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Mock Test 3 - SS2

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 4hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A measure that is most likely well suited to analyzing the performance of alternative investments that may exhibit negative skewness in returns is the:
a)
A. Sortino ratio.
b)
B. Sharpe ratio.
c)
C. safety-first measure.
2.
Which of the following most likely has the highest priority claim in the event of default?
a)
A. Unsecured debt
b)
B. Subordinated debt
c)
C. Secured debt
3.
A 10-year bond was issued four years ago. The bond is denominated in US dollars, offers a coupon rate of 10% with interest paid semi-annually, and is currently priced at 102% of par. The bond’s:
a)
A. tenor is six years.
b)
B. nominal rate is 5%.
c)
C. redemption value is 102% of the par value.
4.
If markets are efficient, the difference between the intrinsic value and market value of a company’s security is:
a)
A. negative.
b)
B. zero.
c)
C. positive.
5.
Technical analysts assume that markets are:
a)
A. weak-form efficient.
b)
B. weak-form inefficient.
c)
C. semi-strong-form efficient.
6.
a)
A. 10.0%.
b)
B. 13.3%.
c)
C. 16.7%.
7.
The value of a forward contract at expiration is:
a)
A. positive to the long party if the spot price is higher than the forward price.
b)
B. negative to the short party if the forward price is higher than the spot price.
c)
C. positive to the short party if the spot price is higher than the forward price.
8.
In the free cash flow to equity (FCFE) model, the intrinsic value of a share of stock is calculated as:
a)
A. the present value of future expected FCFE.
b)
B. the present value of future expected FCFE plus net borrowing.
c)
C. the present value of future expected FCFE minus fixed capital investment.
9.
Centro Corp. recently issued a floating-rate note (FRN) that includes a feature that prevents its coupon rate from falling below a prespecified minimum rate. This feature in an FRN is most likely referred to as a:
a)
A. cap.
b)
B. collar.
c)
C. floor.
10.
An investor chooses to invest in a brownfield rather than a greenfield infrastructure project. The investor is most likely motivated by:
a)
A. growth opportunities.
b)
B. predictable cash flows.
c)
C. higher expected returns.
11.
An investor may prefer a single hedge fund to a fund of funds if he seeks:
a)
A. due diligence expertise.
b)
B. better redemption terms.
c)
C. a less complex fee structure.
12.
A beneficial opportunity created by the derivatives market is the ability to:
a)
A. adjust risk exposures to desired levels.
b)
B. generate returns proportional to movements in the underlying.
c)
C. simultaneously take long positions in multiple highly liquid fixed-income securities.
13.
A trader buys a stock at $30 and wants to limit downside risk. Which of the following orders will most likely guarantee that he can sell the stock at $25? (GTC means good till cancelled)
a)
A. Put option buy market order with a strike price of $25
b)
B. GTC, stop $25, limit $25 sell order
c)
C. GTC, stop $25, market sell order
14.
Tony Harris is planning to start trading in commodities. He has heard about the use of futures contracts on commodities and is learning more about them. Which of the following is Harris least likely to find associated with a futures contract?
a)
A. Existence of counterparty risk.
b)
B. Standardized contractual terms.
c)
C. Payment of an initial margin to enter into a contract.
15.
Consider a call option selling for $4 in which the exercise price is $50.<br />Determine the value at expiration and the profile for a buyer if the price of the underlying at expiration is $55.
a)
A. $5
b)
B. $1
c)
C. –$1
16.
Which of the following statements describes an aspect of margin accounts for futures?
a)
A. The maintenance margin is always less than the initial margin.
b)
B. The initial margin required is typically at least 10% of the futures price.
c)
C. A margin call requires a deposit sufficient to raise the account balance to the maintenance margin.
17.
Which of the following is most appropriate for measuring a bond’s sensitivity to shaping risk?
a)
A. key rate duration
b)
B. effective duration
c)
C. modified duration
18.
In a securitization, the collateral is initially sold by the:
a)
A. issuer.
b)
B. depositor.
c)
C. underwriter.
19.
a)
A.
b)
B.
c)
C.
20.
Compared with direct investment in infrastructure, publicly traded infrastructure securities are characterized by:
a)
A. higher concentration risk.
b)
B. more-transparent governance.
c)
C. greater control over the infrastructure assets.
21.
Which bonds most likely rank the highest with respect to priority of claims?
a)
A. Subordinated debt
b)
B. Second lien debt
c)
C. Senior unsecured bond
22.
If a default occurs in a non-recourse commercial mortgage-backed security (CMBS), the lender will most likely:
a)
A. recover prepayment penalty points paid by the borrower to offset losses.
b)
B. use only the proceeds received from the sale of the property to recover losses.
c)
C. initiate a claim against the borrower for any shortfall resulting from the sale of the property.
23.
