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Micro 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor) should remain in contact on the skin for at least:

a)

10 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

5 minutes

2.

What is the purpose of adding sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures?

a)

Inhibits phagocytosis and complement

b)

Promotes formation of a blood clot

c)

Enhances growth of anaerobes

d)

Functions as a preservative

3.

Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen:

a)

MacConkey agar and thioglycolate media

b)

TCBS and alkaline peptone water

c)

Blood agar and selenite F broth

d)

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar

4.

Blood agar plates are ideally prepared with 5% RBCs obtained from:

a)

Sheep

b)

Horses

c)

Humans

d)

Dogs

5.

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:

a)

Yersinia enterocolitica

b)

Yersinia intermedia

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Clostridium difficile

6.

Prereduced and Vitamin K1 supplemented blood agar plates are recommended isolation media for:

a)

Mycobacterium marinum and M. avium

b)

Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.

c)

Proteus spp.

d)

Enterococcus spp.

7.

Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp.?

a)

Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells

b)

Plate onto blood and chocolate agar

c)

Inoculate into thioglycolate broth

d)

Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 24 hours

8.

The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?

a)

Acetoin

b)

Nitrite

c)

Acetic acid

d)

H2S

9.

Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?

a)

p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

b)

MR

c)

Bromcresol purple

d)

Cytochrome oxidase

10.

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?

a)

Enterobacter, Escherichia and Salmonella

b)

Morganella, Providencia and Proteus

c)

Klebsiella and Enterobacter

d)

Proteus, Escherichia and Shigella

11.

An isolate of E.coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for what sugar before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?

a)

Sorbitol

b)

Mannitol

c)

Raffinose

d)

Sucrose

12.

Which genera of Enterobacteriacea are usually nonmotile at 36oC?

a)

Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia

b)

Escherichia, Edwardsiella and Enterobacter

c)

Proteus, Providencia and Salmonella

d)

Serratia, Morganella and Hafnia

13.

Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?

a)

Urease

b)

Sucrose

c)

Citrate

d)

Indole

14.

The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism?

a)

Proteus vulgaris

b)

Yersinia pestis

c)

Shigella dysenteriae

d)

Aeromonas hydrophila

15.

In grouping Shigella organisms, agglutination by group B antisera indicates that the species is:

a)

Shigella dysenteriae

b)

Shigella flexneri

c)

Shigella boydii

d)

Shigella sonnei

16.

Pus with blue green-color was aspirated from empyema. A Gram stain of the aspirated material showed many WBCs and numerous gram-negative bacilli. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be:

a)

Legionella pneumophila

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Acinetobacter anitratus

17.

A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea, and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the best media for recovery and identification of this organism.

a)

MaConkey agar

b)

Blood Agar

c)

TCBS agar

d)

Xylose lysine desoxycholate agar

18.

What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective agar at 35-37oC and 42oC?

a)

5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2

b)

10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2

c)

20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2

d)

20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2

19.

Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?

a)

Chocolate agar

b)

Blood agar

c)

MacConkey agar

d)

Bordet-Gengou agar

20.

Which media is recommended for the recovery of Brucella spp. from blood and bone marrow specimens?

a)

Biphasic Castaneda bottles with Brucella broth

b)

Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth

c)

Bordet-Gengou agar plates and thioglycolate broth

d)

Blood culture bottles with thioghlycolate broth

21.

In addition to CO2 requirement and biochemical characteristics, Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?

a)

Basic fuchsin and thionin

b)

Methylene blue and crystal violet

c)

Carbol fuchsin and iodine

d)

Safranin and methylene blue

22.

Which medium is best for recovery of Legionella pneumophila from clinical specimens?

a)

Chocolate agar

b)

Bordet-Gengou agar

c)

New yeast extract agar

d)

Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar

23.

The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

24.

Which Haemophilus sp. is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?

a)

H. aphrophilus

b)

H. haemolyticus

c)

H. ducreyi

d)

H. parahaemolyticus

25.

