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3037 Review

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 6hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name this process

a)

Myosis

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Mitosis

2.
Antibiotics do not work on 
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
fungi
d)
children
3.
Which of the following can cause infections to open cuts?
a)
Baceteria
b)
Viruses
c)
Fungi
d)
All of them
4.
What is the scientific term for spreading a disease?
a)
Passing
b)
Catching
c)
Transmitting
d)
Giving
5.
What is one way a pathogen can enter the body?
a)
Nose
b)
Mouth
c)
Broken Skin
d)
All of the Aove
6.
Viruses are
a)
easily killed
b)
destroyed by antibiotics
c)
nonliving
d)
different kinds of bacteria
7.

What are disease-causing microorganisms, such as a bacterium or virus classed as?

a)

pathogen

b)

allergen

c)

prion

d)

antigen

8.
Which of the following is not a characteristic sign of acute inflammation?
a)
lasts for a long period of time
b)
swelling
c)
loss of movement
d)
redness
9.
The process where leukocytes engulf and digest bacteria is called 
a)
leukocytosis
b)
hydrostatic pressure
c)
pathogenolysis
d)
phagocytosis
10.
Inflammation is designed to be a protective defensive mechanism. 
a)
True
b)
False
11.
which of the following is NOT one of the signs of inflammation?
a)
redness (erythema)
b)
heat 
c)
pain
d)
bleeding
12.
What do white blood cells do?
a)
Seek out and kill all living tissue
b)
Seek out and kill pathogens
c)
Transport food around the body
d)
Repair cuts and injuries
13.
Antibiotics are used to treat
a)
viruses
b)
bacteria
c)
both viruses and bacteria
d)
fungal infections, only
14.
What is the main purpose of the immune system?
a)
support the body through bones and muscles
b)
get rid of waste from the body
c)
protect the body from pathogens
d)
move blood through the body
15.
What do antibodies attach to on the pathogen?
a)
Anti inflammatory
b)
Antigens
c)
Antiseptic
d)
Antibodies
16.
Which one is a way the body defends against a pathogen?
a)
Fever
b)
Stomach Acid digesting
c)
White Blood Cells fighing
d)
All of these are correct
17.
Pathogens are recognized by their...
a)
antigens
b)
antibodies
c)
killer t-cells
d)
B-cells
18.
 Like all other body systems, the immune system helps the body maintain homeostasis.  Which statement best describes how the immune system does this?  
a)
it protects other organs and tissues from infection and disease
b)
it breaks down food to provide cells with nutrients
c)
it gathers information through the senses and controls all other body systems
d)
 it transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
19.
T cells are made in the___________
a)
bone marrow
b)
spleen
c)
thymus
d)
tonsiles
20.
T cells mature in the
a)
bone marrow
b)
spleen
c)
thymus
d)
kidney
21.
__________ immunity is when the bodies makes its own antibodies.
a)
passive
b)
active
c)
cell mediated
d)
false
22.
Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n
a)
lymph cell
b)
antigen
c)
antibody
d)
neutrop
23.
Y shaped proteins that may mark pathogens for destruction are
a)
antigens
b)
T cells
c)
antibodies
d)
neutrophils
24.
The body's first line of defense against pathogens is
a)
barriers.
b)
inflammatory response.
c)
immune system.
d)
lymphatic system.
25.

Weakened microbes that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies used to fight future invasions by the same microbe. Example: influenza

a)

Vaccine

b)

Disease

c)

Immunity

26.

What is the function of antibodies within the immune system?

a)

Antibodies kill off any antigen that enters the body.

b)

Antibodies are only made when you are given a vaccination for specific antigens.

c)

Antibodies bind to specific antigens to flag for destruction.

d)

Antibodies are part of an external defense mechanism.

27.

What happens after the second time you are exposed to a pathogen?

a)

The body will not be able to fight off the pathogen quickly, because it knows how to get into the body easier.

b)

The body's immune system will react the same was as it did during the first exposure.

c)

The body can only be exposed to a pathogen a second time if you do not have a vaccine.

d)

The body will know how to fight off the pathogen quickly, because memory cells have been created after the first encounter.

28.

