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ClinPatho 2nd Shifting LE Samplex

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the minimum allowable allowance % for the result of sperm shape, motility and viability?

a)

40

b)

50

c)

60

d)

70

2.

What is the effect on the specimen if the patient abstains from ejaculation in less than 24 hours?

a)

Less mobile sperms

b)

Less sperm count

c)

Both A & B

d)

Neither A nor B

3.

What is the effect on the specimen if the patient abstains from ejaculation in more than 72 hours?

a)

Less mobile sperms

b)

Less sperm count

c)

Both A & B

d)

Neither A nor B

4.

If the Liquefaction time is > 60 min, the med tech should test for which of the following?

a)

Count

b)

Morphology

c)

ph

d)

Viscosity

5.

Sperm wherein the

acrosome is stained red

using Eosin-Negrosin stain is

a)

Viable

b)

Dead

c)

Both choices

d)

None of the choices

6.

Normal yellow color of urine is due to___

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Urochrome

c)

Hemochrome

d)

RBCs

7.

Urine with fruity odor suggests presence of ___

a)

Ketones

b)

Glucose

c)

Fructose

d)

UTI

8.

Rothera’s test is used in detecting presence of __

a)

Ketones

b)

Reducing sugars

c)

Protein

d)

Bilirubin

9.

Methyl red is used in

reagent strips to detect __

a)

Glucose

b)

Ketones

c)

ph

d)

Proteins

10.

Urine may be acidic in which condition?

a)

After meals

b)

Diabetes

c)

Vegetable diet

d)

UTI

11.

In nephrotic syndrome, urinary protein is more than __/gm/day.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

12.

Hemoglobinuria is most associated with which condition?

a)

Transfusion reactions

b)

Kidney trauma

c)

Renal cell carcinoma

d)

Glomerulonephritis

13.

Which finding highly suggests a glomerular pathology?

a)

Glitter cells

b)

Transitional cells

c)

Dysmorphic RBCs

d)

Oval fat bodies

14.

Oval fat bodies in urine signify which of the following?

a)

Hyperlipidemia

b)

Infection

c)

Degenerative Tubular Disease

d)

Chronic Renal Failure

15.

Which type of cast is associated with chronic renal failure?

a)

RBC cast

b)

Waxy cast

c)

White cell cast

d)

Fatty cast

16.

A patient with signs and symptoms of azotemia has a BUN: creatinine ratio of 10:1. The cause of renal impairment is most likely:

a)

Pre-renal

b)

Renal

c)

Post-renal

d)

Normal

17.

Which clinical term that describes patient’s signs and symptoms when symptomatic end-stage renal failure is present?

a)

Azotemia

b)

Uremia

c)

Dysuria

d)

Anuria

18.

In this reaction, creatinine form orange-red colored product in chemical reaction with alkaline picric acid.

a)

Jaffe

b)

Benedict

c)

Brown

d)

Reeves

19.

Glomerular filtration rate (GRF) is most commonly based on clearance of __ by the kidneys.

a)

Inulin

b)

Creatine Phosphate

c)

Creatinine

d)

Urea

20.

Which of the following is the correct formula for creatinine clearance?

a)

serum creatinine/urine creatinine x urine volume/collection time

b)

urine creatinine/serum creatinine x collection time/urine volume

c)

urine creatinine/serum creatinine x urine volume/collection time

d)

urine creatinine/serum creatinine x blood volume/collection time

21.

Glomerular filtration rate which implies renal failure and requires dialysis?

a)

<15

b)

<20

c)

<25

d)

<30

22.

Which of the following may cause increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?

a)

GIT Hemorrhage

b)

Liver Failure

c)

Malnutrition

d)

Overhydration

23.

A 30 year old asymptomatic patient was tested for microalbuminuria. His spot collection is 40 ug/mg Cr. This may indicate which of the following?

a)

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

b)

Goodpasture’s syndrome

c)

Diabetic nephropathy

d)

Nephrotic syndrome

24.

A patient with a fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) of 2% is

most likely due to:

a)

Acute tubular necrosis

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

d)

Gouty nephritis

25.

Which of the following

is true of Cystatin C?

a)

inversely proportional to GFR

b)

produced by body at unpredictable rate

c)

decreased levels are correlated with mortality

d)

secreted by the distal tubules

26.

All of the following correctly describes cerebrospinal fluid EXCEPT:

a)

Protective effect against sudden changes in blood pressure

b)

Does not provide physical support

c)

Provides excretory waste function

d)

Maintains CNS ionic homeostasis

27.

