very painful especially when something cold hits it or when chews down on it. What is the most likely etiology of this swelling.

a)

orthodontics

b)

trauma

c)

infection of the pulp of the tooth

d)

periodontal disease

36.

Radiopaque lesion periapical to tooth #19. Tooth #19 has a deep amalgam restoration with recurrent decay underneath. You can see the entire outline of the mesial root of tooth #19 - the lesion seems to stem from the tooth. What is the most likely diagnosis of the lesion?

a)

focal sclerosing osteomyelitis/condensing osteitis/bony scar/sclerotic bone

b)

cementoblastoma

c)

cementoma

d)

fibrocementoma

37.

Most cases of acute osteomyelitis are infectious. Which two of the following are the most frequently cited as part of the etiology?

a)

bacteroides and campylobacter

b)

clostridia and corynebacterium

c)

staphylococci and streptococci

d)

enterococci and lactobacilli

38.

Cleft palate occurs in the ___ to ____ week of embryonic life.

a)

1st; 3rd

b)

4th; 6th

c)

8th; 10th - more common in female, 1 in 2000

d)

12th; 14th

e)

6th; 7th - cleft lip, medial nasal process, more frequent in males, bilateral(20%) unilateral(80%), left>right, 1 in 1000

39.

A child with achondroplasia - most common type of dwarfism has a

a)

relatively normal torso and long arms and legs

b)

short torso and long arms and legs

c)

long torso and long arms with short legs

d)

relatively normal torso and short arms and legs - upper arms and thighs are shorter than forearms and lower legs, large head, prominent forehead, saddle-like nose, mandibular prognathism, overcrowded teeth, otitis media

40.

Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta is associated with which genetic disease?

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) - prone to fracture, pale blue sclera, otosclerosis, bulbous crowns with cervical constriction, obliterated pulps, narrow and shorter roots

b)

Marfan's syndrome

c)

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

d)

cystic fibrosis

41.

Hypophosphatasia is a genetic metabolic disorder of bone mineralization caused by a deficiency in:

a)

acid phosphatase

b)

vitamin K

c)

alkaline phosphatase - essential to calcification of bone

d)

phosphorus

42.

Pituitary adenoma - benign tumor that causes the overproduction of growth hormone; in a 9-year-old will most likely lead to:

a)

gigantism - prior to adolescence (nonfusion of epiphysis)

b)

acromegaly - after to adolescence (fusion of epiphysis)

c)

achondroplasia

d)

dwarfism - arrested growth

43.

A new 6 year old patient has a prominent forehead and flattened nose, initially seems to have no eyebrows but you later realize that the hair is just very fine and sparse, has missing teeth and the ones she has are cone shaped. What is her most likely systemic condition?

a)

Pierre-Robin syndrome - severe micrognathia, mandibular hypoplasia, glossoptosis, high-arched/cleft palate in neonates

b)

ectodermal dysplasia - hypotrichosis, anhidrosiss, anodontia/oligodontia, depressed nose bridge, lack salivary glands, child appears older

c)

cleidocranial dysplasia - hypoplasia/aplasia of clavicles, cranial bossing, ocular hypertelorism, retained primary teeth, multiple supernumerary teeth, unerupted teeth

d)

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - hyperpigmentation/freckles on lips, hamartoma/benign polyps in the intesitines

e)

osteopetrosis/Albers-Schonberg/marble bone disease - absence of physiologic bone resorption due to reduced osteoclastic activity, bone pain, sclerosis of ostia(blindness, deafness), bone marrow(anemia), osteomyelitis, delayed eruption, enamel hypoplasia, congenitally absent teeth, unerupted and malformed teeth

44.

An old patient presents to your office with ill-fitting dentures. Radiographs reveal hypercementosis on roots and the patient is speaking embarrassingly loudly to you that she is more conscious of his baldness now that his hat doesn't fit anymore." These signs all point to what possible diagnosis?

a)

Paget's disease/osteitis deformans - hypercementosis, enlarged cranium, headaches, hearing loss, bone of increased density

b)

osteosarcoma

c)

fibrous dysplasia

d)

Albers-Schonberg disease

45.

You are consulting on a pathological case for a fellow dentist. The biopsy of the lesion shows multinucleated giant cells and perivascular collagen cuffing. After asking about the clinical signs, your colleague mentions that the young patient seems always to be "staring off into space. and that she has puffy cheeks." The most likely diagnosis of this case is:

a)

aneurysmal bone cyst

b)

central giant cell granuloma

c)

tumor of hyperparathyroidism

d)

cherubism

46.

A deficiency of parathyroid hormone can be treated with

a)

vitamin A

b)

vitamin C

c)

vitamin D

d)

vitamin K

47.

The most acute and severe type of hyperthyroidism is:

a)

Plummer's disease/toxic nodular goiter - present with cardiac disease

b)

Grave's disease/diffuse toxic goiter - exophthalmus, thickened skin over shin

c)

Hashimoto's disease

d)

Addison's disease

48.

Severe hypothyroidism in a child is called:

a)

dwarfism

b)

myxedema - extreme hypothyroidism in adults

c)

cretinism - retardation of growth, abnormal development of bones, mental retardation

d)

acromegaly

49.

The clinical features of the primary form of which disease is classically described as "stones, bones, groans, and moans?"

a)

Paget's disease

b)

hypophosphatasia

c)

hyperparathyroidism/von Recklinghausen's disease of the bone - bone pain, pathologic fracture, well-defined cystic radiolucencies, multinucleated giant cells, brown tumor

d)

hyperthyroidism

50.

On a hospital rotation you see an infant who displays bowed legs and muscular weakness. Upon dental examination you notice a delayed eruption pattern. The child has rickets, which is a deficiency in which vitamin?

a)

vitamin A

b)

vitamind D

c)

vitamin C

d)

vitamin E

51.

Which of the following conditions may be seen in a patient with cerebral palsy?

a)

difficulty with mastication and swallowing

b)

higher incidence of periodontal disease and caries

c)

attrition of the teeth

d)

multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws

52.

Which of the following diseases is associated with a decrease in caries?

a)

Sjögren's syndrome

b)

cystic fibrosis - due to alterations in saliva and long-term use of antibiotics

c)

cerebral palsy

d)

Down syndrome

53.

You are listening to a story about oyster fishing from a fellow classmate concerning his trip to the East Coast. He mentions that he got sick and had to be taken to the ER where he was told he had hepatitis. He is fine now. Which hepatitis is the most likely culprit in your colleague?

a)

hepatitis A/infectious/viral/short-incubation - fecal-oral route, parenterally, ingestion of contaminated seafood, polluted water, RNA enterovirus

b)

hepatitis B

c)

hepatitis C

54.

Which type of hepatitis is found only in patients with acute or chronic episodes of hepatitis B?

a)

hepatitis A

b)

hepatitis C - higher incidence of chronic disease, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma

c)

hepatitis D - causes serum/long-incubation hepatitis, makes the hepatitis B infection more severe

d)

hepatitis E - causes occasional epidemics

55.

Aid in wound healing

a)

highly vascular areas

b)

hyperthermia

c)

younger age

d)

cortisone

56.

Indicated for incisional/diagnostic biopsy

a)

3mm well-encapsulated fibroma

b)

necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate

c)

2mm papilloma of left commissure of lips

d)

aneurysmal bone cyst

57.

Epstein-Barr virus is associated with:

a)

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

b)

oral hairy leukoplakia - white patches of the lateral tongue, nonmalignant, AIDS

c)

Burkitt's lymphoma

d)

Rubeola - paramyxoviruses, Koplik spots - small bluish-white lesions opposite the molars surrounded by a red ring

e)

Mumps - paramyxoviruses, enlargement of parotid glands, deafness, orchitis - inflammation of testis

58.

Epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells (Langerhans giant cells and foreign body giant cells) are derived from macrophages and are important in the development of

a)

initial inflammation

b)

granulomatous inflammation - chronic inflammation, caseous necrosis: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

acute inflammation

d)

subacute inflammation

59.

A patient had minor swelling of the submandibular space associated with a carious #31 and was prescribed with amoxicillin. The swelling has gotten worse. You notice that he has trouble breathing. You call an ambulance to escort him to the ER and tell the paramedics that he has Ludwig's angina. Ludwig's angina is a severe and spreading infection that involves the:

a)

sublingual

b)

submental

c)

submandibular

d)

unilateral

e)

bilateral

60.

Elevated sedimentation rate rises during

a)

inflammation

b)

administration of hydrocortisone

c)

necrosis, tissue degeneration

d)

suppuration

e)

pregnancy

61.

Symptoms of acute fluoride poisoning include nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, convulsions, and hypotension. What is the estimated toxic dose for fluoride ingestion?

a)

1-2mg/kg

b)

5-10mg/kg -

c)

8-10mg/kg

d)

12-15mg/kg

e)

16mg/kg - death

62.

