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Worksheets

Exam Review: 8th Grade

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the net force?

a)

3 N

b)

3 N, right

c)

17 N, right

d)

3 N, left

2.
Who wins the tug of war with what net force?
a)
The person on the left with 20 N
b)
The person on the left with 80 N
c)
The people on the right with 20 N
d)
The people on the right with 100 N
3.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
4.

What is the unit to MEASURE force?

a)

Kilogram

b)

Meter

c)

Pounds

d)

Newton

5.

A ____________ is a push or a pull on an object.

a)

friction

b)

force

c)

magnet

d)

gravity

6.
If these teams are pulling with the same amount of force what will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
7.

Forces that have a net force of zero Newtons

a)

Balanced force

b)

Unbalanced force

8.
The sum of all forces acting on an object.
a)
Contact Force
b)
Balanced Force
c)
Unbalanced Force
d)
Net Force
9.
What will cause an object to move?
a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
10.
What is a Force?
a)
The distance
b)
Mass
c)
A push or pull
d)
Give me a  failing grade 
11.
What does the strength of gravity between two objects depend upon?
a)
Mass & distance
b)
Mass & weight
c)
Gravity & inertia
d)
Inertia & mass
12.
All objects in the universe have a gravitational attraction to each other. 
a)
True
b)
False
13.
This type of force resist motion between two surfaces that are pressed together
a)
contact
b)
gravity
c)
friction
14.

If both forces are going in the same direction you should______ those forces

a)

Add

b)

Subtract

c)

Divide

d)

Multiply

15.

When forces are going in the opposite direction of each other you should do what do find the net force

a)

Subtract

b)

Add

c)

Divide

d)

Multiply

16.
Why is person B having a hard time moving down the hill?
a)
Person B has more friction than person A.
b)
Person B has the same friction as person A.
c)
Person B is out of shape.
d)
Person B has less friction has person A.
17.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
S = t/d
b)
S = d/t
c)
S = d x t
d)
S = t x d
18.

A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes her 10 seconds to finish. What is her average speed?

a)

10 m/s

b)

1000 m/s

c)

100 seconds

d)

10 seconds

19.
Which of the following is a unit of time?
a)
sec
b)
mi
c)
m/s
d)
km
20.
Which of the following is a unit of speed ?
a)
sec
b)
mi
c)
m/s
d)
min
21.
Which of the following is a unit of distance ?
a)
miles/hr
b)
hr
c)
km
d)
min
22.
Which of the following is a unit of speed?
a)
km/hr
b)
hr
c)
km
d)
s
23.
How long did it take this object to travel 10 m?
a)
0 s
b)
10 s
c)
15 s
d)
20 s
24.
At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 
a)
0 m
b)
10 m
c)
20 m
d)
40 m
25.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
26.
Where is the object not moving
a)
A-B
b)
O-A
c)
C-D
d)
B-C
27.
Which runner won the race?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
28.

If a lizard can run 8 m across the water in 4 seconds, how fast is he traveling?

a)

32 m/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

2 seconds

d)

34 meters

29.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Decceleration
d)
Not moving
30.
Why does a car accelerate as it round a corner at a constant speed?
a)
Its direction changes
b)
It doesn't
c)
It slows down
d)
Its speeds up  
31.
Acceleration only takes place when things speed up. 
a)
True
b)
False
32.

The rate that a car's velocity changes is its

a)

speed

b)

force

c)

gravity

d)

acceleration

33.
Which of the following will not change in different gravitational fields?
a)
weight
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
34.

When placed at equal distances apart, the greatest gravitational attraction will be between two

a)

skateboards

b)

bowling balls

c)

school buses

35.

Which is needed to determine the amount of gravitational force between two objects?

a)

distance and mass

b)

weight and time

c)

area and weight

36.
What is gravitational force?
a)
It makes objects at rest start moving.
b)
It makes objects that are moving stop.
c)
The force of attraction between two objects.
d)
It pulls you into space.
37.
Objects with greater _________ also have greater inertia.
a)
speed
b)
mass
c)
temperature
d)
friction
38.
Because of inertia, a moving object will keep ________.
a)
at rest
b)
moving
c)
in one spot
d)
inertia 
39.

