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Worksheets

CA4 Review TEKS 8.5 - 8.8

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 17hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In what section would you most likely find an element that is a brittle solid at room temperature and is not a good conductor?

a)

Section 1

b)

Section 2

c)

Section 3

d)

There are no elements that are brittle solids

2.

Most of an atom's mass can be found at location X in the diagram. What is the charge of the sub atomic particles outside of location X?

a)

Neutral

b)

Negative

c)

Positive

d)

Cannot be determined

3.

Assuming the atom depicted has an overall neutral charge. Which sub atomic particle(s) make up the Atomic Mass?

a)

Protons Only

b)

Protons and Electrons

c)

Electrons and Neutrons

d)

Protons and Neutrons

4.

The following element has a total of 3 electrons and has highly reactive chemical properties. In which Group/Family can this element be found?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 3

c)

Group 11

d)

Cannot be determined

5.

What element has 6 Valence Electrons but only two (2) Energy shells/Orbitals?

a)

Gold

b)

Oxygen

c)

Barium

d)

Sulfur

6.

Valence Electrons determine an element's___________________________, While Protons determine an element's____________________________.

a)

IDENTITY; REACTIVITY

b)

Both determine reactivity

c)

REACTIVITY; IDENTITY

d)

Both determine identity

7.

A researcher began the following reaction with 52.6 grams of sugar and Sulfiric Acid in part A. The final mass of the products in part B would MOST LIKELY be:

a)

More than 52.6 grams

b)

Less than 52.6 grams

c)

Exactly 52.6 grams

d)

Cannot be determined

8.

The following reaction includes 4 Elements.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

This reaction has the same number of Oxygen atoms in the reactants as it does in the products.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

10.

To create a Precipitate, means to form a_____________.

a)

Liquid

b)

Semi-solid

c)

Solid

d)

Metal

11.

How many valence electrons makes most atoms stable (nonreactive)?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

1

d)

4

12.

Poor conductor of heat and electricity is a property of ___________.

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

13.
Which of the following metals is most reactive?
a)
Sodium (Na)
b)
calcium (Ca)
c)
titanium (Ti)
d)
All metals have the same reactivity
14.

Which two elements are similar?

a)

Beryllium and Magnesium

b)

Carbon and Lithium

c)

Lithium and Beryllium

d)

Magnesium and Carbon

15.
 What is the mass number of this element?
a)
5
b)
27
c)
32
d)
59
16.

An atom of a certain element has 11 electrons, and a mass number of 23. This element is very reactive in room temperature. How many neutrons are in this atom?

a)

11

b)

12

c)

33

d)

23

17.

How many electrons are in this element?

a)

39

b)

19

c)

20

d)

21

18.

How many neutrons are in this element?

a)

39

b)

19

c)

20

d)

40

19.

A chemical formula is provided below. How many atoms are contained in the substance?

H2SO4

a)

3

b)

6

c)

7

d)

10

20.

A model of one molecule of a chemical compound is shown. What is the correct way to write the formula for three molecules of this compound?

a)

A. 2H2O

b)

B 3(2H2O)

c)

C. H2O2

d)

D. 3H2O2

21.

During an investigation, two flasks of unknown, clear liquids are combined in a beaker and the following observations are recorded. Which of the listed observations indicate a new substance was formed during this investigation?


I. Solution color remains clear

II. The amount of solution in the beaker increased

III. Solution temperature changed from 10 degrees C to

20 degrees C

IV. Some of the liquid remained in the flasks

a)

A. I and II

b)

B. I, II, and IV

c)

C. III, only

d)

D. I and III

22.

Which of the following examples would support that a chemical reaction has occurred?

a)

A. After putting liquid batter into a hot pan, the batter solidifies and begins to turn brown.

b)

B. After turning on a blender filled with fruits, the fruit is chopped up and mixed together.

c)

C. After taking a tray filled with ice cubes out of the freezer, the cubes begin to melt.

d)

D. After adding a spoonful of sugar to a mug of hot coffee, the sugar dissolves completely.

23.