A spherical, gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, non-motile and unable to produce acid from glucose anaerobically is best identified as a member of the genus:

a)

Micrococcus

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Veillonella

d)

Moraxella

26.

Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?

a)

S. aureus

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. intermedius

d)

S. saprophyticus

27.

Bacitracin A disks (0.04 units) are used for the presumptive identification of which group of beta-hemolytic Streptococcus spp.?

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group F

28.

Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?

a)

Optochin disk test

b)

Bacitracin disk test

c)

CAMP test

d)

Bile esculin test

29.

The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Streptococcus bovis

c)

Streptococcus equines

d)

Grp D streptococci (enterococci)

30.

The Quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus spp.?

a)

S. pyogenes

b)

S. agalactiae

c)

S. sanguis

d)

S. pneumoniae

31.

The L-pyrolidonyl-B-naphtylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which streptococci?

a)

Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci

b)

Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci

c)

Non-Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)

32.

Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification?


Bile esculin +

Bile solubility 0

6.5% salt +

SXT R

PYR +

a)

Enterococcus faecalis

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Streptococcus bovis

d)

Group B streptococci

33.

A gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics:


Optochin susceptibility-Negative

Bacitracin (0.04 U) susceptibility-Negative

Bile esculin hydrolysis-Negative

Hippurate hydrolysis-Positive

Catalase-Negative


This organism is most likely:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)

d)

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)

34.

Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) media is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital specimens?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Neisseria sicca

c)

Neisseria lactamica

d)

Neisseria flavescens

35.

The superoxol test is used as a presumptive test for:

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Neisseria lactamica

d)

Moraxella catarrhalis

36.

Culture on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification:


Glucose +

Fructose 0

Maltose +

Lactose +

Sucrose 0

a)

N. gonorrhoeae

b)

N. sicca

c)

N. flavescens

d)

N. lactamica

37.

Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?

a)

Motility and beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate

b)

Oxidase and alpha-hemolysis on blood agar plate

c)

Lecithinase and glucose

d)

Lecithinase and catalase

38.

A non-spore-forming, slender gram-positive rod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal cultures and grew well on tomato juice agar. The most likely identification is:

a)

Lactobacillus spp.

b)

Bacillus spp.

c)

Neisseria spp.

d)

Streptococcus spp.

39.

A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?

a)

Bacillus spp.

b)

Nocardia spp.

c)

Corynebacterium spp.

d)

Listeria spp.

40.

Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Babesia microti

c)

Neisseria meningitidis

d)

Borrelia burgdorferi

41.

Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

42.

Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1-5 days of culture from a genital specimen?

a)

Mycoplasma hominis

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

Leptospira interrogans

d)

Treponema pallidum

43.

A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes and metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:

a)

Corynebacterium spp.

b)

Nocardia spp.

c)

Listeria spp.

d)

Gardnerella spp.

44.

Which of the following is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected in a patient with vaginosis?

a)

10% KOH

b)

3% H2O2

c)

30% H2O2

d)

AOTA

45.

A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?

a)

Bacteroides ureolyticus

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Clostridium difficile

46.

Which spore type and location is found on C. tetani?

a)

Round, terminal spores

b)

Round, subterminal

c)

Ovoid, subterminal spores

d)

Oval, terminal spores

47.

Which Clostridium spp. is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene?

a)

C. sporogenes

b)

C. sordellii

c)

C. novyi

d)

C. perfringens

48.

A Gram stain smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old male with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is:

a)

Actinomyces israelii

b)

Propionibacterium acnes

c)

Streptococcus intermedius

d)

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

49.

Mycobacteria stained with Ziehl-neelsen or Kinyuon methods using a methylene blue counterstain, are seen microscopically as:

a)

Bright red rods against a blue background

b)

Bright yellow rods against a yellow background

c)

Orange-red rods against a black background

d)

Bright blue rods against a pink background

50.

Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37 oC. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Mycobacterium ulcerans

c)

Mycobacterium kansasii

d)

Mycobacterium avium complex