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AP Fall Semester Test Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Carbohydrates are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
2.
Lipids are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
3.

Proteins are made of...

a)

C H O

b)

C H O N P sometime S

c)

C H O N P

d)

C H O N sometimes S

4.

Nucleic acids are made of...

a)

C H O

b)

C H O N P

c)

C H O N S

d)

C H O N

5.

Tertiary protein structures are mainly stabilized by

a)

Hydrogen Bonds

b)

DiSulfide Bridges

c)

Covalent Bonds

d)

Ionic Bonds

6.

which of the following terms refers to the order in which amino acids are linked together in a protein.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

7.

What type of transport is represented by figure "C"

a)

Active Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Protein Transport

d)

Osmosis

8.

Movement of molecules "up" or "against" the concentration gradient (meaning low to high) is called

a)

passive transport

b)

active transport

c)

diffusion

d)

facilitated diffusion

9.

ATP synthase directly uses _____________ to spin in order to connect phosphate onto ADP

a)

diffusion from a proton gradient

b)

diffusion from an electron gradient

c)

active transport of a proton gradient

d)

active transport of an electron gradient

10.
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a)
Dehydration reactions eliminate water from lipid membranes, and hydrolysis makes lipid membranes water permeable.
b)
Dehydration reactions ionize water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers; hydrolysis reactions release hydroxyl groups from polymers.
c)
Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.
d)
Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
11.
When water is added to split a molecule, the reaction is known as a(n) __ reaction.
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
condensation
c)
hydrolysis
d)
super magical 
12.

What is it called when a hydroxyl group (-OH) and a hydrogen atom (-H) are removed as two sub-units are joined?

a)

dehydration synthesis

b)

hydrolysis

c)

hydrophobic

d)

hydrophillic

13.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
14.

Jenna has a genetic disorder. Her husband Jeff does not. Jeff and Jen have 20 offspring - all ten of their girls do not have the disorder, but all ten of their boys do.

a)

this disorder is a sex linked trait

b)

this disorder is an complete (Mendelian) dominant trait

c)

this disorder is a recessive trait

d)

this disorder is an incomplete dominant trait

e)

this disorder is a poly-genetic trait

15.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

16.
What is the mode of inheritance shown here?
a)
Autosomal Recessive
b)
Autosomal Dominant
c)
Sex Linked
17.
What is the mode of inheritance shown here?
a)
Autosomal Recessive
b)
Autosomal Dominant
c)
Sex Linked
18.
The following equation represents the digestion of a protein.
Peptide + Water  --->  Amino acid + Amino Acid 
What type of reaction does this demonstrate?
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
combustion
c)
hydrolysis
d)
single replacement
19.
Which part of this phospholipid is hydrophobic?
a)
fatty lipid tails
b)
head
c)
all of it is hydrophobic
d)
none of it is hydrophobic
20.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
21.

The head of a phospholipid is ?

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophillic

c)

Amphiphathic

22.

The tail of a phospholipid is?

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophillic

c)

Amphiphathic

23.
Which of the following is correctly defined as the attraction of the hydrogen from one molecule to the oxygen of a different molecule?
a)
amphipathic
b)
hydrophobic
c)
hydrogen bonding
d)
adhesion
24.
A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:
a)
covalent bonds result in water cohesion
b)
hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)
c)
water striders have adapted to take advantage of water cohesion
d)
low surface tension of water
25.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
26.

When is apoptosis initiated?

a)

When DNA damage is repaired.

b)

When cells are removed from the cell cycle.

c)

When DNA damage cannot be repaired.

27.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

Cell programmed Death

b)

Inflammation of cell

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Plasmolysis

28.

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. In animal cells, which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

central vacuole

b)

peroxisome

c)

lysosome

d)

chloroplast

29.
Which of the following is a characteristic of both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells?
a)
ribosomes
b)
nucleus
c)
membrane bound organelles
d)
simple
30.

Keratin is a protein found in hair. Where in a cell is keratin made?

a)

nucleus

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

31.

Interconnected highway containing ribosomes to make proteins is called

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

mitochondria

32.

What statement summarizes what happens during stage II of photosynthesis (the Calvin Cycle)?

a)

It uses energy from ATP and NADPH, plus CO2 to produce glucose

b)

It uses light energy and water to produce oxygen and ATP

c)

It takes ADP and makes it into ATP

d)

It takes in oxygen and glucose and produces CO2

33.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
34.
Blood cells would appear wrinkled and bumpy in which of the following solutions? Hide answers
a)
hypertonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
d)
all three solutions
35.
Researchers inserted pieces of membrane with aquaporins into frog eggs and placed the eggs into a hypotonic solution.  What did they observe?
a)
The aquaporins started to pump out water
b)
The eggs started to pump out Na+ to draw out water
c)
The eggs started to swell rapidly as water diffused inside
d)
The aquaporins started to pump in water
36.
The cell that is pictured here in is what type of solution?
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
None of these
37.