Inertia is a force

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Inertia is Newton's _______ Law of Motion.

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

41.

An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by a(n) ____________________.

a)

unbalanced force

b)

inertia

c)

mass

d)

balanced force

42.

More mass = More inertia

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Objects with more mass are..

a)

harder to speed up or slow down

b)

easier to speed up or slow down

44.

Objects with less mass are...

a)

easier to speed up or slow down.

b)

harder to speed up or slow down.

45.

Complete the excerpt of Newton's First Law of Motion


"...and an object at rest will ________ until acted on by an unbalanced force."

a)

...stay at rest...

b)

...start an increasing motion...

c)

...start a decreasing motion...

46.
A measure of how much matter an object has is--
a)
weight
b)
gravity
c)
mass
d)
volume
47.
For every action, thereʼs an equal and opposite reaction. *Action-Reaction*
a)
Newton's First Law
b)
Newton's Second Law
c)
Newton's Third Law
d)
force
48.
With unbalanced forces, the object will move in the direction of the _______ force.
a)
larger 
b)
smaller 
c)
equal 
49.
What part is represented by the blue lines?
a)
Crest
b)
Resting Point
c)
Wavelength
d)
Amplitude
50.
What is represented by the blue lines?
a)
Trough
b)
Crest
c)
Wavelength
d)
Amplitude
51.
What is represented by the letter 'x'?
a)
Crest
b)
Compression
c)
Rarefaction
d)
Wavelength
52.
What is represented by the  letter 'y'?
a)
Compression
b)
Rarefaction
c)
Wavelength
d)
Amplitude
53.
Distance from an 'x' to an 'x' is a________
a)
wavelength
b)
amplitude
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
54.
Which wave has a higher frequency?
a)
A
b)
B
55.
Which wave has a longer wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
56.
What type of wave is this?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
57.
What type of wave is this?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
58.
Which type of wave does light travel in?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
59.

A wave that can travel with or without a medium is called a(n)

a)

electromagnetic wave

b)

mechanical wave

c)

surface wave

d)

all waves can travel in any way

60.

Transverse waves have:

a)

crests and troughs

b)

troughs and rarefactions

c)

compressions and contractions

d)

rarefactions and crests

61.
Which wave has the largest wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same wavelength)
62.
Which type of light has the lowest energy of this group?
a)
Radio
b)
Microwave
c)
Infrared
d)
Ultraviolet
63.
Which type of light has the largest wavelength of this group?
a)
X-rays
b)
Microwave
c)
Infrared
d)
Ultraviolet
64.
Which type of light has the highest energy of this group?
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
blue
65.
Which type of light has the smallest frequency of this group?
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
blue
66.

This image best depicts which of the following wave behaviors?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Resonance

67.

This image depicts which of the following wave behaviors?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Resonance

68.

The two blue and purple waves will undergo _________________ when they meet.

a)

Constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

69.

The image of the two waves depicts

a)

Constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

70.

Definition: when a wave reaches the interface between two different media, typically some of the wave will bounce back into the original medium.

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Polarization

71.

Definition: The spreading out of waves as they pass through an opening or around objects.

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Resonance

72.

Light waves and sound waves are similar in that...

a)

They are both longitudinal waves

b)

They are both transverse waves

c)

They both transmit energy

d)

They both can travel through space.

73.

Which of the pictured is responsible for black pavement being hot?

a)

Transmission

b)

Reflection

c)

Refraction

d)

Scattering

e)

Absorption

74.
a)

absorption

b)

diffraction

c)

reflection

d)

refraction

e)

transmission

75.
a)

absorption

b)

diffraction

c)

reflection

d)

refraction

e)

transmission

76.
What is causing you to be able to see two sets of mountains in this picture? 
a)
refraction of light
b)
reflection of light
c)
transmission of light
d)
absorption of light
77.

