wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Anatomy Final Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A cut made across the horizontal plane, as indicated by the red highlight in the picture, is called a ______ section.

a)

posterior

b)

sagittal

c)

frontal

d)

transverse

2.

Which of the following could occur if an organism had little to no adipose tissue throughout its body?

a)

The organism might have difficulty staying warm.

b)

The organism might have problems digesting macromolecules.

c)

The organism might not be able to move its legs.

d)

The organism would have an abundance of collagen fibers.

3.

This body cavity contains the heart and lungs.

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

cranial

d)

spinal

4.

Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings in humans?

a)

superficial and proximal

b)

lateral and distal

c)

superficial and deep

d)

posterior and intermediate

5.

Jared just burned his hand on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful. Jared's burn would best be described as

a)

a sunburn

b)

a first degree burn

c)

a second degree burn

d)

a third degree burn

6.

Which of the following is an indication of melanoma?

a)

a very symmetrical mole

b)

a red, dome-shaped bump

c)

a pigmented spot that is black

d)

a pigmented spot that contains areas of different color

7.

This layer of the skin is responsible for creating fingerprints.

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum granulosum

c)

papillary layer

d)

reticular layer

8.

A white head

a)

is a clogged sebaceous gland

b)

is a form of bacteria induced irritation

c)

is a type of acne

d)

forms by oxidizing clogged pores

9.

The hip and shoulder are both examples of

a)

gliding joints

b)

hinge joints

c)

saddle joints

d)

ball and socket joints

10.

Origin and insertion points attach to these.

a)

ligaments

b)

bone processes

c)

fascia

d)

blood vessels

11.

This part of the brain is responsible for memory, thought processing and creativity.

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

cerebrum

c)

cerebellum

d)

hypothalamus

12.

During resting state, a neuron is

a)

polarized with more sodium ions outside the cell and more potassium ions inside the cell

b)

restoring the ionic conditions utilizing the sodium potassium pump

c)

depolarizing and generating an action potential

d)

repolarizing as potassium ions diffuse out of the cell

13.

The atria of the heart are the chambers that are

a)

located superiorly and are the receiving chambers of the heart.

b)

located inferiorly and are the receiving chambers of the heart.

c)

located superiorly and are the discharging chambers of the heart.

d)

located inferiorly and are the discharging chambers of the heart.

14.

Which system is comprised of joints, joint capsules and synovial membranes?

a)

skeletal

b)

musclar

c)

integumentary

d)

nervous

15.

This ion is necessary in a muscle fiber in order for cross bridges to be able to form.

a)

Na+1

b)

K+1

c)

Ca+2

d)

Mg+2

16.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

osteoblasts break down bone and osteoclasts create new bone

b)

osteoblasts build new bone and osteoclasts clean up excess bone

c)

osteocytes are made mostly of phosphorous

d)

as the skeletal system ages, most of the bone turns to cartilage

17.

The trachea has

a)

a grape-like structure

b)

muscular contractions traveling from top to bottom

c)

cartilaginous rings

d)

a sphincter between itself and the lungs

18.

Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood?

a)

superior vena cava

b)

coronary vein

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

pulmonary vein

19.

What are the two characteristics that all respiratory structures must have?

a)

an internal location for gas exchange and small surface area

b)

counter-current blood flow and be surrounded by water

c)

moisture and a large surface area

d)

spiracles and trachea

20.

Which muscle is primarily responsible for the process of inspiration (inhaling)?

a)

latissimus dorsi

b)

biceps brachii

c)

intercostals

d)

diaphragm

21.

A structure that is shared by both the respiratory and digestive tracts is the

a)

trachea

b)

esophagus

c)

diaphragm

d)

pharynx

22.

The mucous membranes of the nasal cavity are filled with many blood vessels and lined with hairs. The function of these structures is to

a)

warm, moisten and filter the air as it enters the respiratory tract

b)

absorb oxygen into the circulatory system and release carbon dioxde

c)

increase the surface area for the absorption of oxygen

d)

trigger the sneezing reflex

23.

The elbow is ____ to the body compared to the fingertips.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

24.

The major ATP producing organelle of cells is the

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

chloroplasts

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleus

25.

Which term refers to cells that are taller than they are wide?

a)

stratified

b)

squamous

c)

columnar

d)

cuboidal

26.

