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IB Psych - Year 1 Cumulative - MEGA MONSTER SUPER QUIZIZZ

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is it the case that Phineas Gage does not represent "good" evidence to use in IB psychology?

a)

He wasn't very nice to women

b)

He did not immediately see a doctor about his brain injury

c)

Psychologists did not rigorously study his case while he was alive

d)

His personality changed too much after the incident

2.

This area of the brain is associated with reasoning, planning, thinking, and decision-making.

a)

Parietal

b)

Occipital

c)

Frontal

d)

Temporal

3.
What is involved with memory, emotion, and fear?
a)
Hippocampus
b)
Hypothalamus
c)
Thalamus
d)
Amygdala
e)
temporal-occipital junction
4.

what specific part of the brain was damaged in Bechara and Grafman's studies?

a)

ventromedial prefrontal coretex

b)

neocortex

c)

venomous prefrontal cortex

d)

venorbital prefrontal cortex

5.

what are the two types of processing called

a)

system 1 & system 2

b)

Processing & judgment

c)

Impulse and Expulse

d)

Cognition and mental processing

6.

check characteristics of system 1 processing

a)

Intuitive

b)

automatic

c)

automatic

d)

based on emotion

e)

slow

7.

select activities associated with system 1 processing

a)

make a disgust face when shown a horrible picture

b)

monitor the appropriateness of your behaviour in a social situation

c)

detect hostility in a voice

d)

find your way in a new city

8.

which characteristics describe system 2 processing

a)

slow

b)

conscious

c)

intuitive

d)

based on experience

e)

rational

9.

which of the following activities are system 2

a)

solving a complex math equation

b)

walking to the bathroom from your bedroom

c)

recognizing shock in someones facial expression

d)

solving a jigsaw puzzle

10.

In the Grafman et al. Vietnam Head Injury Study, how was data on the dependent variable gathered?

a)

Questionnaires

b)

MRI scans

c)

Behavioral Observations

d)

fMRI scans

11.

What was the dependent variable in the Bechara et al. study on brain damage and decision-making?

a)

Gambling Behaviors

b)

Aggressive Behaviors

c)

Irrational Behaviors

d)

Emotional Behaviors

12.

When I see a shark attack on the news and then refuse to swim in the ocean for fear of a shark attack, I am demonstrating...

a)

The Availability Heuristic

b)

The Representativeness Heuristic

c)

The Anchoring Heuristic

13.

When your amygdala sounds a "fear alarm" , your brain releases a rush of_________

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Fear

c)

Anxiety

14.

which group of researchers conducted the case study of SM, the woman with no fear?

a)

Passamonti et al.

b)

Radke et al.

c)

Feinstein et al.

d)

Cohen et al.

15.

which group of researchers conducted the experiment on the effects of testosterone in rats?

a)

Bandura et al.

b)

Radke et al.

c)

Feinstein et al.

d)

Albert et al.

16.

Increased testosterone increases the activation of the...

a)

PFC

b)

Amygdala

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Hypothalamus

17.

This is the system in your body that contains glands that will produce hormones

a)

Pituitary System

b)

Endocrine System

c)

Peripheral Nervous System

d)

Central Nervous System

18.

The process of evolution is dependent on...

a)

Mutations

b)

Procreation

c)

Survival of the Fittest

d)

All of these options

19.

In Goetz's study on testosterone & aggression, what "types" of faces were connected to higher activation of the amygdala in the participants?

a)

Any emotional face

b)

Sad faces

c)

Confused faces

d)

Angry faces

20.

A chemical messenger that travels through the body's bloodstream and kickstarts various physiological processes

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Hormone

c)

Neuron

d)

Agonist

21.

A chemical messenger that travels between neurons & kickstarts mental processes

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Hormone

c)

Neuron

d)

Agonist

22.

True or False: neurotransmitters & hormones are the same thing; you can use the terms interchangeably

a)

True

b)

False

23.

In Radke's study on the effects of testosterone on social threats, how was data gathered for the dependent variable?

a)

MRI scans

b)

Behavioral Observations

c)

Self Reports

d)

fMRI scans

24.

