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WorksheetsMock Test 1 - SS1
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 4hrs 55mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
To maintain trust, the investment management profession must be interdependent with:
a)
A. regulators.
b)
B. employers.
c)
C. investment firms.
2.
An ethical decision-making framework will most likely:
a)
A. include a pre-determined, uniform sequence.
b)
B. focus exclusively on confirmable facts and relationships.
c)
C. help avoid a decision that has unanticipated ethical consequences.
3.
According to the Fundamentals of Compliance section of the Global Investment Performance Standards, issues that a firm must consider when claiming compliance include all of the following except:
a)
A. replicating performance.
b)
B. properly defining the firm.
c)
C. documenting firm policies and procedures used in establishing and maintaining compliance with the Standards.
4.
Which of the following is least likely a requirement of the GIPS standards? Firms are required to:
a)
A. have their performance records verified by an independent third party.
b)
B. include all discretionary, fee-paying portfolios in at least one composite.
c)
C. present a minimum of five years of annual investment performance compliant with GIPS standards.
5.
The GIPS standards are instrumental in:
a)
A. enabling regulatory enforcement of investment performance reporting.
b)
B. establishing best practices for calculating and presenting investment performance.
c)
C. eliminating barriers to entry in markets with no investment performance standards.
6.
Pia Nilsson is a sole proprietor investment advisor. An economic recession has reduced the number of clients she advises and caused revenues to decline. As a result, Nilsson has not paid her CFA Institute membership dues for the past two years. When a national financial publication recently interviewed Nilsson, she indicated that up until two years ago she had been a CFA charterholder and a CFA Institute member in good standing. In addition, she stated the completion of the CFA Program enhanced her portfolio management skills and enabled her to achieve superior returns on behalf of her clients. Which of Nilsson's following actions most likely violated the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Nonpayment of CFA Institute membership dues
b)
B. Attributing her superior returns to participation in the CFA Program
c)
C. Indicating that being a CFA charterholder has enhanced her portfolio management skills
7.
Upon receiving notification that he passed his Level III CFA exam, Paulo Garcia updates his educational background on his social media site by adding “completed the CFA course.” Does Garcia most likely violate the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, because it could imply he has obtained the charter.
c)
C. Yes, because he doesn’t describe the certification process.
8.
Which of the following statements concerning the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS) is most likely correct?
a)
A. Clients or prospective clients benefit from the Standards because the historical track record of compliant firms is accurate and precise.
b)
B. The Standards eliminate the need for in-depth due diligence by investors.
c)
C. Compliance with the Standards enhances the credibility of investment management firms.
9.
Tamlorn Mager, CFA, is an analyst at Pyallup Portfolio Management. CFA Institute recently notified Mager that his CFA Institute membership was suspended for a year because he violated the CFA Code. A hearing panel also came to the same conclusion. Mager subsequently notified CFA Institute that he does not accept the sanction or the hearing panel’s conclusion. Which of the following actions by Mager is most consistent with the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct Program?
a)
A. Presenting himself to the public as a CFA charterholder.
b)
B. Providing evidence for his position to an outside arbitration panel.
c)
C. Using his CFA designation upon expiration of the suspension period.
10.
Oliver Rae, CFA, is an individual investment adviser specializing in commercial real estate. Rae recently packaged a real estate limited partnership (RELP), which he sold in a private placement to his existing advisory clients. Prior to the private placement, the partnerships had purchased four properties in which Rae held a 5% minority interest. According to the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, Rae should:
a)
A. manage the partnership separately from his advisory business.
b)
B. disclose conflicts related to the real estate he sold to the partnership.
c)
C. return all profits earned from his minority interest to the limited partners.
11.
A profession is most likely described as a group of people that:
a)
A. has a common level of basic knowledge about a particular subject.
b)
B. monitors its members based on an agreed-on code of ethics.
c)
C. puts the interests of its members first.
12.