The most common cause of xerostomia is

a)

hereditary

b)

medications - antihistamines, antidepressants, anticholinergics, anorexiants, antihypertensive, antipsychotics, diuretics, sedatives

c)

tooth decay and periodontal disease - result

d)

Sjögren syndrome - most common disease that causes xerostomia; other diseases: sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus erythematous, scleroderma

e)

failure of salivary glands to function - also but not most

63.

The ABCD's of melanoma are asymmetry, border irregularity, color variability, and diameter greater than 1⁄4 inch. Malignant melanoma in the oral cavity is found in

a)

tongue and mandibular alveolar ridge

b)

buccal mucosa and pharyngeal pillars

c)

palate and maxillary gingiva

d)

mucobuccal fold of lower lip

64.

The features of basal cell carcinoma

a)

begins as a papule and enlarges peripherally

b)

develops a central crater that erodes, crusts and bleeds

c)

nonhealing, indurated chronic ulcer

d)

located primarily on sun exposed areas of head and neck especially the nose

65.

Patient, who recently had lumbar/thoracic vertebrae pains, complains of swelling, painful, loose mandibular molars. Lateral skull radiograph reveals punched-out radiolucencies.

a)

non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin's lymphoma

c)

multiple myeloma/plasma cell myeloma

d)

Langerhan's cell disease

66.

The most common type of malignant melanoma

a)

superficial spreading melanoma - flat and irregular in shape and color, radial growth phase

b)

Lentigo maligna melanoma - elderly, sun-damaged skin in head/neck/arms, large, flat and tan, develops from pre-existing Lentigo maligna/Hutchinson freckle, radial growth phase

c)

Acral lentiginous melanoma - least common, palms/soles/under nails, radial growth phase

d)

nodular melanoma - raised, dark blackish-blue/bluish-red, poorest prognosis, vertical growth phase

67.

When using the TNM method in assessing the prognosis and therapy of malignant neoplasms, T represents the size of primary tumor; M represents the presence of distant metastases; while N represents:

a)

the presence of Nikolsky sign

b)

the presence of nodules

c)

the presence of regional lymph node involvement

d)

the presences of erythroplakia

68.

The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the

a)

dorsum

b)

ventral surface

c)

tip

d)

posterior lateral border

69.

The least common type of squamous cell carcinoma

a)

squamous cell carcinoma of the palate

b)

squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx

c)

squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx

d)

squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus

70.

At which growth stage is metastasis most likely for malignant melanoma?

a)

"horizontal" growth phase - initial development of melanomas as a flat phase without competence for metastasis

b)

"circular" growth phase

c)

"vertical" growth phase - begins when neoplastic cells populate the underlying dermis, characterized clinically by an increase in size, a change in color, nodularity, and at times, ulceration

d)

"radial" growth phase - described by the ABCD's of melanoma

71.

Cancer of which oral cavity structure that is most commonly associated with mortality

a)

lip - 90% occur on the lower lip due to increased sun exposure, pipe smoking

b)

tongue - richly endowed with lymphatics and blood vessels which facilitate metastases, posterior lateral border of the tongue

c)

floor of the mouth - most commonly in the anterior segment on either side of the midline, near the orifices of the salivary glands, very poor prognosis

d)

buccal mucosa - occurs along the plane of occlusion, midway anteroposteriorly

e)

gingiva - more common in the mandible than in the maxilla, and posterior sites are seen more frequently than anterior

72.

A 47-year-old HIV+ patient has an exophytic growth in the maxillary left mucobuccal fold. A starry-sky morphology was found in the biopsy and a dismal diagnosis of Burkitt lymphoma was made. Which virus is thought to be responsible for this lymphoma?

a)

herpes virus

b)

Epstein-Barr virus - also associated with infectious mononucleosis, oral hairy leukoplakia and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

c)

cytomegalovirus

d)

human papillomavirus

73.

Ewing sarcoma - an uncommon, highly lethal, round cell sarcoma of bone (pelvis, thigh trunk, ramus of the mandible) between ages 5-30 years; most often presents radiographically as

a)

multiple radiolucent/radiopaque lesions resembling "cotton ball" or "cotton wool" appearance

b)

multiple "punched-out" radiolucencies

c)

"moth-eaten" destructive radiolucencies of medulla and erosion of the cortex with expansion or "onion-skin"

d)

lytic lesion that may be ill-defined or sharply defined

74.