Which term means one layer of cells?

a)

stratified

b)

squamous

c)

simple

d)

columnar

27.

This region of the body refers to the upper arm.

a)

inguinal

b)

brachial

c)

femoral

d)

patellar

28.

A lengthwise cut that divides the body into right an left portions is

a)

transverse

b)

coronal

c)

sagittal

d)

frontal

29.

Which protein provides a strong waterproof barrier in skin and nail cells?

a)

melanin

b)

myosin

c)

keratin

d)

collagen

30.

Apocrine sweat glands are primarily found

a)

attached to hair follicles all over the body

b)

not attached to hair follicles

c)

only attached to hair follicles on the head

d)

only attached to hair follicles in the axillary and pubic regions

31.

The primary function of most membranes is

a)

water absorption

b)

secretion of wastes

c)

protection

d)

digestion

32.

What do the letters ABCD refer to in skin cancer evaluations?

a)

Absent, Border, Color, Deformity

b)

Age, Brown, Crusty, Diameter

c)

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color, Diameter

d)

Asymmetry, Brown, Changing, Damage

33.

A small, rounded, bony projection that somewhat resembles knuckles is called a

a)

tubercle

b)

tuberosity

c)

trochanter

d)

epicondyle

34.

The ringed structures that make up the functional units of compact bone are called

a)

Volkmann's canals

b)

periosteum

c)

osteons

d)

endosteum

35.

Which of these types of muscle is/are found lining organs that have hollow tubes within the body?

a)

smooth

b)

skeletal

c)

cardiac

d)

voluntary

36.

Myofibrils consist of two kinds of protein filaments, thick ones composed of _____, and thin ones composed of _____.

a)

actin, myosin

b)

myosin, actin

c)

fascia, actin

d)

myosin, keratin

37.

To be able to do this motion, your arm must be

a)

pronated

b)

supinated

c)

everted

d)

inverted

38.

The muscles highlighted in green are known as the

a)

rectus femoris

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

rectus abdominis

d)

external obliques

39.

The brain dysfunction where blood supply to a region (or regions) of the brain is blocked and vital brain tissue dies, as by a blood clot or a ruptured blood vessel, is called ___________.

a)

a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) or stroke

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

Huntington's disease

40.

The hypothalamus regulates the

a)

pons

b)

thalamus

c)

pineal

d)

pituitary

41.

Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are

a)

motor

b)

sensory

c)

myelinated

d)

unmyelinated

42.

How does the contraction of the diaphragm bring air into the lungs?

a)

It decreases the volume and increases the pressure inside of the chest cavity which forces air in.

b)

It increases the volume and decreases the pressure inside of the chest cavity which draws air in.

c)

It decreases the circumference of the torso which allows for the lungs to expand.

d)

It pulls down on the lungs which causes the mouth to open and suck air in.

43.

The centers for the control of vital activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing and vomiting are located in the

a)

midbrain

b)

cerebrum

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

cerebellum

44.

The primary auditory cortex is found in the

a)

frontal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

45.

What are the gaps between the Schwann cells where the axon is exposed called?

a)

synapses

b)

gyri

c)

nodes of Ranvier

d)

glia

46.

Within the lungs, gas exchange occurs across

a)

alveoli

b)

tracheae

c)

bronchioles

d)

bronchi

47.

Systolic blood pressure is maintained by the

a)

left atrium

b)

right atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

right ventricle

48.

Which of the following statements about muscle contractions is INCORRECT?

a)

the actin filaments move toward each other

b)

myosin filaments are not involved

c)

calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

ATP is hydrolyzed

49.

A group of cells that has a common function is referred to as

a)

an organ

b)

a tissue

c)

an organ system

d)

an organism

50.

Which of the following could occur if a multicellular organism had little to no cartilage in its body?

a)

the organism might have difficulty staying warm

b)

the organism might have problems digesting macromolecules

c)

the organism might have problems with their joints

d)

the organism would have an abundance of adipose tissue

51.

________ warts exist on the bottoms of feet. This term means the bottom of the foot.

a)

palmar

b)

plantar

c)

lateral

d)

proximal

52.

Researchers are more likely to discover new information about _____, and less likely to make new discovering about _______________.

a)

physiology....anatomy

b)

anatomy...histology

c)

anatomy....physiology

d)

oncology...epidemiology

53.