What type of interference do noise cancelling headphones use?

a)

Constructive Interference

b)

Destructive Interference

78.
Which tool allows scientists to take pictures very distant objects such as other galaxies, stars, and planets?
a)
telescope
b)
periscope
c)
space shuttle
79.

What kind of telescope sends and receives radio signals to and from space?

a)

radio telescope

b)

microscop

c)

infrared telescope

d)

optical telescope

80.
Unmanned space probes are used to explore outer space because: 
a)
They are inexpensive
b)
They are extremely large
c)
It's too dangerous for humans
d)
It's too hard to see things far away
81.

This planet is the third planet from the Sun

a)

Mars

b)

Jupiter

c)

Venus

d)

Earth

82.

What is the closest star to the Earth?

a)

The Sun

b)

Alpha Centauri

c)

Promixa Centauri

d)

Polaris

83.
Which planet is the largest?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
84.

How many planets are in our Solar System?

a)

25

b)

9 because Pluto got a new planetary contract

c)

8

d)

More than we can count

85.

Terrestrial planets are

a)

only in other Solar Systems, not the Milky Way

b)

planets that are solid, rocky and closest to the Sun

c)

planets that are gases

d)

planets that have aliens living on them

86.

This would be an example of a

a)

New Moon

b)

First Quarter Moon

c)

Full Moon

d)

First Semester Moon

87.
How many phases does the moon go through?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
10
d)
16
88.
Name the phase of the moon for letter a
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
Waxing Gibbous
d)
Waning Gibbous
89.

From Earth we always see the same side of the moon?

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Umm no that would be lame

d)

Only on Fridays

90.

The reason the Earth experiences day and night is because

a)

The moon revolves around the Earth

b)

There is a magic switch that goes on and off

c)

The Earth rotates on an axis

d)

The Earth revolves around the Sun

91.

One rotation of the Earth on it's axis takes...

a)

365 Days

b)

24 hours

c)

One month

d)

a leap year

92.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
93.

Which of the following is NOT a terrestrial planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Uranus

d)

Mars

94.

Where would you find the Asteroid Belt?

a)

Between Earth and Mars

b)

Between Mars and Jupiter

c)

Between Jupiter and Saturn

d)

Past Neptune

95.

This is a measure of how far light can travel in one year

a)

Light year

b)

Spectroscope

c)

Apparent magnitude

d)

Absolute magnitude

96.

This is what happens in stars to produce the light and heat

a)

Nuclear fusion

b)

Gravity

c)

Electromagnetic spectrum

d)

 Light year

97.

This is an object in space that orbits a star

a)

Nebula

b)

Planet

c)

Constellation

d)

Galaxy

98.

A galaxy which has a nucleus of bright stars and two or more arms in circular formation is called a ___ galaxy.

a)

elliptical

b)

humanoid

c)

irregular

d)

spiral

99.
Lightyear is used by scientist to measure what?
a)
Distance
b)
Time
c)
Energy
100.

What is shown in the diagram?

a)

Seasons

b)

Meteor shower

c)

Solar eclipse

d)

Lunar eclipse

101.

What is shown in the diagram?

a)

Seasons

b)

Meteor shower

c)

Solar eclipse

d)

Lunar eclipse

102.

Which planet is known as the 'Red Planet'?

a)

Venus

b)

Mars

c)

Jupiter

d)

Mercury

103.

An image of the Earth-moon-sun system is shown. The moon remains in orbit around the Earth due to the force of —

a)

the rotation of the Earth

b)

the rotation of the moon

c)

the gravity of the Earth

d)

the gravity of the sun

104.

What do we call a path followed by an object that revolves around another object, caused by gravity?

a)

Orbit

b)

Path

c)

Trajectory

d)

Route

105.

The four outer planets are called...

a)

Dwarf Giants

b)

Smoky Giants

c)

Gas Giants

d)

The Giants

106.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
107.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
108.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
109.

Name the moon phase

a)

First Quarter

b)

Third Quarter

c)

New Moon

d)

Full Moon

110.