In Albert et al.'s study on rats, how was data gathered for the dependent variable?

a)

MRI scans

b)

Behavioral Observations

c)

Self Reports

d)

fMRI scans

25.

What's this thing?

a)

Glial cell

b)

Synaptic cell

c)

Neuron

d)

Nervous System

26.

The tiny space between two connecting neurons; the site where neurotransmission takes place

a)

axon

b)

synapse

c)

dendrite

d)

vesicle

27.

Which group of researchers studied the effects of serotonin reduction in the brain?

a)

Radke et al.

b)

Feinstein et al.

c)

Goetz et al.

d)

Passamonti et al.

28.

The process of neurons sending and receiving signals

a)

Neuroplasticity

b)

Neural Pathway

c)

Synapse

d)

Neurotransmission

29.

The ability of the brain to strengthen and diversify connections between neurons

a)

Neuroplasticity

b)

Neurogenesis

c)

Synapse

d)

Neurotransmission

30.

Which group of researchers studied the effects of mindfulness on the brain?

a)

Perry & Pollard

b)

Caspi et al.

c)

Passamonti et al.

d)

Desbordes et al.

31.

True or False: Neurotransmitters and hormones are the same thing

a)

True

b)

False

32.

A neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation, sleep quality, and impulsiveness

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Epinephrine

33.

In Rosenzweig & Bennet's studies on environment and neuroplasticity in rats, how many different test conditions were there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

0

34.

In Rosenzweig & Bennet's studies on environment and neuroplasticity in rats, how did the researchers gather data on the dependent variable?

a)

Behavioral Observations

b)

Performance on a maze

c)

MRI scans

d)

Dissecting the rats and weighing the brains

35.

In Perry & Pollard's study on enriched environments, they found that children who had suffered from ____________ neglect had the smallest brains

a)

Emotional

b)

Physical

c)

Cognitive

d)

Social

e)

Global

36.

Twin studies typically use an experimental design called...

a)

Repeated Measures

b)

Matched Pairs

c)

Independent Groups

d)

Quasi Experiment

37.

This number refers to the extent to which a behavior can be attributed to genetic vs environmental factors

a)

Heritability

b)

Genetics

c)

DNA Samples

d)

Dizygotic Observation

38.

In Raine & Baker's study on twins & aggressive behaviors, they found that heritability of anti-social behaviors almost always came out to...

a)

32%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

70%

39.

Meyer-Lindberg investigated the effects of the MAOA-L gene on aggressive behaviors. Results showed that

a)

Those with the MAOA-L Gene were much more likely to display aggressive behaviors

b)

Those with the MAOA-L Gene were much less likely to display aggressive behaviors

c)

Those with the MAOA-L gene were likely able to overcome the effects of child abuse

d)

Those with the MAOA-L gene were more likely to display aggressive behaviors if they experienced child abuse

40.

Social Cognitive Theory was developed by

a)

Sherif

b)

Bandura

c)

Tajfel and Turner

41.
According to Bandura, what can expand the range and rate of learning?
a)
Modeling
b)
Reinforcers 
c)
Chocolate 
d)
Socializing 
42.

In Bandura's original study on learning, the researchers used __________________ to study children's violent behavior

a)

Toy guns

b)

Video games

c)

A blow up Bobo doll

d)

Action Figures

43.

What is meant by observational learning?

a)

The process of learning by observing others

b)

The process of learning by observing others get rewarded or punished for behavior

c)

When we learn by recording our observations, via the scientific method

44.

What is this diagram depicting?

a)

Reciprocal Determinism

b)

Triadic Theory

c)

Environmental Factors

d)

Behavioral Determinism

45.

Acting in a way that is consistent with social norms

a)

Conformity

b)

Social Norm

c)

Normative Social influence

d)

Cultural Dimension

46.

When our behavior changes because we're afraid of how the group will react

a)

Conformity

b)

Social Norm

c)

Normative Social Influence

d)

Cultural Dimension

47.

Between individualism and collectivism, which cultures tend to place more emphasis on the group identity?

a)

Individualistic Cultures

b)

Collectivistic Cultures

48.

This person developed the cultural dimensions theory

a)

Hawthorne

b)

Hofling

c)

Hofstede

d)

Heider

49.

