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Biology Final Review

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
SPEED QUESTION!!  I am the control center of a cell.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Ribosome
d)
Plasma membrane
2.
Which is NOT true of MEIOSIS?
a)
Produces two cells
b)
Allows for genetic recombination
c)
Produces gametes
d)
Includes crossing over
3.
Which process creates an identical copy of DNA?
a)
Mutation
b)
Replication
c)
Transcription
d)
Translation
4.
Transcribe this sequence:  ACTGTTC
a)
UGACAAG
b)
TGACAAG
c)
TGUCUUG
d)
AGUCUUG
5.
In a cross of two heterozygous parents, what proportion of the offspring will also be heterozygous?
a)
50%
b)
100%
c)
0%
d)
75%
6.
SPEED QUESTION!!  Who is the Father of Genetics?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Louis Pasteur
d)
Robert Hooke
7.
Which of the following DOES NOT require cell division?
a)
Growth
b)
Hunger
c)
Reproduction
d)
Cell repair
8.
Which is NOT a characteristic of all living things?
a)
Sleep
b)
Cells
c)
Reproduction
d)
Grow
9.
What do you call all of the chemical reactions of a living thing?
a)
Metabolism
b)
Homeostasis
c)
Energy
d)
Photosynthesis
10.
As you go to higher trophic levels....
a)
Amount of energy available decreases
b)
Amount of biomass increases
c)
Number of organisms increases
d)
Size of organisms decreases
11.
SPEED QUESTION!! Organisms that CANNOT make their own food.
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Producers
d)
Prokaryotes
12.
Spiders are predators that trap insects such as mosquitoes.  What is this describing?
a)
Habitat
b)
Niche
c)
Metabolism
d)
Ecosystem
13.
SPEED QUESTION!!  The process of sunlight being used to make glucose.
a)
Respiration
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Chemosynthesis
d)
Replication
14.
Cell membrane allows nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to leave but prevents unwanted materials from entering or needed things from leaving.  What does this describe?
a)
Selective permeability
b)
Metabolism
c)
Respiration
d)
Photosynthesis
15.
When Mendel crossed two green pea plants, some of the offspring produced yellow peas.  What does this tell us about the parent plants?
a)
They must have been homozygous dominant
b)
They must have been heterozygous
c)
They must have been homozygous recessive
d)
One was dominant and one was recessive
16.
What do you call a change in an organism's DNA?
a)
Replication
b)
Mutation
c)
Codon
d)
Phenotype
17.
Which is not part of nucleotide?
a)
Deoxyribose sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogen Base
d)
Glucose
18.
Which enzyme opens the DNA molecule during DNA Replication?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
DNA Helicase
c)
DNA Ligase
d)
RNA Primase
19.
Which of the following is true about RNA?
a)
RNA contains Thymine.
b)
RNA is double-stranded.
c)
RNA contains the sugar ribose.
d)
RNA is an Amino Acid.
20.
Which organelle assembles proteins?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Ribosome
c)
Nucleus
d)
Mitochondrion
21.
Proteins are long chains composed of ________.
a)
Amino Acids
b)
Fatty Acids
c)
Nucleic Acids
d)
Hydrochloric Acids
22.
What do we call the physical trait that an organism exhibits?
a)
Phenotype
b)
Genotype
c)
Allele
d)
Recessive
23.
When an red flower and a white flower are crossed and the offspring are pink flowers... 
a)
Codominance
b)
Epistasis
c)
Intollerance
d)
Incomplete Dominance
24.
What is the genotype for an individual that is homozygous dominant?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aA
d)
aa
25.
A type of Reproductive Isolation that occurs because organisms have unique mating calls or dances.
a)
Behavioral Isolation
b)
Temporal Isolation
c)
Geographic Isolation
d)
Psychological Isolation
26.
A symbiotic relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed.
a)
Parasitism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Community
27.
An organism that can collect energy from the sun and use it to make food/energy.
a)
Heterotroph
b)
Decomposer
c)
Autotroph
d)
Consumer
28.
The process of turning nitrogen gas into solid nitrogen (ammonia).
a)
Transpiration
b)
Mutualism
c)
Denitrification
d)
Nitrogen Fixation
29.
A collection of all of the organisms of the same species living in the same area.
a)
Community
b)
Population
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Biosphere
30.
This organelle maintains homeostasis for the cell, by choosing which particles can enter or exit the cell.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Cell Membrane
d)
Chloroplast
31.
Which items are created during Cellular Respiration?
a)
Water and CO2
b)
Glucose and Oxygen
c)
Alcohol and CO2
d)
Lactic Acid
32.
These special cells have the ability to become any type of cell.
a)
Cancer Cells
b)
Blood Cells
c)
Nerve Cells
d)
Stem Cells
33.