Name the moon phase

a)

First Quarter

b)

Third Quarter

c)

New Moon

d)

Full Moon

111.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
112.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
113.
The dominant trait is
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
114.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
115.
What are the four nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
b)
adenine, lysine, prolene, guanine
c)
arganine, cytosine, lysine, purine
d)
lysine, cytosine, lucine, guanine
116.

If two alleles are the same for a certain trait they are considered

a)

Homozygous

b)

Twins

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Common

117.

What is the name of this diagram?

a)

Inheritance square

b)

Genotype 4 square

c)

Pedigree

d)

Punnett Square

118.

What are the letters Ss and example of ?

a)

homozygous genes

b)

domianant genes

c)

heterozygous genes

d)

recessive genes

119.

What do the letters nn represent?

a)

recessive genes

b)

dominant genes

c)

heterzygous genes

d)

homozygous genes

120.

What goes in the missing square?

a)

AA

b)

aa

c)

A

d)

a

121.

Which genotype should go in space #3?

a)

DD

b)

dd

c)

dD

d)

Dd

122.

change in the DNA sequence

a)

protein

b)

error

c)

mutation

d)

mutagen

123.

one nucleotide is replaced with a different nucleotide

a)

addition

b)

substitution

c)

deletion

d)

inversion

124.

when one or more nucleotides are deleted

a)

substitution

b)

addition

c)

remake

d)

deletion

125.

when one or more nucleotides are inserted

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

remake

126.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
127.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
128.

In nitrogen base pairs, C always pairs with...

a)

A

b)

T

c)

G

d)

C

129.

Genetic mutations can be...

a)

positive, negative, or neutral

b)

positive only

c)

negative only

d)

neutral only

130.

On a Punnett Square, two capital letters indicate a gene which is ______________ ___________.

a)

homozygous

dominant

b)

homozygous

recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

none of the above

131.

In the question below, what is the independent variable? Question: Does adding dimples to car increase gas milage?

a)

regular car

b)

gas milage

c)

dimpled car

d)

the driver

132.

In any experiment, the independent variable ______________.

a)

remains the same to not mess up the experiment

b)

is purposely changed to test the hypothesis

c)

is known by the scientist before doing the experiment

133.

HYPOTHESIS: Does study time affect the student's score on an test?


Use the table to answer questions 5 and 6.


Suppose you collected this data from students in your school. What is the independent variable in the study?

a)

The Students

b)

The Study Time

c)

The Grade on the Quiz

134.
Dilcia wants to know how drinking milk affects how tall a Monica grows. Which is the independent variable?
a)
Monica's growth
b)
drinking milk
135.
Ramone wants to know: does the distance a person kicks a soccer ball effect how well they will do on their math test.  What is the dependent variable?
a)
How far they kick the soccer ball
b)
who the person is
c)
how well they do on the math test
d)
Type of soccer ball.
136.

What is the INDEPENDENT variable? You are testing which type of paper airplane goes furthest?

a)

the paper used

b)

the type of paper airplane

c)

the distance of each plane's flight

d)

how hard the plane is thrown

137.
Angelina set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. Identify the independent variable.
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Who set up the experiment (Ms. S, etc)
138.

A restaurant recorded the number of pizzas sold each month for one year. The data are shown in the graph below. During which month did the restaurant sell 40 pizzas?

a)

March

b)

May

c)

July

d)

August

139.
What is the name of this graph?
a)
line plot
b)
line graph
c)
bar graph
d)
frequency table
140.
The X axis is _______?
a)
vertical
b)
diagonal
c)
criss-cross
d)
horizontal
141.
The Y axis is _______?
a)
Vertical
b)
Horizontal
c)
criss-cross
d)
diagonal
142.

Structures or behaviors that help an

organism survive in its surroundings

a)

adaptations

b)

inherited traits

c)

learned behaviors

d)

structural behaviors

143.
An example of a behavioral adaptation is
a)
The long neck of a giraffe
b)
Penguins huddling together for warmth
c)
A camel's hump used to store water
d)
A polar bear's white fur used for camouflage
144.
An example of a physical adaptation is...
a)
a turtle hiding inside its shell
b)
The spikes on a porcupine fish
c)
a rabbit burrowing underground
d)
a viper biting when threatened
145.