A 15-year-old patient feels localized pain in his right femur and rapidly enlarging swelling. A radiograph of the area shows a "sun-ray" appearance.

a)

chondrosarcoma - painless swelling and expansion of affected bones, loose teeth/ill-fitting dentures, moth-eaten radiolucencies

b)

osteosarcoma/osteogenic sarcoma - may have loosening and displacement of teeth, paresthesia, epistaxis, widening of PDL space, moth-eaten radiolucencies (advanced)

c)

scleroderma

d)

chronic osteomyelitis

75.

In Ethiopia, you notice purplish-brown nodules on the hard palate, arms and legs of a 32-year-old female patient. HIV infection has an almost 5% prevalence. What neoplasm are you suspicious of?

a)

nicotinic stomatitis

b)

hemangioma

c)

Kaposi sarcoma - malignant neoplasm of endothelial cells (angiosarcoma), abnormal vascular proliferation, small red papules which enlarge and fuse forming purple-brown spongy nodules, human herpes virus-8

d)

leukemia

76.

Presents as a movable, painless submucosal, 0.6cm-diameter nodule similar to an epidermoid/dermoid cyst with a yellowish-pink discoloration most commonly in the floor of the mouth.

a)

lipoma

b)

ranula

c)

lymphoma - Hodgkin/non-Hodgkin type

d)

oral lymphoepithelial cyst

77.

Metastatic tumors of the jaws

a)

may be completely asymptomatic

b)

patient is usually aware of slight discomfort or pain

c)

maxilla is affected far more frequently than the mandible

(mandible is affected far more than the maxilla)

d)

molar region is predominantly involved

78.

Carcinoma of the oral cavity has T1, N2, M1 designation

T - tumor, N - lymph nodes, M - metastasis

a)

less than 2cm diameter, palpable contralateral/bilateral lymph nodes suspected metastases, clinical/radiographic evidence of metastasis

b)

TX, NX, MX - cannot be assessed

c)

T0, N0, M0 - no evidence, not clinically palpable

d)

Tis - carcinoma in situ, T2 - 4cm, T3 - greater than 4cm

e)

N1 - palpable homolateral lymph node(s), not fixed but metastases suspected

N3 - palpable lymph node(s), fixed metastases suspected

79.

65-year old with a thick white, painless, exophytic mass with a coral/cauliflower-like appearance on the maxillary alveolar tuberosity. Patient has been chewing a betel nut concoction for over 40 years.

a)

papilloma

b)

erythroplakia

c)

verrucous carcinoma - well-differentiated squamous cell neoplasm of soft tissue of the oral or laryngeal cavity, may transform into an invasive form

d)

hyperkeratosis

80.

A 73-year old patient complains of a lasting ulceration on the right side of his tongue. He has a history of hypertension, high cholesterol and smokes for 40 years. The patient takes antihypertensives and antilipidemics and has no allergies. No sources of trauma are found. After 2 weeks, the ulcer has grown in size. What is the likely diagnosis of this most common malignancy of the oral cavity?

a)

adenoid cystic carcinoma

b)

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

c)

basal cell carcinoma

d)

squamous cell carcinoma - early leukoplakia/erythroplakia, painless ulcer, tobacco, invasion

81.

If you inject the anesthetic solution into the capsule of the parotid gland, you may cause a Bell palsy-like feeling for the patient by anesthetizing the

a)

trigeminal nerve

b)

glossopharyngeal nerve

c)

hypoglossal nerve

d)

facial nerve

82.

A 25-year-old college student complains that when she wakes up, she has trouble opening her mouth. When conducting a TMJ exam, you note tenderness of the right lateral pterygoid and nonreciprocal clicking of the right TMJ. What is the most likely cause of the patient's myofacial pain

a)

trauma

b)

muscle spasm

c)

periodontal disease

d)

tumor

83.

A 53-year-old patient says he gets a sharp' jolt" on the right side of his throat when he swallows. He says the pain is severe and he can even feel it in his ear. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

postherpetic neuaralgia - persistent burning, aching, itching, and hyperesthesia following a herpes zoster attack

b)

orolingual paresthesia

c)

Frey syndrome/auriculotemporal syndrome - reinnervation of sweat glands resulting to gustatory sweating following surgical removal of parotid tumor or parotid infection damaging the auriculotemporal nerve

d)

glossopharyngeal neuralgia

e)

Ramsay Hunt syndrome - facial paralysis and otalgia (earache) from postherpetic neuralgia involving the facial nerve and geniculate ganglion

84.

