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Worksheets

8th Grade Science Category 3

Total questions: 204

Worksheet time: 3hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A student notices that the moon is full one evening. Which sequence of moon phases will the student observe over the next eight days?

a)

Full, waning gibbous, third quarter

b)

Full, waning gibbous, first quarter, waning crescent

c)

Full, new, waning gibbous

d)

Full waxing gibbous, new, waning crescent

2.

A student shows a model of Earth and the moon to a class. Which picture shows how the moon appears from Earth when it is in the position shown in this model?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

The diagram shows four consecutive moon phases. Which of the following diagrams shows the next four moon phases in the correct order?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

Which best explains the changes in the seasons?

a)

Seasons change as a result of high temperatures caused by Earth's tilt and revolution around the Sun.

b)

Seasons change as light from the Sun hits Earth's atmosphere and as Earth rotates around the Sun.

c)

Seasons change as a result of the temperature decreasing because of Earth's revolution around the Sun.

d)

Seasons change due to the amount of sunlight hitting Earth and Earth's tilt as it revolves around the Sun

5.

Two friends want to go for a night hike when there is a full moon in July. If there is a third-quarter moon on July 2, what is the approximate date of the next full moon?

a)

July 9

b)

July 16

c)

July 23

d)

July 30

6.

A student must complete the column of the table that lists the dates of the full moons. What are the most likely dates of the full moons?

a)

February 5, March 7, April 5, May 4

b)

February 15, March 17, April 15, May 14

c)

February 25, March 27, April 25, May 24

d)

February 29, March 31, April 29, May 28

7.

A student uses paper and fasteners to create a model of Earth, the sun, and the moon. The sun and Earth are attached to the paper background, while the moon is free to revolve around Earth. Which diagram shows the objects arranged so that a new moon would be visible from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

Early scientists believed the Sun revolved around Earth. What do modern scientists believe about the revolution of the Sun and Earth?

a)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing day and night.

b)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing seasons, as well as day and night.

c)

Earth revolves around the Sun on a tilted axis, causing a change in seasons, and Earth rotates on its axis, causing day and night.

d)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing day and night, and Earth rotates on its axis, causing a change in seasons.

9.

On July 4, 1776, the American colonies declared their independence. The table shows the lunar phases for June 1776. What lunar phases occurred on July 4, 1776?

a)

Waning gibbous

b)

Waxing gibbous

c)

Waning crescent

d)

Waxing crescent

10.

Some students used records from the U.S. Naval Observatory to make the table of the percent of the moon that was visible on each night in January 2011. Based on these data, what part of the lunar cycle occurred between January 5 and January 7?

a)

Waxing crescent moon

b)

Waning crescent moon

c)

Full moon

d)

New moon

11.

The diagram shows four phases of the moon as it revolves around Earth. A Student builds a model based on this diagram. The student uses foam balls to represent the moon and Earth and a flashlight to represent the sun. The student should shine the flashlight on the model of Earth from position---

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

12.

Which of the following identifies the seasons in model Y?

a)

A- Summer, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Winter

b)

A- Fall, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Spring

c)

A- Spring, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Fall

d)

A- Winter, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Summer

13.

But first look at the picture and answer below

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

14.

Is the Sun or the Moon more responsible for the Earth's tides?

a)

Sun

b)

Moon

15.

When the moon's pull is strongest on the part of the Earth directly facing the moon what kinds of tides occur?

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide

16.

How many high and low tides occur each day?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

17.

What are tidal ranges based off of?

a)

The Sun

b)

The moon

c)

The earth

d)

all of the above

18.

When do spring tides occur

a)

New moon

b)

Full moon

c)

Both

19.

Are neap tides weak or strong

a)

Strong

b)

Weak

20.

Look at the picture and answer below.

a)

f

b)

g

c)

h

d)

j

21.

What is the line running down the center of Earth called?

a)

Equator

b)

Axis

c)

North Pole

d)

South Pole

22.
Period of 24 hours or the time it takes Earth to make one complete spin on its axis
a)
Rotation
b)
Compass
c)
Sundail
d)
Movement
23.
What 2 things cause seasons on Earth?
a)
axis and orbit
b)
Winter and Fall
c)
Summer and Spring
d)
Sun and Moon
24.
The Earth revolves around the Sun every...
a)
month
b)
year
c)
day
d)
3 years
25.
The Sun moves around the Earth and the Earth stays still.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
As the Earth rotates, the part of the Earth facing the sun has ________.
a)
an axis
b)
darkness (night)
c)
daylight
d)
winter
27.
As the Earth rotates, the part of the Earth facing away from the sun has ________.
a)
daylight 
b)
darkness (night)
c)
summer 
d)
nice weather
28.
Earth is tilted on its _______. 
a)
side
b)
axis
c)
hemisphere
d)
equator
29.
The orbit is the same as ____________.
a)
Rotating
b)
Revolving
c)
Spinning
30.
Rotation causes ___________.
a)
Day and Night
b)
Seasons
c)
The Earth to be tilted
31.
What does the Earth orbit around?
a)
axis
b)
sun
c)
orbit
d)
moon
32.
If the earth didn't rotate on its axis.  What natural cycle would this affect?
a)
seasons
b)
tides
c)
day and night
d)
moon phases
33.
Which part of Earth is experiencing night?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
34.
If the earth rotated slower, how would that affect the length of the day?
a)
longer day
b)
shorter day
c)
same time,  24 hours
35.
Earth's axis is tilted at - 
a)
23.5 degrees
b)
33.5 degrees
c)
28 degrees
d)
90 degrees
36.
The diagram shows the Earth's movement around its' axis. What is this diagram demonstrating? 
a)
day and night
b)
seasons
37.
Which answer correctly labels each letter as day and night? 
a)
X = night
Y = day
b)
X = day
Y = night
38.

A student wants to use a spinning basketball to model the day-and-night cycle on Earth.


What should the student do in order to best model the cause of the day-and-night cycle?

a)

Spin the ball in different directions

b)

Tilt the ball while it is spinning

c)

Paint one half of the ball black and the other half white

d)

Shine a bright light on one side of the ball

39.

Which of these locations on Earth experiences the least change in the number of daylight hours throughout the year?

a)

Equator

b)

North Pole

c)

Tropic of Cancer

d)

Tropic of Capricorn

40.
Shadows growing longer and shorter are evidence of  ____________
a)
Earth's rotation
b)
Earth's tilt
c)
Earth's revolution
d)
Earth's weather
41.

A student notices that the moon is full one evening. Which sequence of moon phases will the student observe over the next eight days?

a)

Full, waning gibbous, third quarter

b)

Full, waning gibbous, first quarter, waning crescent

c)

Full, new, waning gibbous

d)

Full waxing gibbous, new, waning crescent

42.

A student shows a model of Earth and the moon to a class. Which picture shows how the moon appears from Earth when it is in the position shown in this model?

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.

The diagram shows four consecutive moon phases. Which of the following diagrams shows the next four moon phases in the correct order?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Which best explains the changes in the seasons?

a)

Seasons change as a result of high temperatures caused by Earth's tilt and revolution around the Sun.

b)

Seasons change as light from the Sun hits Earth's atmosphere and as Earth rotates around the Sun.

c)

Seasons change as a result of the temperature decreasing because of Earth's revolution around the Sun.

d)

Seasons change due to the amount of sunlight hitting Earth and Earth's tilt as it revolves around the Sun

45.

Two friends want to go for a night hike when there is a full moon in July. If there is a third-quarter moon on July 2, what is the approximate date of the next full moon?

a)

July 9

b)

July 16

c)

July 23

d)

July 30

46.

A student must complete the column of the table that lists the dates of the full moons. What are the most likely dates of the full moons?

a)

February 5, March 7, April 5, May 4

b)

February 15, March 17, April 15, May 14

c)

February 25, March 27, April 25, May 24

d)

February 29, March 31, April 29, May 28

47.

A student uses paper and fasteners to create a model of Earth, the sun, and the moon. The sun and Earth are attached to the paper background, while the moon is free to revolve around Earth. Which diagram shows the objects arranged so that a new moon would be visible from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Early scientists believed the Sun revolved around Earth. What do modern scientists believe about the revolution of the Sun and Earth?

a)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing day and night.

b)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing seasons, as well as day and night.

c)

Earth revolves around the Sun on a tilted axis, causing a change in seasons, and Earth rotates on its axis, causing day and night.

d)

Earth revolves around the Sun, causing day and night, and Earth rotates on its axis, causing a change in seasons.

49.

On July 4, 1776, the American colonies declared their independence. The table shows the lunar phases for June 1776. What lunar phases occurred on July 4, 1776?

a)

Waning gibbous

b)

Waxing gibbous

c)

Waning crescent

d)

Waxing crescent

50.

Some students used records from the U.S. Naval Observatory to make the table of the percent of the moon that was visible on each night in January 2011. Based on these data, what part of the lunar cycle occurred between January 5 and January 7?

a)

Waxing crescent moon

b)

Waning crescent moon

c)

Full moon

d)

New moon

51.

The diagram shows four phases of the moon as it revolves around Earth. A Student builds a model based on this diagram. The student uses foam balls to represent the moon and Earth and a flashlight to represent the sun. The student should shine the flashlight on the model of Earth from position---

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

52.

Which of the following identifies the seasons in model Y?

a)

A- Summer, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Winter

b)

A- Fall, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Spring

c)

A- Spring, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Fall

d)

A- Winter, B- Rainy or dry season, C- Summer

53.

But first look at the picture and answer below

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

54.

Is the Sun or the Moon more responsible for the Earth's tides?

a)

Sun

b)

Moon

55.

When the moon's pull is strongest on the part of the Earth directly facing the moon what kinds of tides occur?

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide

56.

How many high and low tides occur each day?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

What are tidal ranges based off of?

a)

The Sun

b)

The moon

c)

The earth

d)

all of the above

58.

When do spring tides occur

a)

New moon

b)

Full moon

c)

Both

59.

Are neap tides weak or strong

a)

Strong

b)

Weak

60.

Look at the picture and answer below.

a)

f

b)

g

c)

h

d)

j

61.

A system of stars, gas, dust, and dark matter bound together by gravity is called -

a)

an asteroid.

b)

a nebula.

c)

a galaxy.

d)

a moon.

62.

Stars are made mostly of which two elements?

a)

Selenium and sodium

b)

Astatine and arsenic

c)

Chlorine and cesium

d)

Hydrogen and helium

63.

A large celestial body made of gases that emits light due to nuclear reactions is called -

a)

a galaxy.

b)

a nebula.

c)

a comet.

d)

a star.

64.

An interstellar cloud of dust and gases that serves as a location for the formation of new stars is -

a)

a meteor.

b)

a planet.

c)

a galaxy.

d)

a nebula.

65.

Galaxies are classified into all of the following types by their shapes EXCEPT -

a)

spiral.

b)

elliptical.

c)

lenticular.

d)

crescent.

66.

The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram is provided, which is used for classifying stars based on the relationship between their brightness and their temperature and color. Regulus belongs in which of the following classifications?

a)

Super Giants

b)

Giants

c)

Main Sequence Stars

d)

White Dwarfs

67.

Which of the following is an accurate description of the relationship between components of the universe?

a)

Stars always contain galaxies.

b)

Galaxies contain many stars.

c)

Stars contain several nebulae.

d)

Nebulae contain many galaxies.

68.

A characteristic of a nebula is that it -

a)

is at the center of the solar system.

b)

is a region where stars are born.

c)

forms halfway through a star’s life cycle.

d)

has the coolest temperature in space.

69.

What is the Universe?

a)

All space and the matter space contains

b)

A bright ball of gas held together by its' own gravity

c)

The intensity of light from a celestial body

d)

Large cloud of gas and dust 

70.

What is a star?

a)

A large grouping of stars in space. 

b)

All space and the matter space contains.

c)

A self-luminous celestial body consisting of a mass of gas.

d)

The death of a large star by explosion. 

71.

What is the hottest type of star?

a)

Orange Supergiants

b)

Red Giants

c)

Yellow Supergiants

d)

White Dwarfs

72.

What is the brightest type of star?

a)

Main Sequence

b)

White Supergiants

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Red Giants

73.

What is luminosity?

a)

Color

b)

Temperature

c)

Brightness

d)

Distance

74.

90% of all stars are ___.

a)

Black Holes

b)

White Dwarfs

c)

Red Giants

d)

Main Sequence

75.

This is where stars are born.

a)

Nebulae

b)

Black Holes

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Hollywood

76.

The death of a large mass star by explosion.

a)

Quasar

b)

Nova

c)

Supernova

d)

Black Hole

77.

An object that is so massive that even light cannot escape its gravity.

a)

Black Hole

b)

Neutron Star

c)

Quasar

d)

Moon

78.

A large group of stars in space.

a)

Solar System

b)

Local Group

c)

Constellation

d)

Galaxy

79.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Elliptical Galaxy

b)

Spiral Galaxy

c)

Lenticular Galaxy

d)

Irregular Galaxy

80.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Elliptical Galaxy

b)

Irregular Galaxy

c)

Spiral Galaxy

d)

Lenticular Galaxy

81.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Elliptical Galaxy

b)

Irregular Galaxy

c)

Spiral Galaxy

d)

Lenticular Galaxy

82.

Islands are often formed at the boundaries of tectonic plates. These plates are large portions of lithosphere that move slowly over the more fluid, underlying material in the region below the crust.


What is the term for the region indicated by an X in the diagram?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

hydrosphere

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

83.

A student records observations about two different layers of the Earth as shown in the table.


What do Layers 1 and 2 represent?

a)

Layer 1: asthenosphere; Layer 2: continental crust

b)

Layer 1: continental crust; Layer 2: lithosphere

c)

Layer 1: asthenosphere; Layer 2: lithosphere

d)

Layer 1: lithosphere; Layer 2: asthenosphere

84.

How are the lithosphere and the asthenosphere similar?

a)

They are both part of the crust.

b)

They are both part of the mantle.

c)

They both have the same thicknesses.

d)

They both have the same physical properties.

85.

Assume that the diagram below shows a cross section of part of the lithosphere.


Which diagram correctly shows what will happen to the lithosphere when pushed by tectonic forces?

a)
b)
c)
d)
86.

Use the information to answer the question.


Which statements are true?

a)
b)
c)
d)
87.

How do rock samples collected from the sea floor provide evidence of tectonic plate movement?

a)

Older rocks are found near the deep-ocean trenches.

b)

Older rocks are near the center of mid-ocean ridges.

c)

Younger rocks are near the deep-ocean trenches.

d)

Younger rocks are mixed with older rocks at mid-ocean ridges.

88.

Which statement describes the differences between continental and oceanic crust?

a)

Continental crust is thin with low density, while oceanic crust is thick with high density.

b)

Continental crust is thick with low density, while oceanic crust is thin with high density.

c)

Continental crust is thick with high density, while oceanic crust is thin with low density.

d)

Continental crust is thin with high density, while oceanic crust is thick with low density.

89.

In 1912, Alfred Wegener proposed the theory of continental drift, stating that all the continents were once joined together and slowly moved apart. However, his theory was not widely accepted in his time. In 1962, the discovery of sea floor spreading (sea floor being forced apart by the formation of new crust) eventually led to a more modern and widely accepted theory of plate tectonics.

Why did the theory of plate tectonics improve upon Wegener’s theory of continental drift?

a)

The theory of plate tectonics was a less complete theory because it provided a reason and mechanism for why the plates and continents moved.

b)

The theory of plate tectonics was a more complete theory because it failed to provide reasons and mechanisms for why the plates and continents moved.

c)

The theory of plate tectonics was a less complete theory because it failed to provide complete reasons and mechanisms for why the plates and continents moved.

d)

The theory of plate tectonics was a more complete theory because it provided a reason and mechanism for why the plates and continents moved.

90.

Ancient fossils have been placed on the map indicating where they were found.


The strongest evidence exists for which two continents to have been connected when Pangaea was present?

a)

South America and Africa

b)

North America and Africa

c)

Africa and Australia

d)

South America and Australia

91.

Greenland is very close to the North Pole and is covered with continental glaciers. What conclusion can be made about evidence of glaciers found in the northeastern United States?

a)

It was much colder in the northeastern United States in the past.

b)

It was much warmer near the North Pole in the past.

c)

The glaciers near the North Pole formed later than the ones farther south.

d)

The northeastern United States was once located closer to the Equator.

92.

Use the information to answer the question.


Which explanation best accounts for the fossil evidence?

a)

The continents were once connected by a large land bridge.

b)

The reptile species evolved on the two different continents at the same time.

c)

The continents were once joined together within a larger landmass.

d)

The reptile species floated across the Atlantic Ocean on logs.

93.

The image shows fossils in different layers of rocks.

Which layer most likely contains fossils of organisms that resemble the presently living dragonfly?

a)

layer B

b)

layer C

c)

layer D

d)

layer F

94.

A student makes a model to show two continental plates at a convergent boundary by first breaking a clay block into two pieces. He then pushes the two pieces against one another with constant force, as shown in stages 1 and 2.


The student concludes that mountains are formed when two continental plates collide at a convergent boundary. Which statement best supports the student’s conclusion?

a)

Both halves of the block are equal in dimensions.

b)

The texture of the block resembles continental crust.

c)

The fault line in stage 1 is vertical, and this is descriptive of all continental boundaries.

d)

Both stages 1 and 2 have the same densities, and one plate cannot sink under the other.

95.

A student prepared a list of changes that can occur to landforms through volcanic eruptions.


Which changes in the student’s list are correct?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

3 and 4

96.

Earthquakes occur along the San Andreas Fault in California. Which statement best describes plate motion in the area during the time between earthquakes?

a)

Plate motion stops, and plate tension decreases.

b)

Plate motion continues, and plate tension increases.

c)

Plate motion continues, and plate tension increases. Plate motion stops, and only the mantle moves.

d)

Plate motion reverses, and plates return to their original positions.

97.

What type of landform is most likely formed by a divergent tectonic plate boundary?

a)

island arc

b)

oceanic trench

c)

rift zone

d)

folded mountains

98.

The map below shows the present day locations of South America and Africa. Remains of Mesosaurus, an extinct fresh water reptile have been found in similarly aged rock layers formed from lake sediments.


Which statement represents the most logical conclusion from this evidence?

a)

Mesosaurus migrated across frozen oceans from Africa to South America during an ice age.

b)

The continents of South America and Africa were once joined when the Mesosaurus lived.

c)

The continents of South America and Africa once had underground waterways where the Mesosaurus travelled from continent to continent.

d)

The continents of South America and Africa had very different climates from each other which caused the Mesosaurus to migrate from season to season.

99.

A student writes down some possible properties of different layers of Earth.


Which layer(s) is (are) matched with the correct properties?

a)

asthenosphere only

b)

continental crust only

c)

asthenosphere and lithosphere

d)

continental crust and oceanic crust

100.

The diagram below shows the continents present day continents once joined together as one super continent.


What is the name of this one large landmass?

a)

Eurasia

b)

Gondwanaland

c)

Laurasia

d)

Pangaea

101.

The Mesosaurus was a fresh water reptile that existed on Earth about 250 million years ago. Fossils of the reptile can be found today in some rock layers in both Africa and South America as shown on the map below in locations X and Y.


Which reason bestexplains why fossils of this animal are found on both continents today?

a)

The ocean between the two continents was once frozen, and the Mesosaurus traveled across the ice.

b)

The continents were once joined together as a single land mass.

c)

The Mesosaurus swam across the ocean due to its migration.

d)

During a sea level rise and floods fossil remains of the Mesosaurus were carried across the oceans between the two continents.

102.
What is the elevation of point B?
a)
800 ft
b)
850 ft
c)
900 ft
d)
1000 ft
103.
What is the difference in elevation between Point X and Point Y?
a)
120 m
b)
240 m
c)
360 m
d)
340 m
104.
Provided is a topographic map of a hill with contour lines drawn showing elevation in meters.
The steepest slope on this hill can be found on the side that is facing which direction?
a)
Southwest
b)
Northeast
c)
Northwest
d)
Southeast
105.

Which side is steeper?

a)

The left side of the hill

b)

The right side of the hill

106.

If sea level always equals (0), and the contour interval is 10 feet how tall is this mountain?

a)

30 ft

b)

40 ft

c)

50 ft

d)

60 ft

107.

Match topographic map #4 with the appropriate profile.

a)

C

b)

D

c)

E

d)

F

108.

A line that connects points of equal elecation on a map

a)

Contour interval

b)

Contour legend

c)

Contour line

d)

Index Contour

109.

The difference in elevation between two adjacent contour lines of a map.

a)

Relief

b)

Space in between

c)

contour line

d)

contour interval

110.

Distance above or below sea level

a)

Relief

b)

Contour line

c)

Altitude

d)

Elevation

111.
Determine the contour interval:
a)
5 m
b)
10 m
c)
15 m
d)
20 m
112.
Determine the contour interval:
a)
5 m
b)
10 m
c)
15 m
d)
20 m
113.

A topographic map of a region is provided. Which position indicated by the letters is at an elevation of 475 meters?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

114.
What is the elevation of point B?
a)
800 ft
b)
850 ft
c)
900 ft
d)
1000 ft
115.

Match topographic map #3 with the appropriate profile.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

116.
What is the highest elevation this hill could possibly have? (might not be labeled)
a)
1040
b)
1060
c)
1079
d)
1009
117.
What is the contour interval of the topographic map below?
a)
400 m
b)
200 m
c)
100 m
d)
80 m
118.
What feature is formed at B?
a)
river
b)
rift valley
c)
sink hole
d)
mountain
119.
How many mountain tops does this map have?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
120.
If we were in a plane, Path B --> C is about the same distance as path E --> N. But, which path is the easier walk? 
a)
B --> C is the easier walk
b)
E --> N is the easier walk
c)
B --> C and E --> N are the same walking distance
121.

The universe has many different components. Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest?

a)

Planets, stars, galaxies, nebulae

b)

Nebulae, stars, planets, galaxies

c)

Galaxies, stars, planets, nebulae

d)

Planets, stars, nebulae, galaxies

122.

There are four groups of stars on the HR Diagram. About 90% of all stars are in the ________.

a)

Supergiants

b)

Giants

c)

White dwarfs

d)

Main sequence

123.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a lower than average luminosity as well as a higher than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

124.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a higher than average luminosity as well as a lower than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

125.

A collection of dust and gas where stars can form is called a...

a)

universe

b)

nebula

c)

black hole

d)

supernova

126.

Our sun is located near the edge of a ______ galaxy, named the _______.

a)

Spiral shaped; Milky Way

b)

Spiral shaped; Solar System

c)

Elliptical shaped; Milky Way

d)

Elliptical shaped; Solar System

127.

Which of the following best describes the sun's position in the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

The sun is a giant yellow star located close to the galactic core.

b)

The sun is a medium yellow star located approximately 2/3 of the way down one of the galaxy's spiral arms.

c)

The sun is a dwarf star located at the end of one of the spiral arms.

d)

The sun is a medium yellow star located one light year from the galactic core.

128.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular 
d)
Irrational
129.
 Why does the sun appear so bright in our sky?
a)
The sun is the largest star
b)
Looking at the sun can hurt your eyes  
c)
The sun is the nearest star to Earth 
d)
Clouds make the sun dimmer
130.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
131.
Which star has the lowest luminosity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
132.

Our sun is in what stage?

a)

planetary nebula

b)

protostar

c)

main sequence

d)

red giant

133.

This is a model of a galaxy a student made out of sand, each grain of sand would represent-

a)

comet

b)

black hole

c)

asteroid

d)

star

134.

Why does the sun appear brighter than the supergiant star Betelgeuse?

a)

the sun is a different color

b)

the sun is older

c)

the sun is closer

d)

the sun is made of different elements

135.
The illustration provided shows four locations in or near the Milky Way Galaxy. Which of the labeled locations shows the approximate position of the Sun?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
136.
The universe has may different components.  Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest.
a)
Planets, Stars, Galaxies, Nebulae
b)
Nebulae, Stars, Planets, Galaxies
c)
Galaxies, Stars, Planets, Nebulae
d)
Planets, Stars, Nebulae, Galaxies
137.
Which of the following is an accurate description of the relationship between components of the universe?
a)
Stars always contain galaxies
b)
Galaxies contain many stars
c)
Stars contain several nebulae
d)
Nebulae contain many galaxies
138.
Which of the following best describes a star?  A star is a celestial body ---
a)
composed of rock and metal with a very high density
b)
that is too big to be an asteroid, but too small to be a planet.
c)
that rotates on an axis and revolves around the Sun
d)
composed of gases that emit light due to nuclear reactions
139.
Which of the following components of the universe is best described as a system of stars, gases, and dust held together by gravity.
a)
a nebula
b)
a planet
c)
a meteor
d)
a galaxy
140.
Why does Earth get more energy from the sun than from all the other stars in the universe combined?
a)
The sun is much larger than other stars.
b)
The sun is much hotter than the other stars.
c)
The sun is much more dense 
d)
The sun is much closer than the other stars.
141.
Which of these correctly compares the masses of different objects in the universe?
a)
A moon has less mass than a star and more mass than the planet it orbits.
b)
A planet has less mass than a galaxy and more mass than the star it orbits.
c)
A galaxy has less mass than a moon and more mass than a planet.
d)
A star has less mass than a galaxy and more mass than a planet.
142.

What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?

a)

Spiral

b)

Elliptical

c)

Irregular

d)

Irrational

143.

Brightness of a celestial object

a)

Magnitude

b)

Light year

c)

Star

d)

Luminosity

144.

Why do all objects in the solar system orbit the sun?

a)

Because

b)

The Sun`s gravity

c)

Gravity

d)

Earth

145.

What color of star's temperature is hottest?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

White

146.

What color of star's temperature is coldest?

a)

Blue

b)

White

c)

Green

d)

Red

147.

What kind of size star is the Sun?

a)

Medium

b)

Average

c)

Small

d)

Big

148.

After a small star has used up all of it's hydrogen, it will become a......

a)

white dwarf

b)

red giant

c)

interstellar cloud

d)

supernova

149.

True or False: All stars will eventually become a black hole

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Where are stars "born"?

a)

from the sun

b)

in a nebula

c)

in a supernova

d)

in a white dwarf

151.
Stars can take different paths due to having different _____________
a)
temperature
b)
mass
c)
brightness
d)
color
152.
After the main sequence, a low mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
153.
After the main sequence, a high mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
154.

Which star is hotter than Deneb

a)

Procyon

b)

Sun

c)

Regel

d)

Banard's Star

155.

Which star is brighter than the sun?

a)

Sirius B

b)

Procyon B

c)

Van Maanan's Star

d)

Aldebaran

156.

Which star is considered a giant star?

a)

Mira

b)

Zeta Arindani

c)

Barnard's Star

d)

Betelgeuse

157.
Based on this diagram which type of stars would belong to spectral class M and have the lowest luminosity?
a)
Main Sequence Stars
b)
Giants
c)
Super Giants
d)
White Dwarfs
158.
Which category is our Sun located in?
a)
White Dwarfs
b)
Supergiants
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Giants
159.
What determines the color of a star? 
a)
It's size
b)
It's temperature
c)
It's composition
d)
They are all the same color 
160.
Why are black holes black?
a)
No light can escape the black hole's gravity 
b)
No light is reflected from the closest stars
c)
They are transparent, so you see space
d)
Plants around it prevent light from hitting the black hole.
161.
What are the the 3 types of galaxies?
a)
Spiral, Regular, and Elliptical 
b)
Spiral, Irregular, and Elliptical 
c)
 Milky Way, Elliptical, and Spiral 
d)
Milky Way, Elliptical, and Irregular 
162.
 Which one shows the correct location of the Sun in the Milky Way galaxy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
none of the above
163.

How many Stars are in our Solar System?

(a)  

164.
A severe storm that involves strong winds and forms over warm water along the tropics is:
a)
tornado
b)
thunderstorm
c)
hurricane
d)
blizzard
165.
This severe weather involves lightning, rain, and forms from a cumulonimbus cloud and involves high pressure moving in to an area.
a)
thunderstorm
b)
tornado
c)
hurricane
d)
blizzard
166.
What is the most abundant gas found in the atmosphere?
Nitrogen - 78.0%
Oxygen - 20.0%
Argon - 0.9%
Carbon Dioxide - 0.04%
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
Argon
167.
Warm air near the Earth’s surface rises and then cools and drops, this creates a _________________ in the atmosphere.
a)
run-off
b)
Greenhouse Effect
c)
convection current
d)
water cylce
168.
Cool, clear skies are associated with _________ pressure
a)
high
b)
low
c)
stationary
d)
light
169.
What kind of weather is usually associated with a low pressure system?
a)
Sunny weather
b)
Precipitation (rain, snow, etc.)
170.
What kind of weather is usually associated with a high pressure system?
a)
Sunny weather
b)
Precipitation (rain, snow, etc.)
171.
After a cold front, what type of weather is most common?
a)
snow
b)
rain and warm
c)
clear, fair skies
d)
humid and dry
172.
What type of weather could be expected with the front shown?
a)
gentle rain, followed by cloudy skies
b)
violent rain, followed by clear skies
c)
cold temperatures, followed by humidity
d)
 warm temp, followed by clouds
173.
What causes convection in the ocean?
a)
sun
b)
Coriolis effect
c)
convection
d)
gremlins
174.
What are two changes commonly observed when a front passes?
a)
temperature change and clouds
b)
rain and cold temperature
c)
clouds and lightning
d)
gentle rain and clear skies
175.
Warm ocean currents are most likely to start:
a)
on land
b)
along the equator
c)
at the poles
d)
when baby unicorns are born
176.
Which of the following are most likely to destroy a hurricane?
a)
warm  water
b)
low pressure
c)
land
d)
tropical water
177.
Sun heats the water and land,
a)
True
b)
False
178.
The west coast has cool, water and cooler temperatures becuase
a)
cold ocean currents coming from Alaska
b)
warm ocean currents coming form Alaska
c)
it is at a high latitude
d)
they run the a/c too much
179.

Fossil records indicate that the continents were once connected. How do fossil records support this claim?

a)

We have been able to transport the same types of fossils from one continent to another.

b)

Fossils of the same organism have been found on continents that are now separated by oceans.

c)

Some continents contain fossils of many different types of organisms.

180.

One piece of evidence for Plate Tectonics is that--

a)

some continents appear to fit together like a puzzle.

b)

we have video footage of the plates actually moving.

c)

all continents have formed from volcanic eruptions.

d)

the continents are no longer moving.

181.
Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?
a)
Energy from the Sun
b)
Magnetic Pole Reversal
c)
Convection currents in the mantle
d)
Faults in Mountain Ranges
182.

Younger crust being found near mid-ocean ridges supports the idea of Plate Tectonics because---

a)

this indicates that new crust is being formed over time, pushing old crust outward.

b)

this indicates that volcanoes are able to take place in different places on the Earth.

c)

this indicates that new crust is never formed.

d)

this indicates that the continents are stationary.

183.

Which of the following is NOT evidence to support the theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Fossils

b)

Continental fit

c)

Glaciers

d)

Sand Erosion

184.

Which of the following occurs because of convection currents?

a)

Pressure in the crust decreases.

b)

The mantle increases in size.

c)

Pressure in the crust increases.

d)

Pieces of the crust, known as tectonic plates, move.

185.

At first, a lack of evidence for continental drift prevented many scientists from believing a single supercontinent called _________ existed.

a)

Glossopteris

b)

Pangaea

c)

Gondwanaland

d)

Mesosaurus

186.

The theory of _______ states that Earth’s crust and upper mantle are broken into sections that are in constant, slow motion.

a)

Plate Tectonics

b)

continental drift

c)

seafloor spreading

d)

divergent boundaries

187.
What drives tectonic plate movement? 
a)
gravity
b)
coriolis effect
c)
convection currents
d)
the earth's magnetic core
188.

How do glaciers play a role in Plate Tectonics?

a)

Glaciers cover parts of the Earth that have remained stationary.

b)

There is evidence that glaciers have not always existed.

c)

There is evidence that shows that the same glaciers covered different regions of several continents.

d)

Glaciers exist in different in different places on the Earth.

189.

The Great Rift Valley in Africa and the Mid-Ocean Ridge were all created by this boundary

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Reform

d)

Transform

190.

What is this image...

a)

Revolving boundary

b)

San Andreas (Transform)

c)

Convergent

191.

This landform can occur at a divergent plate boundary.

a)

ocean trench

b)

mid-ocean ridge

c)

tall mountains

d)

transform fault

192.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Plate
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Transform
193.
What type of event will occur at this boundary?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Volcano Eruption
c)
Tornado
d)
Mountain Building
194.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Transform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
d)
Plate
195.
Where would the oldest rock be found?
a)
L
b)
M
c)
N
d)
O
196.
As you travel from the inner core to the crust, how would temperature, pressure and density of the material change?
a)
They would all increase
b)
They would all decrease.
c)
They would stay the same.  
d)
Temperature would decrease, but pressure and density would increase. 
197.
Where does the heat come from that drives this convection current in the mantle? 
a)
The sun
b)
The crust
c)
the mantle
d)
the core
198.
What is the elevation of point B?
a)
800 ft
b)
850 ft
c)
900 ft
d)
1000 ft
199.

In which direction is Mill River flowing?

a)

Southeast

b)

Southwest

c)

Northeast

d)

Northwest

200.
It is steep on a topographic map where __________.
a)
lines are closest together
b)
a river flows into a lake
c)
contours bend
d)
contours are far apart
201.
How many peaks are on the map? (hill tops)
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
202.
Find the contour interval:
a)
20 ft
b)
30 ft
c)
40 ft
d)
50 ft
203.
A satellite image of a river is provided.
The river shown in the satellite image is carrying sediments in which direction?
a)
From south to north
b)
From southwest to northeast
c)
From northwest to southeast
d)
From east to west
204.
This is the wearing away and moving of surfaces materials by gravity, water, wind or glaciers.
a)
Loess
b)
Erosion
c)
Glaciers
d)
The environment