Beth Kozniak, a CFA candidate, is an independent licensed real estate broker and a well-known property investor. She is currently brokering the sale of a commercial property on behalf of a client in financial distress. If the client’s building is not sold within 30 days, he will lose the building to the bank. A year earlier, another client of Kozniak’s had expressed interest in purchasing this same property. However, she is unable to contact this client, and she has not discovered any other potential buyers. Given her distressed client’s limited time frame, Kozniak purchases the property herself and foregoes any sales commission. Six months later, she sells the property for a nice profit to the client who had earlier expressed interest in the property. Does Kozniak most likely violate the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. No
b)
B. Yes, she did not disclose her potential conflicts of interest to either client.
c)
C. Yes, she profited on the real estate to the detriment of her financially stressed client.
13.
Holly Baker, CFA is explaining the CFA Institute Code of Ethics to a client. Which of the following statements could Baker make to most likely reflect disciplinary sanctions the CFA Institute may impose? Sanctions include:
a)
A. fines for violations.
b)
B. revocation of membership.
c)
C. banishment from the industry.
14.
Yao Tsang, CFA, has a large percentage of his net worth invested in the Australian mining company Outback Mines, which he has held for many years. Tsang is in the process of moving to a new employer where he is responsible for initiating research on mining companies. Shortly after his move, Tsang is asked to complete a research report on Outback. In order to meet the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct concerning his stock holding, which of the following actions is most appropriate for Tsang to take?
a)
A. Disclose his stock holding to his employer and to clients.
b)
B. Sell his stock holdings to eliminate any potential conflict of interest.
c)
C. Refuse to write the report and ask his employer to assign another analyst to complete the analysis.
15.
Linda Chin, CFA, is a member of a political group advocating lower governmental regulation in all aspects of life. She works in a country where local securities laws are minimal and insider trading is not prohibited. Chin’s politics are reflected in her investment strategy where she follows her country’s mandatory legal and regulatory requirements. Which of the following actions by Chin is most consistent with the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Follow the CFA Code and Standards.
b)
B. Continue her current investment strategy.
c)
C. Disclose her political advocacy to clients.
16.
According the GIPS standards, for periods beginning on or after 1 January 2011, the aggregate fair value of total firm assets most likely includes all:
a)
A. fee-paying discretionary accounts.
b)
B. fee- and non–fee-paying discretionary accounts.
c)
C. fee- and non–fee-paying discretionary and non-discretionary accounts.
17.
Justin Blake, CFA, a retired portfolio manager, owns 20,000 shares of a small public company that he would like to sell because he is worried about the company’s prospects. He posts messages on several internet bulletin boards. The messages read, “This stock is going up once the pending patents are released, so now is the time to buy. The stock is a buy at anything below $3. I have done some close research on these guys.” According to the Standards of Practice Handbook, Blake most likely violated the Standard or Standards associated with:
a)
A. Integrity of Capital Markets and Conflicts of Interest.
b)
B. Integrity of Capital Markets, but not Conflicts of Interest.
c)
C. Neither Integrity of Capital Markets nor Conflicts of Interest.
18.
Mailaka Securities (MS) advertises the use of a “bottom up” investment style in its marketing material. Recently, MS senior management decided to switch to a “top down” approach, citing the fact that it is less labor intensive. All other aspects of the research process are to remain the same. The head of research at MS, Mara Cherogony, CFA, is instructed to supervise the implementation of the new procedures, notify clients of the changes, and revise the text of marketing materials when new material is produced. Which of the following CFA Standards pertaining to Investment Analysis, Recommendations, and Actions is Cherogony least likely in danger of violating?
a)
A. Supervisory Responsibility
b)
B. Communication with Clients
c)
C. Diligence and Reasonable Basis
19.
Sheila Schleif, CFA, is an equity analyst at an investment banking division of Mokara Financial Group, a full service financial group. Schleif uses a multi-factor computer model to make stock recommendations for all clients of Mokara. Schleif discovers that the model contains an error. If the error were corrected, her most recent buy recommendation communicated to all clients would change to a sell. Schleif corrects the error, changing the buy to a sell recommendation, and then simultaneously distributes via e-mail the revision to all investment banking clients who received the initial recommendation. A week later, Schleif sells the same shares she held in her personal portfolio. Concerning her actions, Schleif most likely violated which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Fair Dealing
b)
B. Priority of Transactions
c)
C. Diligence and Reasonable Basis
20.