A relatively rare autoimmune disorder of peripheral nerves in which antibodies form against acetylcholine (ACh) nicotinic postsynaptic receptors at the myoneural junction?

a)

myasthenia gravis - flattened smile, difficulty in chewing and swallowing, slurring of words, droopy eyes, slow papillary light responses, xerostomia, rampant caries

b)

myelofibrosis

c)

multiple sclerosis - chronic, disabling disease that attacks the CNS, tingling and numbness to paralysis and blindness, facial and jaw weakness, may develop Bell palsy and trigeminal neuralgia

d)

Grave's disease

85.

If you touch a particular trigger zone above the lip, patient gets sharp, sudden stabbing jolts of excruciating pain lasting less than 2 minutes with several minutes of refractory period. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for this illness.

a)

glossopharyngeal neuralgia

b)

trigeminal neuralgia

c)

postherpetic neuralgia

d)

diabetic neuarlgia

86.

Within soft tissue and may mimic inflammatory lesions of odontogenic origin

a)

median alveolar cyst

b)

globulomaxillary cyst

c)

nasolabial cyst - represents a soft tissue cyst not involving the alveolus, extraosseous, not seen on a radiograph

d)

nasopalatine cyst

87.

Congenital cysts

a)

thyroglossal duct cyst - midline position, dark in color, resembles a hemangioma, hemorrhage into the mouth

b)

branchial cleft/cervical lymphoepithelial cyst - anterior to sternocleidomastoid - lined with ciliated stratified squamous epithelium, contains milky/mucoid fluid

c)

globulomaxillary cyst - large pear-shaped radiolucency between lateral incisor and canine, asymptomatic, all regional teeth are vital, cause divergence of roots

d)

dermoid cyst - contains hair, sebaceous and sweat glands, tooth structures, midline of floor of the mouth/mass in the upper neck

88.

Developmental/fissural cysts

a)

nasopalatine duct (canal)/incisive canal cyst - heart-shaped radiolucency in midline, non-odontogenic cyst, asymptomatic, teeth are vital

b)

nasolabial (nasoalveolar) - soft tissues of upper lip, extraosseous

c)

branchiogenic

d)

median palatal - swelling along median palatal raphe

e)

median alveolar - in bony alveolus between central incisors, adjacent teeth are vital

89.

Circular radiolucent area seen in this radiograph is clinically seen as a marked swelling in the region of the palatine papilla. It is situated mesial to the roots of the central incisors. The pulps of the anterior teeth in this patient tested vital.

a)

nasopalatine duct (canal)/incisive canal cyst

b)

globulomaxillary cyst - between the roots of the lateral incisor and those of the canine, pear-shaped, often causes the roots of involved teeth to diverge

c)

median palatal cyst - midline of the hard palate, firm swelling that is usually painless

90.

The soft tissue, and far less common, variant of the nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst

a)

median mandibular cyst

b)

nasolabial cyst

c)

cyst of the palatine papilla

d)

aneurysmal bone cyst

91.

An 8-year-old girl who looks like 14 years old, premature puberty is the hallmark of McCune-Albright syndrome also characterized by

a)

congenital heart defects

b)

polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, pathologic fractures

c)

irregular shaped Café au lait spots on torso and intraorally

d)

endocrine dysfunction, sexual precrocity

e)

increased level of serum alkaline phosphatase

92.

An 8-year-old child has complained of pain on the left side of his head for 5 weeks. A panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radiolucent lesions on the left side of the maxilla. The lesions give the appearance of teeth that are "floating in space." The lesions are sharply circumscribed with a punched-out appearance.

a)

Langerhans cell disease/idiopathic histiocytosis/histiocytosis X - loosening of teeth, gingival tissues are inflamed, hyperplastic and ulcerated, eosinophils are mixed with the tumor Langerhans cells

b)

hyperparathyroidism

c)

cherubism

d)

Paget's disease

93.

Central giant cell granuloma

a)

appear more frequently than peripheral giant cell granulomas

(less frequently)

b)

found predominantly in children and young adults - aggressive type

c)

affects females more than males

d)

present almost exclusively in the small bones of the hands and feet

(almost exclusively within jaw and bones)

94.