A smooth, nearly flat articular surface as seen on the vertebrae is known as a

a)

ramus

b)

groove

c)

facet

d)

fossa

54.

A fracture in which the broken bone penetrates the skin is called a

a)

compound fracture

b)

simple fracture

c)

comminuted fracture

d)

greenstick fracture

55.

A fracture in which the ends of the broken bones are forced into each other, as is common when someone attempts to break a fall, is called a(n)

a)

compression fracture

b)

depressed fracture

c)

impacted fracture

d)

spiral fracture

56.

What is the name of this bone?

a)

scapula

b)

rib

c)

pelvis

d)

clavicle

57.

What is the name of this bone?

a)

scapula

b)

rib

c)

pelvis

d)

clavicle

58.

What is the proper name of the calf muscles at the back of the leg as seen in this picture?

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

quadriceps

c)

hamstrings

d)

gastrocnemius

59.

This movement is when the thumb and forefinger touch.

a)

flexion

b)

rotation

c)

abduction

d)

opposition

60.

This is an example of

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

plantar flexion

c)

inversion

d)

eversion

61.

These muscles often contract during side bends and twisting motions.

a)

quadriceps

b)

obliques

c)

deltoids

d)

triceps

62.

The prime mover during forearm flexion is the _____, and the prime mover during forearm extension is the _____.

a)

biceps brachii, triceps

b)

triceps, biceps brachii

c)

biceps brachii, deltoids

d)

deltoids, triceps

63.

Parathyroid hormone (PTH), which raises blood levels of Ca2+, is antagonistic to _______, which lowers blood Ca2+ levels.

a)

TSH

b)

calcitonin

c)

ACTH

d)

oxytocin

64.

The two main hormones involved in blood glucose homeostasis are

a)

oxytocin and insulin

b)

glucagon and antidiuretic hormone

c)

calcitonin and prolactin

d)

insulin and glucagon

65.

How does the anterior pituitary differ from the posterior pituitary?

a)

The posterior pituitary develops from a fold of tissue at the roof of the embryonic mouth

b)

The anterior pituitary cannot secrete hormones directly into the blood stream

c)

The posterior pituitary stores and releases oxytocin and ADH

d)

The posterior pituitary does not receives its signals from the hypothalamus

66.

The hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sex characteristics is

a)

estrogen

b)

follicle stimulating hormone

c)

luteinizing hormone

d)

oxytocin

67.

This hormone is responsible for uterine contractions and milk production and secretion from mammary glands, along with prolactin.

a)

estrogen

b)

follicle stimulating hormone

c)

luteinizing hormone

d)

oxytocin

68.

As thyroxine levels in the circulatory system increase, eventually

a)

the anterior pituitary stops releasing TSH due to a negative feedback loop

b)

the hypothalamus releases more TSH-releasing factor due to a positive feedback loop

c)

the hypothalamus inhibits TSH due to a negative feedback loop

d)

the anterior pituitary stops releasing TSH due to a positive feedback loop

69.

Which gland secretes estrogen and progesterone?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

anterior pituitary

c)

pineal gland

d)

ovaries

70.

Which gland releases gonadotropic releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the release of FSH?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

anterior pituitary

c)

posterior pituitary

d)

ovary

71.

Which gland is located at the base of the brain and secretes melatonin which helps to regulate circadian rhythms?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

anterior pituitary

c)

posterior pituitary

d)

pineal gland

72.

Ovulation is a positive feedback mechanism that is caused by the sudden surge of LH. Which of the following hormones is necessary for this even to be initiated?

a)

estrogen stimulating the anterior pituitary to release LH via positive feedback

b)

FSH release from Leydig cells

c)

estrogen release from the posterior pituitary

d)

progesterone release from the hypothalamus

73.

How does FSH affect the male reproductive system?

a)

it increases spermatogenesis

b)

it decreases the estrus cycle

c)

it causes the formation of eggs

d)

it decreases contraction of the epididymis

74.

The placenta functions in all of the following ways EXCEPT

a)

providing nutrients to the growing fetus

b)

exchanging respiratory gases

c)

disposal of wastes

d)

preventing breach births

75.