When vinegar and baking soda are combined, bubbles begin to form. Bubbles are evidence of a chemical reaction because they -

a)

A. are less dense than air.

b)

B. form at a fast rate.

c)

C. released a gas

d)

D. have no mass.

24.

What element is in:

Group 2

Period 2

(a)  

25.

What element is in:

Group 14

Period 2

(a)  

26.

What element is in:

Group 18

Period 6

(a)  

27.

What element is in:

Group 15

Period 3

(a)  

28.

What element is in:

Group 18

Period 1

(a)  

29.

What element is in:

Group 1

Period 5

(a)  

30.

How many Valence Electrons does the element in Group 14 Period 7 have?

(a)  

31.

What's the atomic weight of the element at group 17 period 4?

(a)  

32.

What element is in:

Group 9

Period 4

(a)  

33.

Whats the atomic number of the element at Group 13 Period 2

(a)  

34.

This element is on period (a)   .

35.

This element has (a)   valence electrons

36.

This element is in Group (a)  

37.

What is the atomic number of this element?

(a)  

38.

Which atom has the highest atomic mass?

(a)  

39.

. How many elements are in the compound C2H8O ?

(a)  

40.

How many total atoms are in the compound H2SO4?

(a)  

41.

The graph shows the distance traveled by a ball over a certain amount of time. According to the graph, between 2 and 4 seconds the ball was -

a)

traveling at a constant speed.

b)

increasing its speed.

c)

changing its direction.

d)

remaining at rest.

42.

Which of the following examples accurately describes an object that is accelerating?

a)

A ball sitting motionless on the floor.

b)

An airplane moving at 500 kilometers per hour.

c)

A car slows down to turn a sharp corner.

d)

A bike moving backward at 3 meters per second.

43.

Which of the following graphs displays the data of an object that is accelerating?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Which measurements are necessary for determining both the speed and velocity of a moving object?

a)

Distance, time and direction

b)

Direction, displacement, and distance

c)

Distance, direction and acceleration

d)

Direction, time and acceleration

45.

A quarterback throws a football 40 yards in 4 seconds. What is the average speed of the football?

a)

10 yd/s

b)

100 yd/s

c)

160 yards

d)

0.1 seconds

46.

What is the average speed of the boat between 4 and 6 seconds?

a)

150 m/min

b)

166 m/min

c)

250 m/min

d)

125 m/min

47.

A plane flies from Houston to NYC in 4 hours. The distance it travelled was 1627 miles. What was the average speed of the plane?

a)

6508 mph

b)

410 mph

c)

6500 mph

d)

407 mph

48.

What is the average speed of the runner at 4 seconds?

a)

40 m/s

b)

30 m/s

c)

20 m/s

d)

10 m/s

49.

Are the forces acting on the object balanced or unbalanced? The man does a flip on the fly board.


(a)  
Choose from the below words
unbalanced
balanced
50.

How will this object move?

a)

It will not move

b)

It will move in both directions

c)

It will move to the right

d)

It will move to the left

51.

How will this object move?

a)

It will not move

b)

It will move in both directions

c)

It will move to the right

d)

It will move to the left

52.

Shadell pushes a box 35 N to the right. Nazai pushes the box 25 N in the same direction. What is the net force?


(a)  
Choose from the below words
60 N unbalanced to the right
60 N balanced to the right
10 N balanced to the right
10 N unbalanced to the right
53.

What is net force?

(a)  

54.

Balanced or Unbalanced

(a)  

55.

What is the net force?


(a)  
Choose from the below words
5 N left
30 N left
25 N right
55 N right
56.

Which of the answer choices is not a characteristic of a balanced force?

a)

no change in motion

b)

moving at a constant speed

c)

causes a change in motion

d)

net force of zero

57.

If an object is not moving the forces acting upon it are (a)  

58.

A (a)   is a push or a pull on an object.