A 21-year-old male patient says his "bite seems off", his chin is deviated to the right. Panoramic radiograph reveals the left condylar neck seems to have elongated.

a)

condylar agenesis - absence of all or portions of the coronoid process, condylar process, ramus, and mandibular body

b)

condylar hyperplasia - idiopathic disease characterized by a progressive, unilateral overgrowth of the mandible, chin is deviated toward the unaffected side

c)

condylar hypoplasia - shortness of the mandible with deviation of the chin toward the affected side

d)

hemifacial microsomia

95.

A 6-year-old boy has been hospitalized multiple times for broken bones. It was noted that his alkaline phosphatase levels were quite high. You notice multiple impacted teeth. If this patient has a form of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, which radiographic feature may you find?

a)

the lesions are usually radiolucent, well-circumscribed, and may have a "cotton wool" appearance - Paget's disease

b)

the lesions are usually a saucer-shaped radiolucency

c)

the lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and may have a "ground glass" appearance

d)

the lesions are usually well-demarcated unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies

e)

the lesion is well-circumscribed varying from radiolucent to radiopaque and may have a "sun-ray" pattern of new bone production - osteoblastoma

96.

Mandibular tori most often appear

a)

in the retromolar pad region

b)

on the lingual surface of the mandible, most often in the premolar region

c)

on the lingual surface of the mandible, inferior to the mylohyoid ridge

(superior)

d)

along the midline of the hard palate - Maxillary torus

97.

Clinical features of ossifying fibroma

a)

slow growing expansile lesion

b)

more often in maxilla

c)

asymptomatic

d)

common in young adults around 35 years of age

e)

more common in females

98.

Multiple cysts of the skin were found in a 17-year-old patient after head and neck examination. Her panoramic exams have always shown multiple impacted teeth and today shows multiple radiopacities of the jaws, especially at the angle of the mandible. You suspect Gardner syndrome. What is the most serious complication she should be concerned with when consulting her physician?

a)

odontomas

b)

osteomas

c)

epidermoid cysts

d)

multiple polyps that affect the large intestine; change into adenocarcinoma by the 4thdecade of life; leads to invasive colorectal cancer

99.

A 10-year-old boy has a painless swelling of his maxilla. Radiographic exam reveals an irregularly shaped radiopaque mass with a ground-glass appearance. No other bulges have been noted by the mother. A biopsy reveals fibrous tissue in the bone.

a)

monostatic fibrous dysplasia

b)

polyostotic fibrous dysplasia - alkaline phosphatase may be elevated

c)

McCune-Albright syndrome - cafe-au-lait macules, endocrine abnormalities

d)

Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome

100.

Patient's eyes are set wide and that he has predispositions for skin cancer: multiple lesions of the skin, the skin of his palm is very thick and has palmer pitting. He sees a neurologist and he has some calcified structures in his brain. Patient has nevoid basal cell carcinoma/basal cell nevus-bifid rib/Gorlin-Goltz syndrome. A panoramic radiograph may likely reveal

a)

osteomas

b)

keratocystic odontogenic tumors, calcification of the falx cerebri

c)

odontomas

d)

dentigerous cysts

101.

A 2-year-old boy has a "swelling" on his alveolar ridge. A smooth-surfaced bluish lesion with fluctuance is seen where tooth #K will be erupting. The most likely diagnosis of this is:

a)

dentigerous cyst

b)

eruption cyst

c)

hematoma

d)

hemangioma

102.

A panoramic x-ray of a 14-year-old patient reveals a well-defined multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots on the left side of the mandible apical to the canine and first premolar. No clinical symptoms are present. Teeth are not carious and respond normally to vitality tests. Medical history is unremarkable. On opening the area, no fluid or tissue is evident.

a)

dentigerous/follicular cyst - contains a crown of an unerupted tooth/odontoma, apical displacement of teeth due to presence of accumulated fluid

b)

traumatic (simple) bone cyst

c)

primordial cyst - contains no calcified structures, lined by stratified squamous epithelium, unilocular/multilocular/multiple

d)

residual cyst - a tooth associated with a radicular cyst is extracted but the cyst is left undisturbed, persists in the jaw

e)

stafne (static) bone defect - radiolucency of the mandible due to invagination of the lingual surface of the jaw, posterior mandible below the mandibular canal

103.

A 19-year-old patient's panoramic radiograph reveals a well-corticated, unilocular radiolucency surrounding the crown of impacted tooth #17. The lesion is asymptomatic.

a)

keratocystic odontogenic tumor

b)

dentigerous/follicular cyst

c)

cystic ameloblastoma

d)

central ossifying fibroma

e)

focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect - radiolucency in the jaw that contains hematopoietic bone marrow, extraction site

104.

The keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KOT) (formerly known as the odontogenic keratocyst [OKC]) is derived from

a)

Hertwig epithelial root sheath

b)

reduced enamel epithelium

c)

remnants of the dental lamina

d)

pre-existing osteoma

105.

A cyst that arises from cystic changes in a developing tooth bud before the formation of enamel and dentin matrix

a)

residual cyst

b)

traumatic bone cyst

c)

primordial cyst

d)

periodontal cyst

106.

Radiographically appears as a well-defined, round or teardrop-shaped radiolucency with an opaque margin

a)

lateral periodontal cyst - non-keratinized, non-inflammatory, adjacent /lateral to root, derived from proliferation of rests of dental lamina, soft tissue counterpart: gingival cyst of adulthood

b)

dentigerous/follicular cyst - well-defined, usually unilocular radiolucency associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth

c)

keratocystic odontogenic tumor - well-circumscribed radiolucency with smooth margins and thin radiopaque borders

d)

calcifying odontogenic cyst - unilocular/multilocular radiolucency with discrete, well-demarcated margins, "salt and pepper" type of pattern

107.

Dental granuloma and radicular cyst, can only be differentiated

a)

based on symptoms - both asymptomatic

b)

radiographically - both have a circumscribed radiolucency at the apex of tooth

c)

histologically

d)

by an electric pulp tester - both have a non-vital tooth

108.

A 37-year-old patient complains of a slowly growing, painless swelling of his lower left jaw. A panoramic shows a multilocular radiolucency with well-defined and sclerotic margins along the left mandibular molar-ramus area. All teeth test as vital. A biopsy is conducted and shows odontogenic epithelium (ameloblastoma). What is the most likely diagnosis for the most aggressive type of this tumor?

a)

solid (multicystic/polycystic)

b)

unicystic - less aggressive, histologic variant: plexiform unicystic ameloblastoma

c)

extraosseous peripheral ameloblastoma - benign non-aggressive, gingiva/buccal mucosa

109.

A 30-year-old patient complains of a painless swelling of his lower left jaw. A panoramic radiograph shows a well-circumscribed multilocular radiolucency with a "honeycomb" pattern and cortical expansion. The teeth have been displaced. The pathology report calls this an odontogenic myxoma. This tumor:

a)

is composed of large polyhedral, neoplastic, epithelial cells

b)

is composed of neoplastic epithelium and mesenchyme

c)

arises from follicular connective tissue resembling pulp tissue

d)

is composed of spindle-shaped mesenchymal cells and aggregates of multinucleated giant cells

110.

Cementoblastoma/true cementoma is a well-circumscribed radiopaque lesion that replaces the root, surrounded by a radiolucent ring, and it is more often seen

a)

in the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the posterior than in the anterior regions

(mandible>maxilla, posterior>anterior)

b)

in the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the anterior than in the posterior regions

c)

in the maxilla than in the mandible, and more often in the posterior than in the anterior regions

d)

in the maxilla than in the mandible, and more often in the anterior than in the posterior regions

111.

Periapical cemental/periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia is a reactive process of apical bone, and has

a)

a predilection for persons younger than 20 years old

b)

a predilection for middle-aged Caucasian men

c)

a predilection for middle-aged Black women

d)

no age, racial, or sex predilection

112.

The Pindborg/calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) presents jaw expansion, unilocular/multilocular radiolucent lesion which may have opaque foci, sheets of large polygonal epithelial cells that have concentric calcified deposits/Liesegang rings, and are located at the

a)

tuberosity area

b)

maxillary anterior area

c)

mandibular premolar area

d)

molar-ramus area

113.

The ameloblastic fibroma (completely lucent) and ameloblastic fibro-odontoma (with opaque focus - odontoma) are well- circumscribed, surrounded by a sclerotic margin, may be associated with the crown of an impacted tooth, These neoplasms occur predominantly in

a)

adults with a mean age of 40

b)

elderly people with a mean age of 75

c)

young adults with a mean age of 25

d)

children and young adults with a mean age of 12 (upper limit of 40)

114.

How would you refer to the group of small radiopacities between the mandibular canine and first premolar on the periapical x-ray?

a)

complex - amorphous opaque masses that don't look like a tooth typically in a tooth-bearing area, between roots/over the crown of an impacted tooth

b)

compound - multiple, small tooth-like structures typically in a tooth-bearing area, between roots/over the crown of an impacted tooth

115.