Which of the following statements is most likely consistent with the CFA Institute Code of Ethics? CFA Institute members and CFA candidates must:
a)
A. promote the integrity and viability of the global capital markets for the ultimate benefit of society.
b)
B. practice the highest level of personal and professional integrity and always act in the best interest of their employers.
c)
C. maintain their professional competence and require investment professionals under their supervision to adopt the CFA Code of Ethics.
21.
Which of the following is least likely a phase in an ethical decision-making framework?
a)
A. Multiple iterations of analysis
b)
B. Reflection on the outcome versus what was anticipated
c)
C. Consideration of situational influences, additional guidance, and alternative actions
22.
Charles Mbuwanga, a Level III CFA Candidate, is the Business Development Manager for Sokoza Investment Group, an investment management firm with high-net-worth retail clients throughout Africa. Sokoza introduced listed Kenyan Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) to its line of investment products based on new regulations introduced in Kenya so as to diversify its product offering to clients. The product introduction comes after months of researching Kenyan property correlations with other property markets and asset classes in Africa. Sokoza assigns Mbuwanga as part of the sales team in introducing this product to its clients across Africa. Mbuwanga subsequently determines that most of Sokoza’s clients’ portfolios would benefit from having a small Kenyan property exposure to help diversify their investment portfolios. By promoting the Kenyan REITS for Sokoza’s client portfolios as planned, Mbuwanga would least likely violate which of the following Standards?
a)
A. Suitability
b)
B. Knowledge of the Law
c)
C. Independence and Objectivity
23.
The goals of the CFA Institute Code of Ethics would least likely include:
a)
A. publicly communicating established principles.
b)
B. addressing past ethical failings.
c)
C. fostering public confidence.
24.
Sato Kashingaki, CFA, is a financial advisor who practices in multiple jurisdictions. In his resident country, Country A, he is not required by law to hold a financial advisor’s license but he is required to uphold a fiduciary duty to his clients. In Country B, authorities require him to hold a financial advisor’s license, but he is not expected to uphold a fiduciary duty to his clients. In Country C, authorities require both a financial advisor’s license and an asset management license in addition to upholding a fiduciary responsibility toward clients. In which of the three countries does Kashingaki have the duty to adhere to the CFA Code and Standards over local laws?
a)
A. Country A.
b)
B. Country B.
c)
C. Country C.
25.
Florence Zuelekha, CFA, is an equity portfolio manager at Grid Equity Management (GEM), a firm specializing in commodities. Zuelekha, who previously focused on alternative energy, recently attends her first commodity conference, sponsored in large part by GEM. Independent industry experts argued that commodities would increase in value and recommended that investors hold at least 10% of their portfolio assets in commodities based on consistent increases in their values over the previous two years. Without doing any additional research, Zuelekha recommends to all her clients an immediate allocation of 5% of their portfolio into commodities. Over the next few weeks, Zuelekha moves her own portfolio to a 10% commodity allocation. Which of the CFA Standards did Zuelekha most likely violate?
a)
A. Priority of Transactions.
b)
B. Independence and Objectivity.
c)
C. Diligence and a Reasonable Basis.
26.
An investment management firm has been hired by ETV Corporation to work on an additional public offering for the company. The firm’s brokerage unit now has a “sell” recommendation on ETV, but the head of the investment banking department has asked the head of the brokerage unit to change the recommendation from “sell” to “buy.” According to the Standards, the head of the brokerage unit would be permitted to:
a)
A. Increase the recommendation by no more than one increment (in this case, to a “hold” recommendation).
b)
B. Place the company on a restricted list and give only factual information about the company.
c)
C. Assign a new analyst to decide if the stock deserves a higher rating.
27.
At the conclusion of the afternoon section of the Level I CFA examination, the exam proctor instructs all candidates to stop writing and put their pencils down immediately. Krishna Chowdary sees other candidates in front of him continue to fill in their answer sheets. Chowdary has two questions left to complete so he randomly fills in one of the ovals on his answer sheet before putting his pencil down on the table. Did Chowdary’s actions most likely violate the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Yes.
b)
B. No, because other candidates continued writing.
c)
C. No, because he randomly answered one question.
28.