59.
What will cause an object to move?
a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
60.

Balanced forces causes

a)

speed of an object

b)

change in motion

c)

no change in motion

d)

no friction on object

61.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
62.
The forces represented by the arrows in the diagrams are applied to the four objects that are at rest on a table. Which object is most likely to move to the right?
a)
Object W
b)
Object X
c)
Object Y
d)
Object Z
63.

Calculate the net force shown in the  diagram?

(a)  

64.

The following is an example of:

8 m/s

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

65.

The following is an example of:

15 m/s north

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

66.

25 ms225\ \frac{m}{s^2}  is an example of

(a)  

67.

5 m/s southeast is an example of

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

68.

6 m/s is an example of:

(a)  

69.

Which of the examples below is an accurate description of Velocity? Select two answers.

a)

15 kmh215\ \frac{km}{h^2}  

b)

20 m/s south

c)

10 km/s

d)

25 mph

70.

Which of the following is the correct definition of speed?

a)

Speed in a given direction

b)

When an object's speed remains unchanged.

c)

the total distance traveled by an object over a total amount of time.

d)

change in an object's motion (position, direction, speed); caused by unbalanced forces.

71.

Which of the following is the correct definition of Velocity?

a)

Speed in a given direction

b)

the path that a moving object follows

c)

the total distance traveled by an object over a total amount of time.

d)

change in an object's motion (position, direction, speed); caused by unbalanced forces.

72.

The graph represents Kyle's movement over 20 hours. What does the graph tell us about his movement from points E to F?

a)

Kyle is not moving

b)

Kyle is moving at a constant speed back to the starting point.

c)

Kyle is stopping for coffee

d)

Kyle is slowing down.

73.

How are speed and velocity different?

4 lines
74.

The graph represents the movement of Mrs. Salas's son over the period of 50 seconds. What is William's average speed from 0-30 seconds?

a)

1 m/s

b)

0 m/s

c)

2 m/s2

d)

1.5 m/s

75.

Louie was traveling north with his herd from San Antonio to Dallas. Louie has an excellent sense of direction and time and figured in his horse brain that it would take them 36 hours to travel the 283 miles. What would be the velocity of Louie's herd in order to cover that distance in that amount of time?

a)

7.9 mi/hr southeast

b)

7.9 mihr27.9\ \frac{mi}{hr^2}  

c)

79 mi/hr

d)

7.9 mi/hr north

76.

___ refers to how fast an object is moving.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Motion

77.

What do you need to calculate speed?

a)

distance and direction

b)

distance and time

c)

direction and time

d)

distance, time, and direction

78.

An elevator traveled 15 floors (150 ft) at a speed of 4.5 m/s. What additional information is needed to determine the velocity of the elevator?

a)

the direction the elevator traveled

b)

how many times the elevator stopped

c)

how long the elevator was stationary

d)

the total distance the elevator traveled

79.
According to Newton’s Law of Inertia, an object that is moving will change its motion only if what kinds of forces act on it?
a)
Constant forces
b)
Unbalanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forcesStrong forces
d)
Gravitational forces
80.
According to Newton’s Law of Inertia, an object that is moving will change its motion only if what kinds of forces act on it?
a)
Constant forces
b)
Unbalanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forcesStrong forces
d)
Gravitational forces
81.
Newton’s first law of motion, applied to a book sitting on a table, would explain that the book will not move until which of the following conditions is met?
a)
Gravity on the book can be reduced to zero
b)
Unbalanced forces act on the book
c)
Balanced forces act on the book
d)
Friction being exerted on the book
82.
Two cars with different masses travel at the same speed down a hill toward a stop sign. What will happen when both cars apply brakes at the same time to stop?
a)
The car with the smaller mass will require less forces to stop than the car with the larger mass.
b)
The car with the larger mass will amintain its velocity while traveling down the hill.
c)
The car with the smaller mass will take longer to stop than the car with the larger mass.
d)
The car with the larger mass will have less inertia than the car with the smaller mass.
83.