A 45-year-old African-American female has periapical cemental/periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia/ cementoma. Periapical x-ray of the mandibular incisors show multiple radiopacities with radiolucent rims. Teeth #23 through #26 test as vital. There is no pain on percussion or palpation. Treatment for these lesions should be

a)

do nothing (observe) - osteolytic stage: radiolucency, osteoblastic stage: calcification, mature/sclerotic stage: radiopacity with thin radiolucent line around the area, lesion stabilizes

b)

RCT treatment for teeth #23 through #26

c)

surgical excision of lesions

116.

A 5-year-old boy has a normally developing dentition, but you notice multiple "freckles" on his lower lip and on the buccal mucosa, gingiva, hard palate.

a)

Gorlin-Goltz syndrome

b)

Gardner syndrome

c)

Peutz-Jegher's/hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome

d)

cleidocranial dysplasia

117.

What caused the discoloration of the gingiva?

a)

amalgam tattoo - locate amalgam on x-ray if tattoo is suspected; if you can not locate any amalgam

b)

aspirin burn - blanched/whitened surface necrosis, subsequent sloughing of epithelium from placing tablet against aching tooth

c)

bismuth line - thin, blue-black line in the marginal gingiva that is sometimes confined to the gingival papilla

d)

smoking-associated melanosis - chemical in tobacco smoke that stimulates melanin production, not associated with risk of melanoma/carcinoma

e)

melanotic macule - can be associated with Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

118.

The most common location for an intraoral congenital nevi/moles/birthmark

a)

buccal mucosa

b)

tongue

c)

hard palate - usually large (>10cm), may change from flat and pale tan macules to elevated, verrucous hairy lesions, have higher incidence of malignant transformation

d)

alveolar mucosa

119.

Conditions that demonstrate pigmentation of the intraoral mucous membranes

a)

Addison disease/chronic adrenocortical insufficiency - hypofunction of adrenal cortex, bronzing

b)

McCune- Albright syndrome - severe form of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots, endocrine dysfunction, osteosarcoma

c)

Cushing syndrome - prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, upper body obesity, round face, buffalo hump, thin limbs

d)

Peutz-Jegher's/hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome - intraoral melanin pigmentation

120.

A 40-year-old patient complains of muscle weakness and loss of appetite. He has noticed a loss of weight and also that his skin has started to "bronze.' His labs show lowered blood glucose and sodium and increased potassium.

a)

Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

b)

Cushing syndrome

c)

Addison disease - adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol

d)

McCune-Albright syndrome

121.

Focal melanosis is a common circumstance in which brownish areas of pigmentation occur in the oral cavity. Once properly diagnosed

a)

surgical excision is required

b)

radiation is required

c)

no treatment is necessary

d)

antibiotics are required

122.

The intraoral nevus is usually an

a)

intradermal nevus - skin

b)

compound nevus - epithelium/lamina propria interface, also deep in the dermis, raised and solid

c)

junctional nevus - interface between the epithelium and lamina propria, flat, may transform into malignant melanoma

d)

blue nevus - congenital, painless, color based on the deep cutaneous/subcutaneous/submucosal deposits of melanin

e)

intramucosal nevus - solid and slightly raised

123.

Radiographic presentations of traumatic bone cysts

a)

well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots

b)

poorly circumscribed radiopaque lesion which may have a "ground-glass" appearance

c)

saucer-shaped radiopaque lesion

d)

poorly defined multilocular radiolucency with a "pear-shaped" appearance between the maxillary central incisors

124.

Aneurysmal bone cyst

a)

it is an uncommon expansile osteolytic lesion of bone consisting of a proliferation of vascular tissue that forms a lining around blood-filled cystic lesions

b)

most aneurysmal bone cysts occur in patients under 20 years of age, and it is uncommon after the age of 30

c)

it commonly involves the jaws

(proximal humerus, femur, tibia, and pelvis)

d)

the lesions are usually tender or painful, particularly upon motion of the bone affected

e)

upon entering the lesion surgically, excessive bleeding is encountered

125.

A patient presents with an asymptomatic, elongated, erythematous patch of atrophic mucosa of the mid-dorsal surface of the tongue due to a chronic Candida albicans infection.

a)

thyroglossal duct cyst

b)

lymphangioma

c)

hemangioma

d)

median rhomboid glossitis