How do T cells differ from B cells?

a)

T cells fight pathogens by killing pathogens directly, while B cells fight pathogens by making antibodies.

b)

T cells only make memory cells, and B cells only make antigens

c)

T cells fight pathogens by making antibodies, while B cells fight pathogens by killing pathogens directly.

d)

T cells can only fight off pathogens the body has encountered once, and B cells can fight off any pathogen the body comes across.

29.
What function does mucus play in the immune system?
a)
traps foreign particles from entering the body
b)
moistens food
c)
produces WBCs
d)
acts as a lubricant
30.

First line defenses include

a)

skin

b)

hair

c)

mucus

d)

all of the above

31.

Skin protects a person from pathogens by _______________.

a)

being thin and easy to allow things through

b)

shedding occasionally

c)

serving as a protective layer that keeps foreign objects out

d)

allowing bacteria to enter if it is healthy

32.

Which parts of the respiratory system keep pathogens from reaching the inside of your body? (select all that apply)

a)

nose hair

b)

lungs

c)

mucus

d)

blood

33.

Select 2 ways that your digestive system works to protect you form pathogens that have entered the body?

a)

Using stomach acids to neutralise the pathogen

b)

Vomit

c)

Diarrhoea

d)

By causing gas

34.

White blood cells and inflammatory response is part of what line of defense?

a)

first line

b)

second line

c)

third line

d)

fourth line

35.

Bacteria come in 3 shapes. What are they?

a)

bacteriophage, macrophage, flosophage

b)

cone, sphere, spiral

c)

rod, sphere, spiral

d)

cone. rod, spiral

36.

All bacteria cause illness and disease.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

Bacteria can harm your body and cause disease by...

a)

destroying cells and capturing toxins

b)

damaging tissue and releasing toxins

c)

damaging organs and ingesting cells

d)

causing fungus and viruses to grow

38.

Passive transfer of immunity is....

a)

Injectable antibodies.

b)

Antibodies transferred by the dam to the foal

c)

Antibodies developed in utero

d)

Antibodies transferred by the sire to the foal

39.

Failure of Passive Transfer is...

a)

Not enough antibodies transferred from mare to foal in utero.

b)

Not enough antibodies given by a vaccine

c)

Not enough antibodies transferred from mare to foal after birth.

d)

Not enough antibodies developed by the foal

40.

Colostrum is...

a)

The first milk produced by the mare with no antibodies

b)

The first milk produced by the mare rich in antibodies.

c)

Milk produced 48 hours after foaling.

d)

Milk produced 24 hours after foaling.

41.

Maximal colostrum absorption begins to decline by...

a)

8 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

16 hours

d)

48 hours

42.

Healthy Foals should be vaccinated by...

a)

5 months of age from a vaccinated mare.

b)

3 months from an unvaccinated mare.

c)

7 months of age from a vaccinated mare.

d)

5 months from an unvaccinated mare.

43.

Germ Theory is defined as:....

a)

Diseases are caused by microorganisms large enough to see without magnification.

b)

Diseases are caused by virus's.

c)

Diseases are caused by microorganisms too small to see without magnification.

d)

Diseases are caused by bacterium.

44.

Modified Live Vaccines contain:....

a)

Contain a pathogen which is infective

b)

Use a killed version of the disease causing agent.

c)

Contain a pathogen which has been rendered

non-infective

d)

A spliced version of the disease causing agent.

45.

A viral disease in horses could be....

a)

Equine Influenza

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Equine Infectious Anaemia

d)

Tetanus

46.

A bacterial disease could be....

a)

Strangles

b)

Influenza

c)

Mudfever

d)