When working backward from the nodes on a binomial tree diagram, the analyst is attempting to calculate:
a)
A. the number of potential outcomes
b)
B. the probability of a given scenario
c)
C. an expected value as of today
29.
a)
A. Cash ratio
b)
B. Quick ratio
c)
C. Current ratio
30.
Which of the following items is most likely to appear near the top of the asset section in a liquidity-based presentation of a balance sheet?
a)
A. Land use rights
b)
B. Deferred revenue
c)
C. Marketable securities
31.
a)
A. £27.
b)
B. £32.
c)
C. £28.
32.
a)
A. 276.
b)
B. 279.
c)
C. 282.
33.
According to the International Financial Reporting Standards framework, which of the following qualities of financial information is least likely cited as one of the two fundamental characteristics that make financial information useful?
a)
A. Faithful representation
b)
B. Accrual accounting
c)
C. Relevance
34.
a)
A. €76.48
b)
B. €77.26
c)
C. €78.00
35.
If all of the assets and liabilities are listed on the balance sheet broadly in order of how easily they can be converted into cash, the presentation format is best described as:
a)
A. liquidity based.
b)
B. current/non-current.
c)
C. classified.
36.
a)
A. $41,667.
b)
B. $62,500.
c)
C. $83,333.
37.
Which of the following can be measured directly?
a)
A. Potential GDP.
b)
B. Labor productivity.
c)
C. Total factor productivity.
38.
The management of Bank EZ repurchases its own bonds in the open market. They pay €6.5 million for bonds with a face value of €10.0 million and a carrying value of €9.8 million. The bank will most likely report:
a)
A. other comprehensive income of €3.3 million.
b)
B. other comprehensive income of €3.5 million.
c)
C. a gain of €3.3 million on the income statement.
39.
Which of the following statements related to the derecognition of debt is correct?
a)
A. Under US GAAP, debt issuance costs are accounted for as bonds payable.
b)
B. Under IFRS, debt issuance costs are excluded from the carrying amount.
c)
C. Under US GAAP, any unamortized debt issuance costs must be written off at the time of redemption.
40.
Movement along the demand curve for good X occurs due to a change in:
a)
A. income.
b)
B. the price of good X.
c)
C. the price of a substitute for good X.
41.
A central bank that decides the desired levels of interest rates and inflation and the horizon over which the inflation objective is to be achieved is most accurately described as being:
a)
A. target independent and operationally independent.
b)
B. target independent but not operationally independent.
c)
C. operationally independent but not target independent.
42.
Normal profit is best described as:
a)
A. zero economic profit.
b)
B. total revenue minus all explicit costs.
c)
C. the sum of accounting profit plus economic profit.
43.
Distinguishing between current and non-current items on the balance sheet and presenting a subtotal for current assets and liabilities is referred to as:
a)
A. a classified balance sheet.
b)
B. an unclassified balance sheet.
c)
C. a liquidity-based balance sheet.
44.
a)
A. The relative frequency of Interval C is 15.
b)
B. The cumulative frequency of Interval D is 100%.
c)
C. The cumulative relative frequency of Interval C is 92.3%.
45.
Assuming no short selling, a diversification benefit is most likely to occur when the correlations among the securities contained in the portfolio are:
a)
A. greater than +1.
b)
B. equal to +1.
c)
C. less than +1
46.
a)
A. net profit margin and financial leverage have decreased.
b)
B. net profit margin and financial leverage have increased.
c)
C. net profit margin has decreased but its financial leverage has increased.
47.
An analyst reviewing a firm with a large reported restructuring charge to earnings should:
a)
A. view expenses reported in prior years as overstated.
b)
B. disregard it because it is solely related to past events.
c)
C. consider making pro forma adjustments to prior years’ earnings.
48.
a)
A. Company X
b)
B. Company Y
c)
C. Company Z
49.
a)
A. 3.67.
b)
B. 4.00.
c)
C. 2.27.
50.
a)
A. 50.
b)
B. 60.
c)
C. 110.
51.