Which of these is NOT a value of individualistic cultures?

a)

Identity comes from individuality

b)

Confrontations are okay and can be healthy

c)

Competition between people should be discouraged

d)

Ties between individuals are relatively loose

50.

This theory states that conflict arises when there is competition over resources

a)

Scarcity Theory

b)

Realistic Conflict Theory

c)

Resource Conflict Theory

d)

Social Identity Theory

51.

The researcher behind Realistic Conflict Theory and the Robber's Cave Study

a)

Sherif

b)

Tajfel

c)

Rothbart

d)

Hofstede

52.

In the Robber's Cave Study,

a)

Groups were made to compete

b)

Groups were made to cooperate

c)

Groups became embroiled in a food fight

d)

All of the above

53.

In Berry's Cross-Cultural study, which group conformed more often?

a)

The Inuit people, who were more individualistic hunters

b)

The Temne people, who were collectivistic farmers

54.

What type of experiment was the Robber's Cave Study?

a)

A case study

b)

A Quasi Experiment

c)

A Matched Pairs Design, since there were 2 teams

d)

A Field Experiment

55.

In the Robber's Cave Study, how was conflict between groups developed?

a)

Mere contact with the other group

b)

False rumor spreading by the experimenters

c)

Propaganda posters on the walls of the cabins

d)

An organized tournament

56.

A biased attitude towards a group of people

a)

Stereotype

b)

Prejudice

c)

Discrimination

d)

Out-group homogeneity

57.

Gordon Allport came up with this idea to describe how intergroup conflict might be reduced

a)

Positive Interdependence

b)

Mutual Benefit

c)

Contact Hypothesis

d)

Cooperative Learning

58.

Which of these is NOT a condition of the Contact Hypothesis?

a)

Equal status of groups

b)

Authority figures support the contact

c)

There should be no competition between groups

d)

Groups must "spend a day in the others' shoes" and gain firsthand experience

59.

Which theory postulates that conflict between groups may arise due to identification with and in-group and categorizing others as an out-group

a)

Social Cognitive Theory

b)

Realistic Group Conflict Theory

c)

Social Identity Theory

60.

Which theory postulates that conflict between groups may arise due to conflict over resources

a)

Social Cognitive Theory

b)

Realistic Group Conflict Theory

c)

Social Identity Theory

61.

Social identity theory was proposed by...

a)

Rothbart

b)

Cialdini

c)

Sherif

d)

Tajfel

62.

The process of categorizing people into in-groups and out-groups is called...

a)

In-group bias

b)

Social comparison

c)

Social categorization

d)

The self-esteem hypothesis

63.

According to SIT, we show in-group bias because it improves...

a)

Stereotypes

b)

Memory

c)

Discrimination

d)

Self-esteem

64.

The out-group homogeneity effect is a term that means...

a)

stereotypes can actually be very productive and useful

b)

we think of out-group members as being more similar than in-group members

c)

we think of out-group members as being fundamentally different from our in-group

65.

Which of the following studies is NOT relevant to SIT...

a)

Robber's Cave Study (Sherif)

b)

Basking in Reflected Glory (Cohen)

c)

Minimal group experiments (Tajfel and Turner)

d)

Sorority girls study (Park and Rothbart)

66.
When an in-group is seen more favorably it is referred to as
a)
social comparison
b)
social categorization
c)
positive distinctiveness
d)
self-esteem hypothesis
e)
low key adjustment
67.

Study: Sororities and in-group bias

a)

Tajfel et al. 1979

b)

Cialdini et al. 1976

c)

Park & Rothbart 1982

68.
An experimental procedure that involves randomly putting people into groups based on meaningless criteria
a)
maximum group paradigm
b)
minimal paradigm
c)
minimal group paradigm
69.

This study examined social identity in college students as it related to success of the college's sports teams

a)

Phelps et al. 2000

b)

Cialdini et al. 1976

c)

Sherif 1966

d)

Tajfel et al. 1979

70.

What are Schemas?

a)

Mental constructs that are used determine our behaviour.

b)

Mental constructs that develop via experience which are then used to determine our behaviour.

c)

Mental constructs that develop via experience and they organise our knowledge around particular topics.

71.

_________ schemas are mental representations about various groups of people.

a)

Self

b)

Social

c)

Scripts

72.

_________ are schemas about sequences of events.

a)

Scripts

b)

Self

c)

Social

73.

________ schemas are mental representations about ourselves.

a)

Scripts

b)

Social

c)

Self

74.

According to Schema Theory, which of the following are true.?

a)

Our processing of information is determined to a large extent on relevant past experiences

b)

Knowledge in our brain is stored in the form of schemas

c)

Schemas can influence our behaviour

d)

Schemas can influence the way in which we process information

75.

In the Cohen (1981) Waitress/Librarian study, all participants saw the exact same video

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The processing of information in a way that connects the information to existing schema

a)

Generalizations

b)

Stereotypes

c)

Schematic Processing

d)

Rationalization

77.

This study examined how confirmation bias might be connected to racial bias in sports

a)

Bransford & Johnson (1972)

b)

Stone et al. (2010)

c)

Cohen (1981)

78.

This study examined how activating a schema (specifically, a script schema for doing laundry) might improve memory retention

a)

Bransford & Johnson (1972)

b)

Stone et al. (2010)

c)

Cohen (1981)

79.

A cognitive bias whereby we tend to focus on and remember information that is consistent with our existing thoughts, opinions or beliefs.

a)

Schematic Processing

b)

Schema Consistent Information

c)

Confirmation Bias

d)

Cognitive Misers

80.

Memories are not perfectly preserved "snapshots" of an event but are rather _____________________ every time we access them

a)

remembered

b)

reconstructed

c)

re-assembled

d)

schematicized

81.

_______________ occurs when information from our memories does not fit nicely into our schemas

a)

Distortion

b)

False Memory

c)

Rationalization

d)

Reconstruction

82.

Elizabeth Loftus did work related to

a)

accurate memories being found during hypnosis

b)

Reconstructive memory processing

c)

Finding memory traces or engrams.

d)

Distinguishing long term memory functions from short term memory functions

83.

Phenomenon of incorrect information being integrated into a memory of an event

a)

Distortion

b)

Misinformation Effect

c)

False Memories

d)

Confabulation

84.

a particular type of distortion where a false memory is created of something that never happened

a)

Reconstruction

b)

Code Switching

c)

Confabulation

d)

Eyewitness Testimony

85.

The process of acquiring one's cultural heritage

a)

Cultural Value

b)

Integration

c)

Acculturation

d)

Enculturation

86.

The process of enculturation can also be referred to as

a)

Acculturation

b)

Cultural Values

c)

Cultural Transmission

d)

Integration

87.

The enculturation process is carried out by

a)

Parents

b)

School

c)

Media

d)

All of these

88.

This factor will influence the enculturation process (especially when it comes to parenting)

a)

Obedience & Compliance

b)

Economics

c)

Conformity

d)

Innovation & Creativity

89.

How many cultures were included in Barry et al.'s (1959) cross-cultural study on parenting styles?

a)

17

b)

133

c)

46

d)

99

90.

The acculturation strategy that is correlated with the best mental health outcomes

a)

Assimilation

b)

Integration

c)

Separation

d)

Marginalization

91.

Which of these is NOT an acculturation strategy?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Integration

c)

Discrimination

d)

Separation

92.

In Torres et al.'s (2012) study on American Latinos, higher discrimination tended to be correlated with higher....

a)

Conformity

b)

Enculturation

c)

Integration

d)

Acculturative stress

93.

Theresa has moved to a new country, but finds the culture very unappealing. She would prefer to just mind her own business and continue living her life the way she lived it back home.


What acculturation strategy has this person adopted?

a)

Integration

b)

Assimilation

c)

Separation

d)

Marginalization

94.

JimBob just moved to Fiji, and loves the culture so much that he's beginning to consider himself a native Fijian. He can barely even remember what he liked about his home culture.


What acculturation strategy has this person adopted?

a)

Integration

b)

Assimilation

c)

Separation

d)

Marginalization

95.

Getting participants to agree to participate in the study before it takes place and also providing enough information so they can make an informed decision about if they want to participant.

a)

Debriefing

b)

Right to withdraw

c)

Informed consent

d)

Deception

96.

After the study has finished, researchers reveal full details about the study, including aims, methods, results and maybe possible applications. This is when any deception is clarified.

a)

Debriefing

b)

Right to withdraw

c)

Informed consent

d)

Deception

97.

When someone’s name is unknown - in research, this may involve not revealing real names (e.g. HM, SM) and/or removing names from lists of data.

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Right to withdraw

c)

Anonymity

d)

Justification

98.

This is when you lead someone to believe something that’s not true. This is sometimes required to ensure validity of results, but should be justified and may be revealed during debriefing.

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Deception

c)

Anonymity

d)

Justification

99.

When a participant's behaviour changes because of their desire to be viewed positively by other people.

a)

Social desirability effect

b)

Sampling bias

c)

Participant variability

d)

Participant expectancy effect

100.

Any action that a researcher has taken in a study to minimize or eliminate the effects of extraneous variables.

a)

Control

b)

Blind procedure

c)

Ethical consideration

d)

Generalizability

101.

A type of sampling method where the researchers conduct their study on people who are available at the time of the study.

a)

Random sampling

b)

Opportunity sampling

c)

Self-selected sampling

d)

Purposive sampling

102.

A type of brain imaging that shows images of the activity in the brain while tasks are being performed.

a)

Magnetic resonance imaging

b)

Function magnetic resonance imaging

c)

Positron emission tomography

d)

Animal experiment

103.

A study that manipulates an independent variable in a naturalistic setting and measures the effects of this.

a)

True experiment

b)

Field experiment

c)

Quasi experiment

d)

Natural experiment

104.

A type of sampling method where all members of a target population may be asked to participate through the use of a randomized method.

a)

Random sampling

b)

Opportunity sampling

c)

Self-selected sampling

d)

Purposive sampling

105.

A study that tests the effects of some kind of treatment on a dependent variable, but one or more characteristics of a true experiment can't be met.

a)

True experiment

b)

Field experiment

c)

Quasi experiment

d)

Natural experiment

106.

A type of brain imaging that shows images of the structure (size and shape) of the brain.

a)

Magnetic resonance imaging

b)

Function magnetic resonance imaging

c)

Positron emission tomography

d)

Animal experiment

107.

A type of research method that involves studying the effects of a naturally occurring IV on a DV.

a)

True experiment

b)

Field experiment

c)

Case study

d)

Natural experiment

108.

When a researcher might be subconsciously interpreting data in a way that supports their hypothesis

a)

Sampling Bias

b)

Expectancy Effect

c)

Researcher Bias

d)

Desirability Bias

109.

A type of research method that involves using multiple methods to gather lots of data on a small group or individual.

a)

True experiment

b)

Field experiment

c)

Case study

d)

Quasi-experiment

110.

A type of sampling method where the researchers advertise the study and participants volunteer to participate.

a)

Random sampling

b)

Opportunity sampling

c)

Self-selected sampling

d)

Purposive sampling

111.

When the sample doesn't accurately represent the target population.

a)

Ecological validity

b)

Sampling bias

c)

Participant variability

d)

Participant expectancy effect

112.

When the order of the tasks participants are asked to complete might effect the results

a)

Expectancy Effects

b)

Sampling Bias

c)

Order Effects

d)

Participant Variability

113.

The extent to which the findings from a study could be applied to a different context (e.g. other people, places or situations).

a)

Participant variability

b)

Extraneous variable

c)

Ethical consideration

d)

Generalizability

114.

A type of research method that investigates the strength of relationships between co-variables.

a)

Correlational study

b)

Field method

c)

Case study

d)

Quasi-experiment

115.

What control process transfer information from the sensory store to the short-term store?

a)

Transfer

b)

Rehearsal

c)

Retrieval

d)

Attention

116.

What control process transfer information from the short-term store to the long-term store?

a)

Transfer

b)

Rehearsal

c)

Retrieval

d)

Attention

117.

In the case study of HM, what function of the brain was demonstrated?

a)

The role of the hippocampus in memory-creation

b)

The role of the hypothalamus in memory-creation

c)

The role of the hippocampus in decision-making

d)

The role of the hypothalamus in decision-making

118.

Which element of short term memory did Peterson & Peterson's trigram study help to demonstrate?

a)

Capacity

b)

Duration

c)

Interactivity

d)

Attention

119.

In Peterson and Peterson's study, after how many seconds did memory of trigrams disappear?

a)

0 seconds

b)

6 seconds

c)

12 seconds

d)

18 seconds

120.

About how many separate pieces of information can our short-term memory process?

a)

7 plus or minus 2

b)

4

c)

23

d)

2 plus or minus 7

121.

This is a type of long-term memory about skills ("muscle memory"); despite the damage to his hippocampus, it appeared HM was able to develop this kind of memory

a)

Declarative Memories

b)

Procedural Memories

122.

This is a type of long-term memory about specific events or experiences; because HM's hippocampus was damaged, he could not form new memories of this type

a)

Declarative Memories

b)

Procedural Memories

123.

These researchers conducted the case study on HM

a)

Peterson & Peterson

b)

Atkinson & Shiffrin

c)

Feinstein et al.

d)

Milner & Scoville

124.

True or False: "Working Memory" and "Short Term Memory" refer to essentially the same thing

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Which of the following is NOT a slave system in the working memory model?

a)

Central Executive

b)

Phonological Loop

c)

Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

d)

Episodic Buffer

126.

The ability to hold information in our conscious attention is also known as...

a)

Working Memory

b)

Short Term Memory

c)

Memory consolidation

d)

Reading

127.

Which part of the working memory model did Baddeley describe as a "little man inside your head" ?

a)

Central Executive

b)

Phonological Loop

c)

Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

d)

Episodic Buffer

128.

Which of the following processes auditory information?

a)

Central Executive

b)

Phonological Loop

c)

Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

d)

Episodic Buffer

129.

Which of the following processes visual information?

a)

Central Executive

b)

Phonological Loop

c)

Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

d)

Episodic Buffer

130.

Think about your favorite song.


Which system in your working memory just activated?

a)

Central Executive

b)

Phonological Loop

c)

Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

d)

Episodic Buffer

131.

What were the average scores for memory of chess pieces during visual-spatial interference? (Robbins et al. [1996])

a)

4/25

b)

16/25

c)

0/25

d)

25/25

132.

Does high emotion increase or decrease memory?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Could go either way

d)

No Effect

133.

Which stress hormone has been demonstrated to have an effect on memory recall?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Cortisol

d)

Testosterone

134.

The process of emotion beginning with thoughts in the PFC that activate the stress response

a)

Top-Down Processing

b)

Bottom-Up Processing

c)

Stress Response

d)

Fight or Flight Response

135.

What is one limitation of the Baby Albert study by Watson & Rayner (1920)?

a)

The experiment was not tightly controlled

b)

Low population validity since it was only 1 participant

c)

They actually had several participants and got conflicting results from each baby

d)

It was very unethical and so cannot be replicated today

136.

Even though fear can often feel like a bad thing, it is an _________________________________ that helps to ensure our survival

a)

important cognitive process

b)

evolutionary adaptation

c)

essential aspect of hippocampal activity

137.

Cognitive reappraisal is...

a)

Controlled by the amygdala

b)

Thinking differently about emotional stimuli

c)

Common in people who have suffered trauma

d)

All of these things

138.

In this experiment, participants first learned 3 different cognitive reappraisal strategies. They then laid down in an fMRI, were shown different images, and asked to practice 1 of the 3 reappraisal strategies while observers measured brain activity.

a)

Robbins et al. (1996)

b)

Buchanan & Lovallo (2001)

c)

Urry et al. (2006)

d)

Peterson & Peterson (1959)

139.

When I am in the woods and see a wolf, the rush of fear that I feel is an example of...

a)

Top-Down Processing

b)

Bottom-Up Processing

c)

Cognitive Reappraisal

d)

Central Executive

140.

When I am ruminating about the good old days, and start to feel sad that the good old days are over, this is an example of...

a)

Top-Down Processing

b)

Bottom-Up Processing

c)

Cognitive Reappraisal

d)

Central Executive