Why is the cell membrane selectively permeable?

a)

large, polar molecules can pass easily

b)

small, nonpolar molecules pass easily

c)

there is a doorman that lets molecules cross

d)

only water can cross the cell membrane

38.
Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. What is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?
a)
It is a competitive inhibitor.
b)
It is an allosteric regulator.
c)
It is able to bind to succinate.
d)
It blocks the binding of fumarate.
39.

Many human cells can be stimulated to divide by hormonelike growth factors that bind to receptor proteins (R) on the plasma membrane and trigger an internal signal-transduction cascade. In many cases, however, the process of contact inhibition prevents mitosis when cells are in direct contact with one another. Contact inhibition occurs when proteins called cell adhesion molecules (CAMs

) interact, causing them to change shape so that the growth-factor signaling proteins that normally associate with CAMs are replaced by another protein, called M. Both pathways are depicted in the figures.


Which of the following statements accurately uses the information presented to support the hypothesis that interruption of M function in a single body cell can result in cancer?

a)

Protein 3 will be prevented from interacting with CAMs, causing the cell cycle to stop permanently.

b)

The ras protein will remain bound to DNA, blocking expression of genes required for mitosis.

c)

Growth-factor signaling can trigger mitosis in cells that are in direct contact with other cells.

d)

The receptor proteins of body cells will no longer bind to growth-factor proteins.

40.

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is important in maintaining homeostasis in mammals. ADH is released from the hypothalamus in response to high tissue osmolarity. In response to ADH, the collecting duct and distal tubule in the kidney become more permeable to water, which increases water reabsorption into the capillaries. The amount of hormone released is controlled by a negative feedback loop.


Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production?

a)

As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.

b)

As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.

c)

As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.

d)

As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine

41.
Which of the following correctly describes how enzymes work?  
a)
they lower the energy of the reactants to increase the rxn rate
b)
they supply energy to the reaction to increase the rxn rate
c)
they lower the energy of the products to increase the rxn rate
d)
they lower the activation energy of the reaction to increase the rxn rate
42.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
43.

Which of the following is directly responsible for the shape of an enzyme/protein?

a)

The amino acid sequence of the protein and the properties of the amino acids that make up the protein.

b)

The temperature of the surrounding environment.

c)

The pH of the surrounding environment.

d)

The amount of substrate present.

44.
What is one function of the other pigments  besides chlorophyll, in the chloroplast?
a)
to block damaging wavelengths of light
b)
to absorb different wavelengths than the chloroplasts
c)
to provide different colors to the leaves
d)
to transfer energy to a separate photosystem beside the one using chlorophyll a and b.
45.
Plants with the largest amount of which pigment will be best suited for growing conditions where light has a green hue.
a)
Chlorophyll A
b)
Chlorophyll B
c)
Carotenoids
d)
A combination of all 3
46.

The figure above shows a model of a ligand precursor being cleaved to produce an active ligand that binds to a specific receptor. Which of the following is most likely to reduce the binding of the active ligand to its receptor?

a)

A change in the cytoskeletal attachment of transmembrane proteins

b)

The presence of a large amount of the precursor form of the ligand

c)

An increase in the ratio of the number of unsaturated to the number of saturated fatty acid tails of the membrane lipids

d)

A mutation in the receptor gene that causes a substitution of a charged amino acid for a nonpolar amino acid in the ligand binding site of the receptor

47.

Epinephrine is a protein hormone found in many animals. Epinephrine stimulates a signaling pathway that results in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver cells. Which of the following describes the initial steps in the process whereby epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown?

a)

Epinephrine binds to a cell-surface receptor; the activated receptor stimulates production of the second messenger, cAMP

.

b)

Epinephrine binds to a cell-surface receptor; the activated receptor catalyzes the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

c)

Epinephrine diffuses through the plasma membrane; the hormone dimerizes in the cytosol.

d)

Epinephrine is taken into the cell by endocytosis; glycogen is converted to glucose in the endocytotic vesicle.

48.
A cross between a dihybrid individual (heterozygous for two traits) and a homozygous recessive individual for the same two traits produces these phenotypes as offspring: parental phenotypes 526 and 542, and recombinant phenotypes 22 and 24.
a)
these genes sort independantly
b)
these genes are linked
c)
these genes are not linked
d)
these genes are on different chromosomes
49.

Mitosis occurs in a:

a)

Sex cell

b)

Somatic cell

50.

How many divisions take place in meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

51.

The process by which a cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells is called-

a)

cell duplication

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

interphase

52.

Down Syndrome is also known as _________.

a)

Trisomy 18

b)

Trisomy 21

c)

Monosomy X

d)

Trisomy 13

53.

Trisomy:

a)

Missing 1 chromosome

b)

3 chromosomes (instead of a pair)

c)

Chromosomes are normal

54.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

No chromosomal abnormalities

d)

Trisomy 21

55.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

Trisomy 18

b)

Monosomy 18

c)

Monosomy (of sex chromosomes)

d)

Trisomy 21

56.
Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?
a)
mitochondrion
b)
chloroplast
c)
ribosome
d)
ER
57.