Which of the following is TRUE of the blood brain barrier?

a)

Glucose and urea cross by passive diffusion

b)

Proteins diffuse freely

c)

Composed of choroid plexus and capillary endothelium

d)

Ionic components diffuse freely

28.

Which of the following is the correct tube for the corresponding test?

a)

Tube 1 – serologic tests

b)

Tube 2 – hematology

c)

Tube 3 – hematology

d)

Tube 4 – microbiology

29.

What is the most important indication for CSF analysis?

a)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

b)

Malignancy

c)

Demyelinating disease

d)

Meningeal infection

30.

What is the most likely gross CSF finding in tuberculous meningitis?

a)

Clot formation

b)

Viscous appearance

c)

Pink-red color

d)

Clear CSF

31.

Which of the following findings is consistent with subarachnoid hemorrhage?

a)

Brown color

b)

Negative D-dimer

c)

Evenly distributed blood in tubes

d)

Clot formation

32.

CSF eosinophilic pleocytosis is commonly associated with which of the following?

a)

Bacterial meningitis

b)

Acute polyneuritis

c)

Myeloproliferative disorders

d)

Neurosarcoidosis

33.

Which of the following CSF proteins is associated with Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Beta-amyloid

b)

Alpha 2 macroglobulin

c)

Beta 2 microglobulin

d)

Myelin basic protein

34.

Two or more oligoclonal bands in CSF but not in serum is indicative of:

a)

HIV infection

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Bacterial meningitis

d)

Multiple myeloma

35.

What is the most common bacteria isolated in patients who are alcoholics and immunosuppressed?

a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Group B streptococcus

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

36.

Which of the following appearances best describes a patient with numerous crystals in the synovial fluid?

a)

Pale yellow

b)

Turbid

c)

Milky

d)

Greenish tinge

37.

A patient with lowered viscosity of the synovial joint fluid would show:

a)

String test > 6 cm

b)

String test = 5 cm

c)

Less firm clot with acetic acid

d)

Solid firm clot with acetic acid

38.

A 30 year old male with knee pain underwent arthrocentesis. The fluid was noted to have numerous rice bodies. These may indicate which of the following?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Traumatic injury

d)

Pigmented villonodular synovitis

39.

Which of the following correctly describes the joint crystals seen in gouty arthritis?

a)

Rhombic square and rods

b)

Envelopes

c)

Flat variable plates

d)

Needles

40.

Which of the following correctly describes the joint crystals seen in hemodialysis patients?

a)

Rhombic square and rods

b)

Envelopes

c)

Flat variable plates

d)

Needles

41.

CSF findings: Cloudy yellow green, variable viscosity, >75% neutrophils

a)

Non inflammatory

b)

Immunologic

c)

Crystal induced

d)

Septic

e)

Hemorrhagic

42.

CSF findings: Cloudy red, low viscosity, wbc equal to blood, glucose normal

a)

Non inflammatory

b)

Immunologic

c)

Crystal induced

d)

Septic

e)

Hemorrhagic

43.

CSF findings: Cloudy yellow, poor viscosity, up to 2000 -75000 cells u/L, (+) auto antibodies

a)

Non inflammatory

b)

Immunologic

c)

Crystal induced

d)

Septic

e)

Hemorrhagic

44.

CSF findings: Cloudy or milky, low viscosity, up to 100000 cells u/L

a)

Non inflammatory

b)

Immunologic

c)

Crystal induced

d)

Septic

e)

Hemorrhagic

45.

CSF findings: Clear yellow, good viscosity, < 1000 cells /uL, < 30% neutrophils

a)

Non inflammatory

b)

Immunologic

c)

Crystal induced

d)

Septic

e)

Hemorrhagic

46.

High calcium , high PTH

a)

Hypoparathyroidism

b)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

c)

Primary hyperparathyroidism

d)

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

e)

Chronic renal failure

47.

Low PTH, low calcium

a)

Hypoparathyroidism

b)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

c)

Primary hyperparathyroidism

d)

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

e)

Chronic renal failure

48.

High calcium, low PTH

a)

Hypoparathyroidism

b)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

c)

Primary hyperparathyroidism

d)

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

e)

Chronic renal failure

49.

High PTH, low calcium

a)

Hypoparathyroidism

b)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

c)

Primary hyperparathyroidism

d)

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

e)

Chronic renal failure

50.

Most common cause of primary osteoporosis

a)

Senile

b)

Idiopathic juvenile osteoporosis

c)

Secondary osteoporosis

d)

Postmenopausal

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