Rotavirus

47.
A small injected dose of a pathogen that stimulates the production of antibodies is:
a)
histamine
b)
interferon
c)
pathogen
d)
vaccine
48.
An organism that enters a life form and causes disease or sickness is a/an:
a)
macrophage
b)
pathogen
c)
vaccine
d)
flu
49.
The first line of localized defense of the immune system is:
a)
lymphatic response
b)
infection response
c)
auto-immune response
d)
inflammatory response
50.
This gland, located anterior to the heart, but posterior to the sternum, is the lymphatic site where T cells are produced and mature:
a)
tonsils
b)
trachea
c)
thymus
d)
thalamus
51.
A type of cell that "digests" pathogens is known as a/an:
a)
helper T cell
b)
macrophage
c)
suppressor T cell
d)
plasma cell
52.
A type of T cell that destroys infected cells is a:
a)
cytotoxic T cell
b)
helper T cell
c)
memory T cell
d)
suppressor T cell
53.
The organism that is infected by a pathogen/antigen is known as the:
a)
survivor
b)
infectee
c)
source
d)
host
54.
Innate and adaptive immunity are the same thing.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
55.
The first line of defense against antigen is the _________ system.
a)
respiratory
b)
digestive
c)
integumentary
d)
lymphatic
56.
Viruses, like bacteria, can be successfully treated with doctor prescribed antibiotics.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
57.
Signs of an inflammatory reaction include redness, swelling, heat, and itch.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
58.

Which of the following are examples of innate (non-specific) immunity?

a)

Skin forms a physical and antiseptic barrier to pathogens

b)

Leukocytes detect the antigens of the E.coli bacterium and produce antibodies

c)

Macrophages engulf bacterial cells at the site of infection

d)

The body produces large numbers of memory cells with specific antibodies

59.

This type of immunity can be called nonspecific and refers to the bodies defenses that are present since birth.

a)

resistance

b)

adaptive immunity

c)

acquired immunity

d)

innate immunity

60.

This type of immunity is acquired during one's lifetime. It is induced by antigens that invade the body.

a)

innate immunity

b)

adaptive immunity

c)

nonspecific immunity

d)

normal microbiota

61.
Which line of defense includes the skin, sweat, mucous membranes, and normal microbiota?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
62.
A secondary immune response will be faster when...
a)
The individual has encountered the pathogen already
b)
The individual's macrophages are on high alert
c)
The individual has encountered the pathogen and has memory B cells circulating
d)
All of the above
63.
When a macrophage engulfs a pathogen and displays the antigens, what happens next?
a)
Helper T cells pick up information about the specific pathogen
b)
B cells produce antibodies
c)
Killer T cells destroy more pathogens
d)
Nothing
64.

What correctly describes antibodies?

a)

They can attach to many different antigens

b)

They are a part of the innate immune system

c)

They are specific to their antigens

d)

They are found on invasive bacteria

65.

Who do you need to contact before moving horse from GB to the EU or NI?

a)

A transporter.

b)

Your vet

c)

No-one.

d)

British Transport Police.

66.

What tests do you need before export?

a)

Equine Herpes Virus

b)

Equine Viral Arteritis

c)

Equine Infectious Anaemia

d)

Equine Influenza

67.

Competing in the EU (temporary export) requires you to:

a)

Isolate for 30 days before and after

b)

Keep it in a country with similar health status for 30 days.

c)

Isolate for 40 days before.

d)

Keep it in a country with similar health status for 40 days.

68.

Before permanent or temporary export to or from the EU for countries without similar health status you need to:

a)

Isolate for 40 days under veterinary supervision

b)

Isolate for 30 days under veterinary supervision

c)

Keep the animal on a holding for 90 days under veterinary supervision

d)

Keep the animal on a holding for 30 days under veterinary supervision

69.

What is an Export Health Certificate?

a)

An unofficial document that confirms your export meets the health requirements of the departure country.

b)

An unofficial document that confirms your export meets the health requirements of the destination country.

c)

An official document that confirms your export meets the health requirements of the departure country.

d)

An official document that confirms your export meets the health requirements of the destination country.

70.

Horse passports are a mandatory requirement for:

a)

Horse, Ponies & Donkeys

b)

Horses & Ponies.

c)

Horses, Ponies, Donkeys, Zebras & Mules.

d)

Horses, Ponies, Donkeys & Mules.

71.

A passport is a document that must:

a)

Names the registered veterinarian.

b)

Describes breeds, colour and species of the animal.

c)

Names the registered owner.

d)

Names the registered owner.

72.

You must provide your horses passport:

a)

When a veterinarian treats your animal.

b)

During sales.

c)

During animal health inspections.

d)

When travelling.

e)

All of the above.

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