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Infection Control & Integumentary System Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but is not always effective against spores and viruses is:

a)

antisepsis

b)

ultrasound cleaning

c)

chemical disinfection

d)

sterilization

2.

Which of the following are characteristics of bacteria?

a)

are simple, one-celled organisms

b)

multiply rapidly

c)

are classified by shape and arrangement

d)

all of these answers

3.

Disease that originates outside the body are called:

a)

Endogenous

b)

Exogenous

c)

Nosocomial

d)

Opportunistic

4.

The body’s defenses include which of the following when fighting pathogens:

a)

Mucous membranes

b)

Cilia

c)

Coughing and sneezing

d)

Fever

e)

All of these answers

5.

What does asepsis mean?

a)

Free of all organisms

b)

Absence of disease-producing microorganisms

c)

Any object or area that may contain pathogens

d)

None of these

6.

What does sterile mean?

a)

Free of all organisms

b)

Absence of disease-producing microorganisms

c)

Any object or area that may contain pathogens

d)

None of these

7.

What does contaminated mean?

a)

Free from all organisms

b)

Absence of disease-producing microorganisms

c)

Any object or area that may contain pathogens

d)

All of these answers

8.

Aseptic techniques include:

a)

Handwashing

b)

Good personal hygiene

c)

Use of disposable gloves

d)

Properly cleaning instruments and equipment

e)

All of these answers

9.

Which statement pertains to handwashing the best?

a)

The most important aseptic technique

b)

Not a major aspect of standard precautions

c)

Least effective method of infection control

d)

Performed for 10 seconds

10.

The World Health Organization (WHO) states handwashing should be done:

a)

Before patient contact

b)

Before clean or aseptic procedure

c)

After contact with a patient’s skin

d)

After touching patient surroundings

e)

All of these answers are correct

11.

When washing hands, you should:

a)

Use friction

b)

Clean all hand surfaces

c)

Use soap as a cleansing agent

d)

Point fingertips downward

e)

All of these answers

12.

The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard was established by OSHA in:

a)

1991

b)

1992

c)

1993

d)

1994

13.

The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard:

a)

Does not identify all employees with occupational exposure

b)

Provides personal protective equipment (PPE)

c)

Does not require the use of sharps containers

d)

Does not provide employee training

14.

Gloves should NOT be:

a)

Worn when performing invasive procedures

b)

Worn when performing venipuncture or blood tests.

c)

Reused

d)

Worn when collecting urine

15.

Communicable diseases are spread by:

a)

Direct contact.

b)

Contact with dirty linen, equipment, supplies.

c)

Contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions.

d)

All of these answers

16.

There are 7 functions of skin. Which of the following are NOT functions of skin?

a)

Absorption, excretion and production

b)

Conditioning, water retention and electrolyte balance

c)

Sensory perception and body temperature regulation

d)

Storage and protection

17.

Which part of the skin is the outermost layer?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Corium

18.

What are small concentrated areas of melanin pigment?

a)

Acne

b)

Freckles

c)

Erythematous vesicles

d)

Frackles

19.

True or False? Most waterless hand cleaning products contain bleach for antisepsis and a moisturizer to prevent drying of the skin.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

True or False? Viruses cannot reproduce unless they are inside another living cell.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

True or False? Employers must provide the Hepatitis B vaccine at no cost to an employee with occupational exposure to blood or other body secretions.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

True or False? MRSA stands for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

True or False? You should use Standard Precautions on all patients.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Glands that usually open onto the hair follicles and produce sebum, an oil that keeps the skin and hair from becoming dry and brittle:

a)

Hair

b)

Sudoriferous glands

c)

Sebaceous glands

d)

Nails

25.

Associated with bile in the blood:

a)

Erythema

b)

Jaundice

c)

Cyanosis

d)

None of these

26.

Made of dead, keratinized epidermal epithelial cells packed closely together to form a thick, dense surface:

a)

Nails

b)

Hair

c)

Nail bed

d)

Wart

27.

Caused by insufficient oxygen and other circulatory diseases/disorders:

a)

Erythema

b)

Jaundice

c)

Cyanosis

28.

Coiled tubes that extend through the dermis and open on the surface of the skin at pores:

a)

Sudoriferous glands

b)

Sebaceous glands

c)

Pimples

d)

Freckles

29.

Helps protect the body and covers all body surfaces except for the palms of hands and soles of the foot:

a)

Epidermis

b)

Nails

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Hair

30.

Can be caused by burns or congestion of blood in the vessels:

a)

Jaundice

b)

Erythema

c)

Cyanosis

31.

Itchy, elevated areas with an irregular shape; hives and insect bites:

a)

Macules

b)

Wheales

c)

Ulcer

d)

Impetigo

32.

Red lesions on the face, especially around the nose and mouth, or on other body surfaces:

a)

Verrucae

b)

Crusts

c)

Macules

d)

Impetigo

33.

Pus-filled sacs such as those seen in acne or pimples:

a)

Crusts

b)

Pustules

c)

Macules

d)

Wheales

34.

Rough, hard, elevated, rounded surface forms on the skin:

a)

Crusts

b)

Macules

c)

Verrucae

d)

Ulcer

35.

A deep loss of skin surface that may extend into the dermis; may cause periodic bleeding and the formation of scars:

a)

Ulcer

b)

Crusts

c)

Pustules

d)

None of these

36.

Flash spots on the skin such as freckles:

a)

Crusts

b)

Warts

c)

Macules

d)

Wheales

37.

Areas of dried pus and blood, commonly called scabs:

a)

Ouchie

b)

Crusts

c)

Ulcer

d)

Bo-Bo

38.

True or False? Symptoms of Athlete's Foot: Skin itches, blisters, and cracks into open sores.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

True or False? Symptoms of Vesicles: Blisters, or fluid-filled sacs, such as those seen in chickenpox.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

True or False? Symptom of acne vulgaris: Inflammation of a sudoriferous gland.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

True or False? Dermatitis symptoms: Frequently an allergic reaction to detergents, cosmetics, pollen, or certain foods.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

True or False? Symptoms of a cyst: An open sac with a distinct membrane that develops abnormally in a body structure; usually hollow.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Thick, red areas covered with white or silver scales:

a)

Ringworm

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Acne Vulgaris

d)

Freckles

44.

Formation of a flat or raised circular area with a healthy looking inner area surrounded by an itchy, scaly, or crusty outer ring:

a)

Vesicles

b)

Ringworm

c)

Cyst

d)

Dermatitis

45.

45. Simple plantlike organisms such as yeasts and molds. c

a)

Fungi

b)

Pathogen

c)

Aerobic

d)

Viruses

46.

Smallest microorganisms, visible only by using an electron microscope:

a)

Viruses

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Pathogen

47.

Any organism that requires oxygen in order to live and reproduce:

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

48.

Process that destroys all microorganisms including spores and viruses:

a)

Aseptic Technique

b)

Disinfecting

c)

Handwashing

d)

Sterilization

49.

Any organism that causes infection and disease:

a)

Virus

b)

Cooties

c)

Pathogen

d)

None of these answers

50.

Organism that lives and reproduces in the absence of oxygen:

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic