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THERMAL ENGINEERING II MCQ (MODEL EXAM - 3)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

100 CFM air flow rate is equal to

a)

28.317 liters/s

b)

47.195 liters/s

c)

57.195 liters/s

d)

38.317 liters/s

2.

If the specific heats of dry air and water vapour are 1.00 kJ/kg-K and 1.88 kJ/kg-K respectively and the humidity ratio is 0.011, then the specific heat of moist air at 25°C and 50% relative humidity will be

a)

1.869 kJ/kg-K

b)

1.891 kJ/kg-K

c)

0.9793 kJ/kg-K

d)

1.0206 kJ/kg-K

3.

Air in which of the following classes is cleaner

a)

Class 10000

b)

Class 1000

c)

Class 100

d)

Class 10

4.

The grill temperature of air is

a)

temperature of air entering the cooling coil

b)

temperature of air leaving the room

c)

temperature of air entering the room

d)

temperature of fresh air after mixing with return air

5.

It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and 45°C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25% dry bulb temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be

a)

Dehumidification

b)

Cooling and humidification

c)

Cooling and dehumidification

d)

Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling

6.

A cold storage is to be maintained at – 5°C while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat leakage from the surroundings into the cold storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual C.O.P. of the refrigeration plant used is one third that of an ideal plant working between the same temperatures. Find the power required to drive the plant

a)

11.58 kJ/s

b)

12.98 kJ/s

c)

12.90 kJ/s

d)

10.98 kJ/s

7.

In a vapor compression refrigeration plant, the refrigerant leaves the evaporator at 195 KJ/kg and the condenser at 65 KJ/kg. For every kg of refrigerant, the plant can supply per second, a cooling load of

a)

70 KW

b)

130 KW

c)

160 KW

d)

100 KW

8.

If the specific heats of dry air and water vapour are 1.00 kJ/kg-K and 1.88 kJ/kg-K respectively and the humidity ratio is 0.011, then the specific heat of moist air at 25°C and 50% relative humidity will be

a)

1.869 kJ/kg-K

b)

1.891 kJ/kg-K

c)

0.9793 kJ/kg-K

d)

1.0206 kJ/kg-K

9.

It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and 45°C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25% dry bulb temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be

a)

Dehumidification

b)

Cooling and humidification

c)

Cooling and dehumidification

d)

Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling

10.

Which one of the following statements is correct

a)

The sensible heat gain is due to the difference in humidity

b)

The latent heat gain is due to the temperature difference between the fresh air through unconditioned space in the building adds to the sensible heat gain

c)

The heat gain through the walls of ducts carrying conditioned air through unconditioned space in the building adds to the sensible heat gain

d)

Maximum heat gain to a building occurs through walls

11.
What is an important advantage of closed-cycle gas turbine cogeneration systems?
a)
Working fluid remains clean and it does not cause corrosion or erosion
b)
Low capital costs
c)
High pressure of produced steam
d)
High temperature of produced steam
12.
The cogeneration system which has a high overall efficiency is the
a)
Gas turbine
b)
Back pressure steam turbine
c)
Reciprocating engine
d)
Combined cycle
13.
Which of the following statements is not correct
a)
A topping cycle plant generates electricity or mechanical power first
b)
A bottoming cycle plant generates heat first
c)
A bottoming cycle plant generates electricity or mechanical power first
d)
Both a and b
14.

In the context of cogeneration turbine, the thermodynamic process taking place is

a)

expansion

b)

condensation

c)

contraction

d)

both (a) & (c)

15.

The device used for recovering waste heat from the textile drier exhaust

a)

heat wheel

b)

recuperator

c)

economizer

d)

regenerator

16.

Recuperator as a waste heat recovery system is used mainly in a

a)

boiler

b)

reheating furnace

c)

compressor

d)

gas turbine

17.

The Brayton cycle is a characteristic of

a)

steam turbine

b)

petrol engine

c)

gas turbine

d)

none of the above

18.

Power is to be generated from a cement kiln exhaust gas. The applicable type of cogeneration is called

a)

topping cycle

b)

Carnot cycle

c)

bottoming cycle

d)

Brayton cycle

19.

Combined cycle is a combination of

a)

conventional boiler first followed by cogeneration system

b)

Brayton cycle first followed by a standard Rankine cycle

c)

Rankine cycle first followed by a Brayton cycle

d)

extraction in the first portion and then a condensing cycle

20.

The efficiency of which of the following turbine systems is the highest

a)

condensing

b)

back pressure

c)

double extraction condensing

d)

extraction condensing

21.

Steam enters an impulse turbine at a velocity of 500 m/s and having nozzle angle 20 deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Calculate the diagram power (kW) for the turbine. Neglect friction effects on blades.

a)

100.25

b)

76.43

c)

150.63

d)

200.36

22.

A partly impulsive and partly reaction force are the driving forces in case of

a)

An impulse turbine

b)

Fifty percent reaction turbine only

c)

Sixty percent reaction turbine only

d)

Any reaction turbine other than hundred & zero percent

23.

Degree of reaction is defined as

a)

Enthalpy drop in the moving blades to the enthalpy drop in the stage

b)

Enthalpy drop in the moving blades to the enthalpy drop in the fixed blades

c)

Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the enthalpy drop in the moving blades

d)

Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the total enthalpy drop in the moving blades

24.

The driving force in an 50% reaction turbine is partly impulsive force and partly reaction force

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Sometimes true

d)

True only with special attachments

25.

A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at 2400 rpm with a mean blade speed of 100 m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 deg. and the velocity ratio is 0.56. The mean specific volume of steam is 0.65 cub.m/kg and the mean height of blade is 25 mm. Neglect effect of blade thickness on the annulus area. Calculate the mass flow of steam through the turbine in kg/h.

a)

29340

b)

21147

c)

25365

d)

30285

26.

An impulse steam turbine has a number of pressure stages with each stage having a row of nozzles and a single ring of blades. With reference to the plane of rotation, nozzle angle of first stage is 20 deg and blade exit angle is 30 deg. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzles is 350 m/s and the mean blade speed is 100 m/s. Determine the work done in a stage per kg of steam (kJ/kg). Blade friction factor is 0.8 and nozzle efficiency is 0.85.

a)

56.42

b)

45.98

c)

39.45

d)

40.79

27.

Degree of reaction is defined as

a)

Enthalpy drop in the moving blades to the enthalpy drop in the stage

b)

Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the enthalpy drop in the stage

c)

Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the enthalpy drop in the moving blades

d)

Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the total enthalpy drop in the moving blades

28.

A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at 2600 rpm with a mean blade speed of 120 m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 deg. and the velocity ratio is 0.56. Calculate the mass flow of steam through the turbine in kg/h. The mean specific volume of steam is 0.65 cub.m/kg and the mean height of blade is 25 mm. Neglect effect of blade thickness on the annulus area.

a)

28044

b)

25365

c)

35236

d)

20365

29.

A steam turbine is to operate between 150 bar, 600 deg.Celcius and 0.1 bar. The bucket velocity is limited to 250 m/s and the average nozzle efficiency is expected to be 95% for impulse and 90% for reaction turbine. All stages operate close to the speed corresponding to maximum efficiency. Nozzle angles can be assumed as 20 deg. for impulse and reaction stages. Estimate the number of stages required if all the stages are 50% reaction stages.

a)

19

b)

5

c)

30

d)

11

30.

A single stage impulse turbine is provided with a steam at mass flow rate of 5 kg/s. Take following data of this turbine:


Rotor diameter: 1.5 m

Rotor speed: 3500 rpm

Nozzle angle 15o

Blade speed ratio: 0.35

Velocity coefficient: 0.86

Assume that outlet blade angle is 2o less than inlet blade angle.

Find Absolute velocity of whirl at exit of moving blade, m/s

a)

147

b)

524

c)

483

d)

785

31.

A binary-vapour cycle operates on mercury and steam. Saturated mercury at 4.5 bar is supplied to the mercury turbine, from which it exhausts at 0.04 bar. The mercury condenser generates saturated steam at 15 bar which is expanded in a steam turbine to 0.04 bar. The thermodynamic states of saturated mercury and saturated vapour are given in the table. Here, h is specific enthalpy, s is specific entropy and v the specific volume; subscripts f and g denote saturated liquid state and saturated vapour state respectively.

The overall efficiency (%) of the plant based on combined cycle is (a)  

32.

A certain chemical plant requires heat from process steam at 125° C at the rate of 6 MJ/s and power at the rate of 1000 kW from the generator terminal. Both the heat and power requirements are met by a back pressure turbine with 85% brake (mechanical) and 80% internal (isentropic) efficiency, which exhausts steam at 125° C in dry saturated state. All the latent heat release during the condensation is utilized in the process heater. The thermodynamic states of water and saturated vapour are given in the table. Here, h is specific enthalpy, s is specific entropy and v the specific volume; subscripts f and g denote saturated liquid state and saturated vapour state respectively.

The quality of water vapour at exhaust of water turbine is (a)  

33.

At critical point of water, i.e. p=221 bar, the latent heat of vaporization is

a)

maximum

b)

minimum

c)

function of temperature

d)

zero

34.

The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called

a)

evaporative capacity

b)

factor of evaporation

c)

equivalent evaporation

d)

one boiler h.p.

35.

If maximum permissible limit of TDS as in a package boiler is 3000 ppm, percentage make up water is 10% and TDS in feed water is 300 ppm, then the percentage blow down is

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

5%

36.

The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced below that of atmosphere by means of a fan placed at or near the bottom of the chimney to produce a draught. Such a draught is called

a)

Natural draught

b)

Induced draught

c)

Forced draught

d)

Balanced draught

37.

The ideal combustion process during which methane is burned completely. The air fuel (AF) ratio for this combustion on a mass basis is

a)

13.76 kg air / kg fuel

b)

17.19 kg air / kg fuel

c)

21.17 kg air / kg fuel

d)

23.12 kg air / kg fuel

38.

a)

65.6 %

b)

86.5 %

c)

72.5 %

d)

80.6 %

39.

when fuel oil with 84.9 % carbon, 11.4 % hydrogen, 3.2 % Sulphur, 0.4 % oxygen and 0.1 % ash by weight is burnt with 20 % excess air, assume complete combustion calculate Total air supplied

a)

6.42 kg/kg of fuel

b)

9.24 kg/kg of fuel

c)

16.72 kg/kg of fuel

d)

19.52 kg/kg of fuel

40.

What is done to increase the rate of heat transfer in the Velox boiler?

a)

The boiler is heated up to very high range of temperature

b)

Combustion gases are circulated through tubes with supersonic speed

c)

High grade fuel is made use for the combustion

d)

The size of the boiler is changed as it is flexible

41.

Which of the following is also known as converging-diverging contoured nozzle?

a)

Bernoulli’s nozzle

b)

Pascal nozzle

c)

de Laval' nozzle

d)

Torricelli’s nozzle

42.

In a nozzle, friction ___________ the dryness fraction of steam at the exit

a)

Decreases

b)

Same

c)

Increases

d)

None of the above

43.

Steam is expanded in a set of nozzles from 4 bar 300 deg. Celcius to 2 bar. What is the type of nozzle? Consider the isentropic index k=1.3.

a)

Convergent-divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Data insufficient

d)

None of the above

44.

In which part of a converging-diverging nozzle will have unity Mach number in the chocked condition

a)

Convergent portion

b)

Divergent portion

c)

Throat

d)

None of the above

45.

A nozzle is said to be choked when

a)

It is discharging into atmosphere

b)

Flow through it is zero

c)

At the given inlet condition, mass flow rate is maximum

d)

It is not possible to increase the flow by increasing inlet pressure

46.

In a nozzle, friction ___________ the dryness fraction of steam at the exit

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Same

d)

None of the above

47.

The condition of steam leaving a nozzle is_______ in comparison with inlet conditions

a)

Low velocity and High pressure

b)

High velocity and high pressure

c)

Low velocity and low pressure

d)

High velocity and low pressure

48.

Air having a flow rate of 3.6 kg/s at 7 bar and 170 deg.Celcius expands through a convergent-divergent nozzle into a space at 1.03 bar. Calculate the throat area (sq.mm) of the nozzle. Assume isentropic flow and neglect inlet velocity

a)

1463

b)

3645

c)

2680

d)

2185

49.

The throat and exit areas of a convergent-divergent nozzle are 1280 sq.mm and 1600 sq.mm respectively. Dry saturated steam at 5 bar enters the nozzle at a velocity of 80 m/s. The exit pressure is 1.5 bar. Estimate the mass flow rate in kg/s. Assume isentropic flow up to the throat and take critical pressure ratio to be 0.58

a)

0.689

b)

0.459

c)

0.958

d)

0.632

50.

The value of critical pressure ratio for superheated steam is

a)

0.546

b)

0.500

c)

0.556

d)

0.582