A squid will squirt black ink at predators when frightened.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Structural Adaptation

146.

A lion has pointed teeth to help it tear meat off of the bone.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

147.

A black bear hibernates during the winter months.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

148.

A penguin is white on its belly and black on its back so it harder to see underwater from above and below.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

149.

An animal's color or pattern that helps it blend into its surroundings

a)

Environment

b)

Mimicry

c)

Camouflage

150.
The praying mantis looks very much like a blade of grass. What is it called when animals look like other animals or plants?
a)
camouflage
b)
mimicry
c)
locomotion
d)
hibernation
151.

Species can change over time and adapt to their environment.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

A population of beetles changing from yellow to brown and surviving better is an example of _____

a)

genes

b)

mutations

c)

natural selection

d)

selective breeding

153.

The two different frog species below demonstrate what kind of adaptation?

a)

Camouflage

b)

Physiological Adaptation

c)

Mimicry

d)

All of these

154.

Why is the mouse population changing over time?

a)

The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better

c)

The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily

155.

What is variation?

a)

A random change in DNA. Can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral

b)

Differences within a species. Important for evolution.

c)

When humans decide which organisms survive and reproduce.

d)

Direct, intentional changes to the DNA of an organism

156.

What type of adaptation affects body chemistry and metabolism?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Physiological

c)

Structural

157.

What earth worm adaptation is an example of a physiological adaptation

a)

Stream line body

b)

Digging deeper when its cold

c)

Producing Mucus to stay dry

d)

Having 5 hearts

158.

1. The process of choosing parent organisms for desired characteristics is called

a)

natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

random selection

d)

genetic manipulation

159.

What is an example of artificial selection?

a)

Letting dogs choose their own mate

b)

Letting plants pollinate on their own

c)

Crossing a labrador and a poodle to create a labradoodle

160.

Artificial selection is also known as

a)

natural selection

b)

selective hearing

c)

genetic manipulation

d)

selective breeding

161.
GMO stands for
a)
genetically made organism
b)
genetically modified organism
c)
gene manipulated organism
d)
Genetic mutant organism
162.

Which of these is the first step in selective breeding flowers.

a)

Repeat the process only with the offspring with the desired traits

b)

watch the seeds grow

c)

Choose plants that have the desired trait to pollinate

d)

chose which trait is desirable

163.

An example of selective breeding is

a)

a dog breeder mating 2 dogs to make more dogs

b)

a farmer grows bees to pollinate the plants on his farm

c)

a person pollinates 2 white rose plants to only create white roses

164.

What is a GMO?

a)

An organism that has had its DNA modified by humans

b)

An organism missing a chromosome

c)

Epigenetics

d)

A genetically identical organism

165.
Putting the gene for bioluminescence into a fish is an example of...
a)
Genetic Engineering
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Gene Mutation
166.

DNA is located in the __________ of the cell

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

167.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
168.

The type of molecule that makes up DNA and RNA; contains a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

a)

nucleotide

b)

gene

c)

chromosome

d)

DNA

169.

Which of the following nitrogenous bases are paired correctly?

a)

Adenine-guanine

b)

cytosine-thymine

c)

adenine-thymine

d)

guanine-thymine

170.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a)
nitrogenous base
b)
nucleic acid
c)
cholesterol
d)
fatty acid
171.

What is gene therapy?

a)

Predicting what genes will be inherited by offspring

b)

Transplanting genes into cells to replace defective or missing genes

c)

Destroying most of the genes in a cell

d)

Supplying genes with extra nutrients

172.

If two species share similar body structures, what does it likely indicate?

a)

They have the same diet

b)

They evolved from a common ancestor

c)

They live in the same environment

d)

They have similar behaviors

173.

What does it suggest if two species have different structures but serve the same function?

a)

They are unrelated

b)

They adapted to similar environments

c)

They have the same genetic code

d)

They are the same species

174.

What is the function of a human arm?

a)

Flying

b)

Swimming

c)

Grasping

d)

Running

175.