According to Newton's Second Law, How do you calculate force?

a)

Multiply mass and acceleration

b)

Divide mass by acceleration

c)

Divide acceleration by mass

d)

Divide force by mass

84.

According to Newton's Second Law, How do you calculate mass?

a)

Multiply mass and acceleration

b)

Divide force by acceleration

c)

Divide acceleration by mass

d)

Divide force by mass

85.

According to Newton's Second Law, How do you calculate acceleration?

a)

Multiply mass and acceleration

b)

Divide force by acceleration

c)

Divide acceleration by mass

d)

Divide force by mass

86.
A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
87.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
88.
A picture is hanging on a wall and does not move.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
89.
A person not wearing a seatbelt flies through a car window when someone slams on the breaks because the person’s body wants to remain in continuous motion even when the car stops.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
90.
Pushing a child on a swing is easier than pushing an adult on the same swing, because the adult has more inertia.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
91.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
92.
"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
93.
Force = Mass x Acceleration
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
94.
Any push or pull on an object.
a)
force
b)
velocity 
c)
inertia
d)
momentum
95.
“For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction”
a)
Newton's First Law of Inertia
b)
Newton's Second Law of Force and Acceleration
c)
Newton's Third Law of Action Reaction
d)
Newton's Fourth Law of Common Sense
96.
Object at rest stays at rest.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
97.
Acceleration is due to a force put on an objects mass. 
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
98.
F = MxA
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
99.
What law?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
100.
"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
101.

What causes day & night?

a)

Earth's rotation on the equator

b)

Earth's revolution around the Sun

c)

The Moon's rotation around the Sun

d)

Earth's rotation on its axis

102.

What is the line running down the center of Earth called?

a)

Equator

b)

Axis

c)

North Pole

d)

South Pole

103.
a)

No longer tilted on its axis

b)

Stopped rotating on its axis

c)

Took an additional month to orbit the Sun

d)

Revolved around the Sun in the opposite direction

104.

If there is a 3rd Quarter moon on July 2nd, what is the approximate date of the next full moon?

a)

July 9th

b)

July 16th

c)

July 23rd

d)

July 30th

105.

A student keeps a record of the phases of the moon for one month. On the first night of the student's observations, the full moon is visible in the sky. After the full moon, which of these phases will the student observe next?

a)

Waxing crescent moon

b)

Waxing gibbous moon

c)

Waning crescent moon

d)

Waning gibbous moon

106.
a)

F

b)

H

c)

G

d)

J

107.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

108.
What 2 things cause seasons on Earth?
a)
axis and orbit
b)
Winter and Fall
c)
Summer and Spring
d)
Sun and Moon
109.
If the earth didn't rotate on its axis.  What natural cycle would this affect?
a)
seasons
b)
tides
c)
day and night
d)
moon phases
110.
What 2 things cause seasons on Earth?
a)
axis and orbit
b)
Winter and Fall
c)
Summer and Spring
d)
Sun and Moon
111.
Which part of Earth is experiencing night?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
112.
Earth's axis is tilted at - 
a)
23.5 degrees
b)
33.5 degrees
c)
28 degrees
d)
90 degrees
113.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 4?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
114.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
115.

Waning Gibbous

a)
b)
c)
d)
116.
What is the name of this moon phase?
a)
Waning Crescent
b)
Waxing Crescent
c)
Waning Gibbous
d)
Waxing Gibbous
117.
If a new moon occurs on June 5th, about what day will the next new moon occur?
a)
June 21
b)
July 4
c)
July 15
d)
July 25
118.
If you see a full Moon tonight, what Moon will you see in a week?
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
Waxing Crescent
d)
New Moon
119.

How much of the Moon, as seen from Earth, is illuminated during a gibbous moon?

a)

more than 50%

b)

less than 50%

120.