Which of the following best describes prokaryotic DNA?

a)

Prokaryotes have plasmid DNA that is floating in the cytoplasm.

b)

Prokaryotes have plasmid DNA contained within a nucleus

c)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA that is floating in the cytoplasm.

d)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA contained within a nucleus

58.
The ____________ packages and processes material before it exports out of the cell.
a)
Vacuoles
b)
mitochondria
c)
Golgi apparatus 
d)
nucleus 
59.
A protein that is destined for the membrane would be made 
a)
on a ribosome that is in the cytoplasm
b)
within a lysosome
c)
on a ribosome attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum 
d)
within the Golgi body
60.

Mucin is a glycoprotein found in mucus that increases its viscosity. Carbohydrates are added to mucin in which of these structures?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

nucleus

d)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

61.
Which type of fermentation occurs in muscles?
a)
Alcoholic 
b)
Lactic acid
62.

What is the name of the process that helps yeast make bread rise?

a)

Fermentation

b)

Alcoholic fermentation

c)

Lactic acid fermentation

d)

Glycolysis

63.

The polypeptide in the diagram consists of;

a)

3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds

b)

3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds

c)

4 amino acids and 2 phosphodiester bonds

d)

3 amino acids and 2 phosphodiester bonds

64.

Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix

a)

A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)

b)

A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)

c)

A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)

d)

A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)

65.
The two strands making up the DNA double helix molecule
a)
contain ribose and deoxyribose in opposite strands.
b)
are held together by hydrogen bonds.
c)
are attached through a phosphate to hold the strands together.
d)
contain uracil but not thymine.
66.

Which of the following is least efficient?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.
In a plant cell, DNA may be found
a)
only in the nucleus.
b)
in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes.
c)
in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
d)
only in the nucleus and mitochondria.
68.

What is the best explanation for why mitochondria have their own DNA?

a)

It is required for ATP synthesis

b)

The endosymbiont theory

c)

Mitochondria store additional DNA from the nucleus

d)

Mitochondria are needed for cellular respiration

69.

Increase the surface area available for ATP synthesis

a)

cristae

b)

matrix

c)

inner membrane

d)

outer membrane

70.
The p53 gene codes for the p53 protein that locates DNA errors for cellular repair. The diagram below shows the relationship among possible environmental influences, the p53 gene, and cancer. Which of the following statements best describes the relationships among possible environmental influences, the p53 gene, and cancer?
a)
Environmental influences can lead to mutations in the p53 gene, which can cause certain cancers.
b)
Increased levels of p53 protein, rather than environmental influences, can cause certain cancers.
c)
Mutations in the p53 gene increase environmental influences that can cause certain cancers.
d)
Genes such as p53 are less casual than environmental influences in stimulating certain cancers.
71.

Which produces a protein that promotes apotosis in cells that have acquired mutations

a)

p21

b)

p53

c)

p51

d)

p19

72.

Check the two correct boxes:

a)

Plant Cell - cell plate; Animal Cell - cleavage furrow

b)

Plant Cell - cleavage furrow; Animal Cell - cell plate

73.
When an animal cell goes through cytokinesis,__________
a)
a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new nuclei.
b)
the cell membrane pinches off the 2 new cells.
c)
4 new cells are formed.
d)
None of the above
74.

When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed. This is an example of what type of feedback?

a)

Positive Feedback Response

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

75.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
negative
b)
neutral 
c)
positive
76.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
Positive
b)
Neutral
c)
Negative
77.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
78.

The graph shows changes in glucagon and insulin secretions at different concentrations of blood glucose. Which of the following feedback mechanisms is best supported by the data?

a)

A falling glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains equal amounts of both hormones in the blood.

b)

A high glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains high levels of both hormones in the blood.

c)

A low glucose level causes the release of glucagon, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn lowers the amount of glucagon being released.

d)

A low glucose level causes the release of insulin, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn increases the amount of insulin being released.

79.

The endocrine system incorporates feedback mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Which of the following demonstrates negative feedback by the endocrine system?

a)

During labor, the fetus exerts pressure on the uterine wall, inducing the production of oxytocin, which stimulates uterine wall contraction. The contractions cause the fetus to further push on the wall, increasing the production of oxytocin

b)

After a meal, blood glucose levels become elevated, stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin into the blood. Excess glucose is then converted to glycogen in the liver, reducing blood glucose levels.

c)

At high elevation, atmospheric oxygen is more scarce. In response to signals that oxygen is low, the brain decreases an individual’s rate of respiration to compensate for the difference.

d)

A transcription factor binds to the regulatory region of a gene, blocking the binding of another transcription factor required for expression.

80.
Which of the following cells would have the highest surface area to volume ratio?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
they are all the same