In DNA, cytosine always pairs with

a)

guanine

b)

uracil

c)

thymine

d)

adenine

34.

DNA has

a)

a left handed twist

b)

a single strand

c)

genetic information stored in it

d)

a straight chain structure

35.

DNA is made up of phosphates, sugars, and

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

bases

d)

iodine

36.

A red flower bred to a white flower produces red and white spotted flowers. This is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

recessive genes

c)

epistasis

d)

co-dominance

37.

Organisms that rely on other organisms for food are called

a)

producers

b)

autotrophs

c)

consumers

d)

saprophytes

38.

The amount of energy expected to be transferred from one trophic level to another is ___?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

90%

d)

100%

39.

Identify the cellular organelle that the process of photosynthesis occurs in:

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

vacuole

40.

Identify the gas that is an input (reactant) of photosynthesis:

a)

oxygen

b)

Water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

41.

Identify the cellular organelle that the process of cellular respiration occurs in:

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

golgi

42.

What is the simplest level of organization in the body?

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

43.

Which of the following levels of organization BEST represents the sequence from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell, tissue, organism, organ

b)

Cell, organism, organ, tissue

c)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system

d)

Cell, organism, tissue, organ system

44.

A gene is_______________________.

a)

located only in sex cells

b)

a whole chromosome

c)

a section of DNA that codes for a trait

d)

not expressed in the dominant form

45.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

46.

What happens to the chromosome number during meiosis?

a)

doubles

b)

halves

c)

stays the same

d)

becomes diploid

47.
Animals are prokaryotic.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
49.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
50.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
51.
What is a mutation?
a)
any change in the amino acid sequence
b)
large change in the amino acid sequence
c)
negative changes to the amino acid sequence
d)
positive changes to the amino acid sequence
52.
If a daughter cell is going to be normal, when must DNA be replicated?
a)
during mitosis
b)
after mitosis
c)
before mitosis
d)
anytime
53.
If you lose blood, mitosis must occur.  How many chromosomes will the new blood cells have?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
54.
If a species has gone extinct, what MIGHT have happened?
a)
the species was well-adapted to its environment
b)
the species was poorly adapted to  its environment
c)
the species was able to kill a large amount of prey
d)
the species had no threatening predators
55.

What is a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

Variation

b)

Adaptation

c)

Overproduction

d)

Descent with Modification

56.

Which of the following finch beaks is adapted for eating hard seeds?

a)

The long, curved beak

b)

The short, curved beak

c)

The long, thin beak

d)

The short, thick beak

57.

Who came up with the theory of evolution through natural selection?

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

d)

Principal Watson

58.

What did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

Different species of finches lived on the different islands.

b)

All the species of finches lived on one island.

c)

Identical species of finches lived on the different islands.

d)

Finches did not live on the Galapagos Islands.

59.

The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the snowy, winter months. This is an example of:

a)

variation.

b)

overproduction.

c)

adaptation.

d)

descent with modification.

60.

What does "the fittest" mean in evolution?

a)

The strongest

b)

The longest lived

c)

The fastest

d)

The most reproductively successful

61.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
62.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
63.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
64.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

DNA and RNA must stay inside the cell nucleus.

b)

DNA stays in the cell nucleus and RNA can leave the nucleus.

c)

RNA stays in the cell nucleus and DNA can leave the nucleus.

d)

DNA and RNA can go into and out of the cell nucleus.

65.

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a)

each one with two original strands.

b)

each one with two new strands.

c)

each one with one new strand and one original strand.

d)

one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.

66.

What process synthesizes mRNA from DNA?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

DNA Replication

67.

What is the main function of a tRNA molecule?

a)

It carries the instructions to make proteins

b)

It forms part of the ribosomes

c)

It strings together complementary RNA and DNA strands

d)

It brings amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes

68.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

69.

What process is going on in this photo?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

All the above

70.
What is the process by which evolution occurs?
a)
Artificial Selecton
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Mimicry
71.
What is a change in the DNA code called?
a)
Genetic drift
b)
Gradual change
c)
Mutation
d)
Natural selection
72.
What are the PHYSICAL traits that we can see called?
a)
Phenotype
b)
Genotype
c)
Genes
d)
Alleles
73.
What are alternate forms of a gene called?
a)
Alleles
b)
Centromeres
c)
Phenotypes
d)
Genotypes
74.
Where in the cell is DNA located?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Lysosome
c)
Ribosome
d)
Nucleus
75.
Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, and Cytosine are all...
a)
Nitrogen bases
b)
Phosphate groups
c)
Deoxyribose sugar
d)
Hydrogen bonds
76.
Which of the following is "super-condensed DNA"?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromatid
c)
Chromosome
d)
Chromatin
77.
Which nitrogen base does Adenine bond with?
a)
Adenine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Guanine

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