If today is a first quarter, in how many days will we have a 3rd quarter?

a)

21 days

b)

14 days

c)

7 days

d)

3.5 days

121.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
122.
Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
full moon tide
b)
new moon tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
123.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
124.
What happens when there is a spring tide
a)
high tides 
b)
really high tides
c)
low tides
125.
Spring tides and neap tides occur in patterns governed by the
a)
phases of the moon
b)
seasons (fall, winter, etc.)
c)
surface currents
d)
deep sea currents
126.
What do we call a tide that has a large range between the high and low tides?
a)
gravity tide
b)
wind tide
c)
spring tide
d)
neap tide
127.
What are tides?
a)
More water filling up the ocean
b)
The rising and falling of the water on the earth surface
c)
Jupiter orbiting the moon
d)
Waves in the oceans 
128.
Neap tides occur once a month. 
a)
True
b)
False
129.
The Moon has a greater influence on Earth tides than the Sun because...
a)
it is smaller than the Sun
b)
it revolves around the Earth
c)
it is closer to the Earth
130.
A new moon results in a ____ Tide
a)
Neap
b)
Spring
c)
Neither
131.

A student notices that the moon is full one evening. Which sequence of moon phases will the student observe over the next eight days?

a)

Full, waning gibbous, third quarter

b)

Full, waning gibbous, first quarter, waning crescent

c)

Full, new, waning gibbous

d)

Full waxing gibbous, new, waning crescent

132.

A student shows a model of Earth and the moon to a class. Which picture shows how the moon appears from Earth when it is in the position shown in this model?

a)
b)
c)
d)
133.

The diagram shows four consecutive moon phases. Which of the following diagrams shows the next four moon phases in the correct order?

a)
b)
c)
d)
134.

Which best explains the changes in the seasons?

a)

Seasons change as a result of high temperatures caused by Earth's tilt and revolution around the Sun.

b)

Seasons change as light from the Sun hits Earth's atmosphere and as Earth rotates around the Sun.

c)

Seasons change as a result of the temperature decreasing because of Earth's revolution around the Sun.

d)

Seasons change due to the amount of sunlight hitting Earth and Earth's tilt as it revolves around the Sun

135.

Two friends want to go for a night hike when there is a full moon in July. If there is a third-quarter moon on July 2, what is the approximate date of the next full moon?

a)

July 9

b)

July 16

c)

July 23

d)

July 30

136.

A student must complete the column of the table that lists the dates of the full moons. What are the most likely dates of the full moons?

a)

February 5, March 7, April 5, May 4

b)

February 15, March 17, April 15, May 14

c)

February 25, March 27, April 25, May 24

d)

February 29, March 31, April 29, May 28

137.

A student uses paper and fasteners to create a model of Earth, the sun, and the moon. The sun and Earth are attached to the paper background, while the moon is free to revolve around Earth. Which diagram shows the objects arranged so that a new moon would be visible from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
138.

Early scientists believed the Sun revolved around Earth. What do modern scientists believe about the revolution of the Sun and Earth?

a)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing day and night.

b)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing seasons, as well as day and night.

c)

Earth revolves around the Sun on a tilted axis, causing a change in seasons, and Earth rotates on its axis, causing day and night.

d)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing day and night, and Earth rotates on its axis, causing a change in seasons.

139.

On July 4, 1776, the American colonies declared their independence. The table shows the lunar phases for June 1776. What lunar phases occurred on July 4, 1776?

a)

Waning gibbous

b)

Waxing gibbous

c)

Waning crescent

d)

Waxing crescent

140.

Some students used records from the U.S. Naval Observatory to make the table of the percent of the moon that was visible on each night in January 2011. Based on these data, what part of the lunar cycle occurred between January 5 and January 7?

a)

Waxing crescent moon

b)

Waning crescent moon

c)

Full moon

d)

New moon

141.

The diagram shows four phases of the moon as it revolves around Earth. A Student builds a model based on this diagram. The student uses foam balls to represent the moon and Earth and a flashlight to represent the sun. The student should shine the flashlight on the model of Earth from position---

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

142.