(a)   is NOT a characteristic of analogous structures.

Choose from the below words
Different bone structure
Same function
Common ancestry
Convergent evolution
176.

What is the evolutionary significance of vestigial structures?

a)

They show no change over time.

b)

They show species have changed over time.

c)

They are always harmful.

d)

They are always beneficial.

177.

What can fossilized body structures confirm?

a)

Homologous relationships

b)

The color of ancient species

c)

The diet of ancient species

d)

The size of ancient species

178.

Which of the following is an example of analogous structures?

a)

Human and cat forelimbs

b)

Bird and insect wings

c)

Snake and lizard leg bones

d)

Whale and bat forelimbs

179.

What does the presence of homologous structures in different species suggest?

a)

They are unrelated

b)

They have identical diets

c)

They live in similar environments

d)

They have a common ancestor

180.

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure in humans?

a)

Brain

b)

Liver

c)

Appendix

d)

Heart

181.
Structures that are inherited from a common ancestor are homologous.
a)
True
b)
False
182.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
183.
Bird wings and butterfly wings are an example of
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Mimicry
d)
Camoflague
184.
The structures shown are_________
a)
homologous
b)
heterologous
c)
analogous
d)
vestigial
185.
  Notice the similarities of a shark and dolphin.  If these similarities developed by  common life experiences and not by common ancestry, which of the following vocabulary words would best describe them?
a)
a.  Vestigial Organ
b)
  b.  Embryological Similarities
c)
c.  Homologous Structures
d)
d.  Analogous Structures
186.
The geologic time scale is a record of....
a)
the history of fossils only
b)
the history of rocks
c)
the history of rock layers and fossils
d)
geologist notes
187.

What type of event usually marks the end of an Era

a)

A Mass Extinction

b)

A Quinceanera

c)

An earthquake

d)

A Volcanic Eruption

188.

Earth is thought to be formed ______ years ago?

a)

200 thousand

b)

3 million

c)

4.6 billion

d)

13.8 billion

189.

What evidence do we have about what happened on Earth millions of years ago?

a)

We have written accounts

b)

We have video evidence

c)

Nothing happened on Earth millions of years ago

d)

We have fossils to show what Earth was like

190.

Preserved remains of plants and animals from the remote past are called?

a)

Sedimentary rocks

b)

Radioactive dating

c)

Decayed organisms

d)

Fossils

191.

Which is the youngest rock layer?

a)

Siltstone

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Mudstone

d)

Limestone

192.

Which rock layer is oldest from Site 1?

a)

G

b)

B

c)

A

d)

E

193.

Which of the fossils is the oldest?

a)

Dinosaur

b)

Bird

c)

Shell

d)

Ammonite

194.

Which fossil is the youngest

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

195.
What is the Law of Superposition?
a)
Rocks and fossils are formed at the same time
b)
Rocks and fossils are not related to each other
c)
Newer rocks and fossils are buried below older, older rocks and fossils
d)
Older rocks and fossils are buried below newer, younger rocks and fossils
196.

The diagram below is a cross-section of sedimentary rock. Which statement below is supported by the law of superposition?

a)

Layer B is older than layer D.

b)

Layer C is older than layer A

c)

Layer F is older than layer D.

d)

Layer D is older than layer A.

197.

The table below shows the dates and appearance of several fossils over geologic time. Which of the following fossils would be the best index fossil?

a)

Fossil 1 because it lived in the most recent part of geologic time.

b)

Fossil 2 because it lived the longest amount of geologic time.

c)

Fossil 3 because it lived in the most distant part of geologic time.

d)

Fossil 4 because it lived the shortest amount of geologic time.

198.

Why are there more animal fossils than plant fossils?

a)

Animals are smaller than plants.

b)

Plants have harder bodies than animals.

c)

Plans have softer bodies than animals.

d)

Animals eat plants.

199.

Which type of rock are most fossils found?

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

metamorphic rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

fossils

200.

Which organism is most likely to become fossilized in the next million years?

a)

a butterfly

b)

a giraffe

c)

an octopus

d)

an earthworm

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