At the beginning of 2009, Glass Manufacturing purchased a new machine for its assembly line at a cost of $600,000. The machine has an estimated useful life of 10 years and estimated residual value of $50,000. How much depreciation would Glass take in 2009 for financial reporting purposes under the double-declining balance method?
a)
A. $60,000.
b)
B. $110,000.
c)
C. $120,000.
52.
Under IFRS, an impairment loss on a property, plant, and equipment asset is measured as the excess of the carrying amount over the asset’s:
a)
A. fair value.
b)
B. recoverable amount.
c)
C. undiscounted expected future cash flows.
53.
a)
A. The probability that the value of X will be equal to 4 is 0.90
b)
B. The probability that the value of X will be less than or equal to 5 but greater than 2 is 0.75.
c)
C. The random variable X is continuous.
54.
For the positively skewed unimodal distribution, which of the followings is correct
a)
A. mode ≤ median ≤ mean
b)
B. mode < median < mean
c)
C. mean < median < mode
55.
Which of the following would be valid conclusions from an analysis of the cash flow statement for Telefónica Group presented in Exhibit 3?
a)
A. The primary use of cash is financing activities.
b)
B. The primary source of cash is operating activities.
c)
C. Telefónica classifies dividends paid as an operating activity.
56.
A company doing business in a monopolistically competitive market will most likely maximize profits when its output quantity is set such that:
a)
A. average cost is minimized.
b)
B. marginal revenue equals average cost.
c)
C. marginal revenue equals marginal cos
57.
a)
A. Company C
b)
B. Company B
c)
C. Company A
58.
Shares which have been repurchased by a company and not canceled are best described as:
a)
A. other reserves.
b)
B. treasury shares.
c)
C. minority interest.
59.
When making a decision in investments involving a statistically significant result, the:
a)
A. economic result should be presumed meaningful.
b)
B. statistical result should take priority over economic considerations.
c)
C. economic logic for the future relevance of the result should be further explored.
60.
A “pay-as-you-go” rule, which requires that any tax cut or increase in entitlement spending be offset by an increase in other taxes or reduction in other entitlement spending, is an example of which fiscal policy stance?
a)
A. Neutral.
b)
B. Expansionary.
c)
C. Contractionary.
61.
The marginal revenue per unit sold for a firm doing business under conditions of perfect competition will most likely be:
a)
A. equal to average revenue.
b)
B. less than average revenue.
c)
C. greater than average revenue.
62.
The level of significance of a hypothesis test is best used to:
a)
A. calculate the test statistic.
b)
B. define the test’s rejection points.
c)
C. specify the probability of a Type II error.
63.
a)
A. Allocation A
b)
B. Allocation B
c)
C. Allocation C
64.
a)
A. Increased competition has led to lower unit sales.
b)
B. There have been significant price increases in supplies.
c)
C. Management expects a further downturn in sales during 2010.
65.
Which technique most likely increases the cash flow provided by operations?
a)
A. Stretching the accounts payable credit period
b)
B. Applying all non-cash discount amortization against interest capitalized
c)
C. Shifting classification of interest paid from financing to operating cash flows
66.
The method used by a high-end custom-built motorcycle manufacturer to value its inventory results in the matching of the physical flow of the particular items sold, and the items remaining in inventory, to their actual cost. Which of the following inventory valuation methods is the manufacturer most likely using?
a)
A. FIFO
b)
B. Weighted average cost
c)
C. Specific identification
67.
a)
A. normal.
b)
B. substitutes.
c)
C. complements
68.
If companies earn economic profits in a perfectly competitive market, over the long run the supply curve will most likely:
a)
A. shift to the left.
b)
B. shift to the right.
c)
C. remain unchanged
69.
An agricultural firm operating in a perfectly competitive market supplies wheat to manufacturers of consumer food products and animal feeds. If the firm were able to expand its production and unit sales by 10% the most likely result would be:
a)
A. a 10% increase in total revenue.
b)
B. a 10% increase in average revenue.
c)
C. an increase in total revenue of less than 10%.
70.