Which of the following identifies the seasons in model Y?

a)

A- Summer, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Winter

b)

A- Fall, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Spring

c)

A- Spring, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Fall

d)

A- Winter, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Summer

143.

There are four groups of stars on the HR Diagram. About 90% of all stars are in the ________.

a)

Supergiants

b)

Giants

c)

White dwarfs

d)

Main sequence

144.

Based on the data, which star would you presume would have the greatest mass? Hint: The larger the apparent brightness, the brighter the star appears.

a)

Star X

b)

Star Y

c)

Star Z

145.

How can you rearrange the words to match the diagram correctly in terms of sizes in space?

a)

Solar systems in the largest circle, then galaxies, followed by the universe in the smallest circle.

b)

Universe in the largest circle, then galaxies, followed by the solar systems in the smallest circle.

c)

Galaxies in the largest circle, then universe, followed by the solar systems in the smallest circle.

d)

The diagram is already correct.

146.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a lower than average luminosity as well as a higher than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

147.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a higher than average luminosity as well as a lower than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

148.

A collection of dust and gas where stars can form is called a...

a)

universe

b)

nebula

c)

black hole

d)

supernova

149.

Our sun is located near the edge of a ______ galaxy, named the _______.

a)

Spiral shaped; Milky Way

b)

Spiral shaped; Solar System

c)

Elliptical shaped; Milky Way

d)

Elliptical shaped; Solar System

150.

Stars are classified on the HR Diagram by...

a)

luminosity and brightness.

b)

temperature and absolute magnitude (or luminosity).

c)

temperature and apparent magnitude.

d)

temperature and distance.

151.

Stars radiate thermal energy through space by a process called _____ where the element _____ is converted into helium.

a)

nuclear fusion; hydrogen

b)

nuclear fusion; lithium

c)

nuclear transfer; hydrogen

d)

nuclear transfer; boron

152.

Which of the following best describes the sun's position in the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

The sun is a giant yellow star located close to the galactic core.

b)

The sun is a medium yellow star located approximately 2/3 of the way down one of the galaxy's spiral arms.

c)

The sun is a dwarf star located at the end of one of the spiral arms.

d)

The sun is a medium yellow star located one light year from the galactic core.

153.

All of space and time

a)

Galaxy

b)

Solar system

c)

Universe

d)

Quantum physics

154.

Model of the observable universe from the earliest known periods through its subsequent large-scale evolution

a)

Doppler effect

b)

Big Bang Theory

c)

Creation

d)

Red shift

155.

System of stars, stellar remnants, interstellar gas, & dust

a)

Galaxy

b)

Nebulae

c)

Universe

d)

Solar system

156.

Brightness of a celestial object

a)

Magnitude

b)

Light year

c)

Star

d)

Luminosity

157.

Massive self-luminous celestial body due to burning gases.

a)

Nebulae

b)

Star

c)

Planet

d)

Comet

158.

Displacement of the EM spectrum to shorter wavelengths in the light coming from distant celestial objects moving toward the observer

a)

Big bang

b)

Meteor

c)

Blue shift

d)

Red shift

159.

Enormous cloud of dust and gas acting as a birth place for new stars

a)

Nebulae

b)

Galaxy

c)

Comet

d)

Cloud

160.

wavelength of the light is stretched, so the light is seen as 'shifted' towards the red (longer) part of the spectrum because the object is moving away.

a)

Blue shift

b)

Big Bang

c)

Red shift

d)

Gravity

161.

Star that appears on the main sequence of an HR diagram

a)

White dwarf

b)

Main sequence star

c)

Blue giant

d)

Red giant

162.

Large explosion that takes place at the end of a star's life cycle

a)

Big Bang

b)

Supernova

c)

Black hole

d)

Luminosity

163.

Graph in which the absolute magnitude of stars is plotted vertically against their surface temperatures. How we classify stars.

a)

Doppler effect

b)

Magnitude

c)

HR diagram

d)

Meteor

164.

Change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer.

a)

Doppler effect

b)

Motion

c)

Asteroid

d)

Apparent magnitude

165.