Which of the following accessory gland(s) is responsible for the formation of semen?

a)

testes only

b)

Leydig cells only

c)

seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbourethral glands

d)

testes, prostate gland and bulbourethral glands

76.

In humans, oogenesis is finally complete when

a)

the sperm enters the ovum

b)

the first polar body forms

c)

the corpus luteum develops

d)

the secondary oocyte leaves the ovary

77.

If the mature egg is not fertilized, all of the following will occur EXCEPT

a)

the corpus luteum degenerates

b)

a loss of the endometrium

c)

a rapid drop in progesterone levels

d)

maintenance of high estrogen and progesterone levels

78.

A woman's follicles are

a)

present at the time of birth

b)

released from the egg during ovulation

c)

mature at the time of birth

d)

released from the ovary

79.

What is an acrosome?

a)

A hormone released from the anterior pituitary that stimulates metabolic rate

b)

The organelle in the tip of the sperm that releases enzymes to enter the egg cytoplasm

c)

The slight bend in the arm of the oviduct where fertilization typically occurs

d)

The opening at the base of the uterus

80.

The membrane forming a fluid-filled sac immediately surrounding an embryo is called the

a)

amnion

b)

chorion

c)

placenta

d)

blastula

81.

The endometrium lines this structure

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

82.

This is the site of fertilization

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

83.

This structure permits the exit of the baby during birth

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

84.

If a person's stomach is surgically removed, the chemical digestion of proteins would be begin in the

a)

mouth

b)

small intestine

c)

large intestine

d)

liver

85.

What would be the result if peristalsis ceased within the alimentary canal?

a)

digestive juices would not be secreted

b)

food would not be fragmented

c)

nutrients would not be absorbed

d)

a bolus would have a harder time traveling through the alimentary canal

86.

The main function of the large intestine is to

a)

absorb excess water, sodium and potassium

b)

digest proteins

c)

emulsify fats

d)

digest carbohydrates

87.

Production of bile occurs in the _____, and is stored in the _____.

a)

liver; stomach

b)

liver; gall bladder

c)

stomach: colon

d)

pancreas; gall bladder

88.

Chemical digestion of proteins occurs in the

a)

colon

b)

pancreas

c)

mouth

d)

stomach

89.

This structure is also known as the colon.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

6

90.

This structure secretes bicarbonate as well as enzymes that are deposited in the small intestine to aid in digestion.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

8

d)

10

91.

The duodenum and jejunum are part of which structure?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

92.

Chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins in this structure

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

93.

Which of the following is the result of the release of bile from the gall bladder?

a)

It emulsifies lipids in the small intestine

b)

It emulsifies oils in the stomach

c)

It breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol

d)

It aids in protein digestion in the small intestine

94.

The chief purpose of villi is to

a)

promote gas exchange in the lungs

b)

increase the surface area of the small intestine

c)

decrease blood flow to certain regions of the body

d)

secrete hormones

95.

Which is the correct order that food takes through the digestive tract?

a)

oral cavity-esophagus-pharynx-stomach-small intestine-large intestine

b)

oral cavity-pharynx-esophagus-stomach-large intestine-small intestine

c)

oral cavity-pharynx-esophagus-stomach-small intestine-large intestine

d)

oral cavity-pharynx-stomach-esophagus-small intestine-large intestine

96.

After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the

a)

vas deferens

b)

epididymis

c)

prostate

d)

seminal vesicle

97.

Which of the following events occurs first during embryonic development?

a)

gastrulation

b)

neurulation

c)

cleavage

d)

implantation

98.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of human embryonic development?

a)

zygote, cleavage, blastula, gastrula, organ formation

b)

Cleavage, zygote, gastrula, blastula, organ formation

c)

Zygote, cleavage, gastrula, blastula, organ formation

d)

Zygote, cleavage, organ formation, blastula, gastrula

99.

Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?

a)

Formation of internal organs

b)

Formation of external features such as arms and legs

c)

Formation of hair and fingernails

d)

Rapid growth

100.

The induction and maintenance of labor represent an example of which type of control?

a)

Control of uterine events by anterior pituitary hormones

b)

Positive feedback involving pituitary, uterine and placental hormones and prostaglandins

c)

Positive feedback involving uterine substances only

d)

Negative feedback involving pituitary hormones and uterine prostaglandins