The sampling error is best described as the:
a)
A. sample standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
b)
B. difference between the observed value of a statistic and the quantity it is intended to estimate.
c)
C. sum of squared deviations from the mean divided by the sample size minus one.
71.
a)
A. 10.20%
b)
B. 12.74%
c)
C. 16.40%
72.
A client requires £100,000 one year from now. If the stated annual rate is 2.50% compounded weekly, the deposit needed today is closest to:
a)
A. £97,500.
b)
B. £97,532.
c)
C. £97,561.
73.
a)
A. 1.00.
b)
B. 0.74.
c)
C. 0.90.
74.
If an estimator is consistent, an increase in sample size will increase the:
a)
A. accuracy of estimates.
b)
B. efficiency of the estimator.
c)
C. unbiasedness of the estimator.
75.
Monetarists favor a limited role for the government because they argue:
a)
A. government policy responses may lag.
b)
B. firms take time to adjust to systemic shocks to the economy.
c)
C. resource use is efficient with marginal revenue and cost equal.
76.
a)
A. 71%.
b)
B. 86%.
c)
C. 95%.
77.
Which of the following will most likely cause the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to shift to the right?
a)
A. Increase in business taxes
b)
B. Increase in the supply of human capital
c)
C. Increase in nominal wages
78.
The most likely company to use a liquidity-based balance sheet presentation is a:
a)
A. bank.
b)
B. computer manufacturer holding inventories.
c)
C. software company with trade receivables and payables.
79.
A company that prepares its financial statements using IFRS wrote down its inventory value by €20,000 at the end of year 1. In year 2, prices increased and the same inventory at the end of the year was worth €30,000 more than its value at the end of the prior year. Which of the following statements is most accurate? In year 2, the company’s cost of sales:
a)
A. was unaffected.
b)
B. decreased by €30,000.
c)
C. decreased by €20,000.
80.
If relative to prior values of their respective indicators, the inventory–sales ratio has risen, unit labor cost is stable, and real personal income has decreased, it is most likely that a peak in the business cycle:
a)
A. has occurred.
b)
B. is just about to occur.
c)
C. will occur sometime into the future.
81.
The full employment, or natural, level of output is best described as:
a)
A. the maximum level obtainable with existing resources.
b)
B. the level at which all available workers have jobs consistent with their skills.
c)
C. a level with a modest, stable pool of unemployed workers transitioning to new jobs.
82.
An investment of €500,000 today that grows to €800,000 after six years has a stated annual interest rate closest to:
a)
A. 7.5% compounded continuously.
b)
B. 7.7% compounded daily.
c)
C. 8.0% compounded semiannually.
83.
a)
A. 6.02%.
b)
B. 12.04%
c)
C. 24.54%
84.
According to IFRS, all of the following pieces of information about property, plant, and equipment must be disclosed in a company’s financial statements and footnotes except for:
a)
A. useful lives.
b)
B. acquisition dates.
c)
C. amount of disposals.
85.
A firm in a market environment characterized by monopolistic competition is most likely to:
a)
A. continue to experience economic profit in the long run.
b)
B. have a well-defined supply function reflecting its marginal and average costs.
c)
C. have many competitors each following its own product differentiation strategy.
86.
For a lump sum investment of ¥250,000 invested at a stated annual rate of 3% compounded daily, the number of months needed to grow the sum to ¥1,000,000 is closest to:
a)
A. 555
b)
B. 563
c)
C. 576
87.
a)
A. €37.6.
b)
B. €37.5.
c)
C. €37.0.
88.
Which of the following most likely contributes to a current account deficit?
a)
A. High taxes.
b)
B. Low private savings.
c)
C. Low private investment.
89.
a)
A. 0.77.
b)
B. 1.86.
c)
C. 0.65.
90.
Private contracts, such as bank loan agreements, are most likely to provide an effective disciplinary mechanism to insure high financial reporting quality because:
a)
A. loan covenants require the firm to meet specific financial ratios in order to renew the loan.
b)
B. lenders monitor managers and pay close attention to the firm’s financial reports.
c)
C. loan covenants may allow the lender to recover all or part of their investment if certain financial conditions are triggered.
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