Cosmic snowballs of frozen gases, rock and dust that orbit the Sun. Have a "tail."

a)

Asteroid

b)

Moon

c)

Meteor

d)

Comet

166.

Measure of the brightness of a star or other astronomical object observed from Earth

a)

Luminosity

b)

Apparent magnitude

c)

Absolute magnitude

d)

Light year

167.

Small, rocky objects that orbit the Sun

a)

Meteor

b)

Asteroid

c)

Comet

d)

Moon

168.

Brightness of a celestial object as it would be seen at a standard distance

a)

Absolute magnitude

b)

Luminosity

c)

Apparent magnitude

d)

Red shift

169.

Asteroid or other object that burns and vaporizes upon entry into the Earth's atmosphere (falling stars)

a)

Comet

b)

Satellite

c)

Asteroid

d)

Meteor

170.

Distance that light can travel in one year

a)

Meter

b)

Light year

c)

Relativity

d)

Gravity

171.

Which of the following star types is the BRIGHTEST?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

172.

Which of the following star types is LEAST BRIGHT?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

173.

Which star stage could belong to Spectral Class K and have the lowest luminosity?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

174.

Which star stage could belong to Spectral Class K and have the highest luminosity?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

175.

Select ALL star stages that have greater luminosity than our Sun.

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

176.

Which star stage does our Sun belong to?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

177.

Which star stage is generally the HOTTEST?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

178.

Which star stage is generally the COOLEST?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

179.

Which comparison is correct?

a)

Supergiants are hotter and brighter than White Dwarfs

b)

Supergiants are hotter and less bright than White Dwarfs

c)

Supergiants are cooler and brighter than White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants are cooler and less bright than White Dwarfs

180.

Which comparison is correct?

a)

Giants are brighter than Superigants

b)

Giants are just as bright as Supergiants

c)

Giants are less bright than Supergiants

d)

Giants do not have a brightness

181.

Parallel forces acting in opposite directions

a)

compression

b)

shear

c)

tension

182.

Squeezing force that acts from opposite sides

a)

compression

b)

shear

c)

tension

183.

A pulling apart force

a)

compression

b)

shear

c)

tension

184.

What is strain?

a)

any force acting on rocks

b)

a change in a rock's shape due to stress

c)

a balance between the crust and the matle

185.

What can bring deeply buried rocks to Earth's surface?

a)

uplift

b)

subduction

c)

compaction

186.

What is subsidence?

a)

a horizontal movement of the crust

b)

a vertical upward movement of the crust

c)

a vertical downward movement of the crust

187.

Earth's mountains float in balance on top of the mantle as a result of _______________.

a)

strain

b)

isostasy

c)

subduction

188.

If glaciers on Greenland grew larger, the crust underneath would

a)

uplift

b)

subside

c)

subduct

189.

Which term is a rock cycle process caused by plate motion

a)

erosion

b)

weathering

c)

subduction

190.

____________________ is a tectonic process that continues the rock cycle by taking surface rocks deep into the Earth.

a)

Subduction

b)

Equillibrium

c)

Weathering

191.

A mid-ocean ridge forms when tension acts on seafloor rocks.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

192.

Transform faults form when compression acts on rocks.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

193.

High mountain ranges can form on land where two plates diverge, or move away.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

194.

A volcanic island arc forms when an oceanic plate is subducted.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

195.

A continental rift forms when shear acts on continental crust.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

196.

A transform fault is an underwater trough that forms where plates meet.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

197.

Which formation occurs when plates move horizontally past each other?

a)

ocean trench

b)

transform fault

c)

mid-ocean ridge

198.

The San Andreas system is an example of a __________________.

a)

fault zone

b)

volcanic arc complex

c)

folded mountain range

199.

Ocean trenches form as the result of _______________ acting on two tectonic plates.

a)

compression

b)

tension

c)

shearing

200.

Transform faults form when ________________ stresses acts on rocks.

a)

compression

b)

tension

c)

shearing

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