A bond is currently selling for 102.31. A valuation model estimates the price will fall to 101.12 if interest rates increase by 20 bps and rise to 103.74 if interest rates decrease by 20 bps. Using these estimates, the effective duration of the bond is closest to:
a)
A. 6.48.
b)
B. 6.40.
c)
C. 6.31.
24.
Consider a call option selling for $4 in which the exercise price is $50.<br />Determine the value at expiration and the profile for a buyer if the price of the underlying at expiration is $48.
a)
A. –$4
b)
B. $0
c)
C. $2
25.
Which investment will most likely expose investors to the greatest level of extension risk?
a)
A. Shorter-term tranches in a collateralized mortgage obligation structure
b)
B. Commercial mortgage-backed securities with a balloon payment
c)
C. Planned amortization class tranches in a collateralized mortgage obligation structure
26.
A 10-year, capital-indexed bond linked to the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is issued with a coupon rate of 6% and a par value of 1,000. The bond pays interest semi-annually. During the first six months after the bond’s issuance, the CPI increases by 2%. On the first coupon payment date, the bond’s:
a)
A. coupon rate increases to 8%.
b)
B. coupon payment is equal to 40.
c)
C. principal amount increases to 1,020.
27.
With respect to floating-rate bonds, a reference rate such as the London interbank offered rate (Libor) is most likely used to determine the bond’s:
a)
A. spread.
b)
B. coupon rate.
c)
C. frequency of coupon payments.
28.
Which of the following is most likely a characteristic of real assets?
a)
A. Substantial management costs
b)
B. High liquidity
c)
C. Homogeneity
29.
a)
A. 1.7%.
b)
B. 5.0%.
c)
C. 11.4%.
30.
A book publisher requires substantial quantities of paper. The publisher and a paper producer have entered into an agreement for the publisher to buy and the producer to supply a given quantity of paper four months later at a price agreed upon today. This agreement is a:
a)
A. futures contract.
b)
B. forward contract.
c)
C. commodity swap.
31.
Security market indexes are:
a)
A. constructed and managed like a portfolio of securities.
b)
B. simple interchangeable tools for measuring the returns of different asset classes.
c)
C. valued on a regular basis using the actual market prices of the constituent securities.
32.
Which of the following companies most likely has the greatest ability to quickly increase its capacity?
a)
A. Restaurant.
b)
B. Steel producer.
c)
C. Legal services provider.
33.
A financial analyst is examining whether a country’s financial market is well functioning. She finds that the transaction costs in this market are low and trading volumes are high. She concludes that the market is quite liquid. In such a market:
a)
A. traders will find it hard to make use of their information.
b)
B. traders will find it easy to trade and their trading will make the market less informationally efficient.
c)
C. traders will find it easy to trade and their trading will make the market more informationally efficient.
34.
Which of the following is most likely a reason for using asset-based valuation?
a)
A. The analyst is valuing a privately held company.
b)
B. The company has a relatively high level of intangible assets.
c)
C. The market values of assets and liabilities are different from the balance sheet values.
35.
A European put option on a dividend-paying stock is most likely to increase if there is an increase in:
a)
A. carrying costs.
b)
B. the risk-free rate.
c)
C. dividend payments.
36.
Capricorn Fund of Funds invests GBP 100 million in each of Alpha Hedge Fund and ABC Hedge Fund. Capricorn FOF has a “1 and 10” fee structure. Management fees and incentive fees are calculated independently at the end of each year. After one year, net of their respective management and incentive fees, the investment in Alpha is valued at GBP80 million and the investment in ABC is valued at GBP140 million. The annual return to an investor in Capricorn, net of fees assessed at the fund of funds level, is closest to:
a)
A. 7.9%.
b)
B. 8.0%.
c)
C. 8.1%.
37.
An investor who has positions in multiple long–short equity hedge funds and is concerned about whether these positions are sufficiently diversified will mostly likely be concerned about the lack of:
a)
A. transparency in reported positions.
b)
B. frequent independent valuations.
c)
C. liquidity in the underlying assets.
38.
A basket of listed depository receipts, or an exchange-traded fund, would most likely be used for:
a)
A. gaining exposure to a single equity.
b)
B. hedging exposure to a single equity.
c)
C. gaining exposure to multiple equities.
39.
An analyst has determined that the appropriate EV/EBITDA for Rainbow Company is 10.2. The analyst has also collected the following forecasted information for Rainbow Company: <br /><br />EBITDA = $22,000,000 <br />Market value of debt = $56,000,000 <br />Cash = $1,500,000 <br />The value of equity for Rainbow Company is closest to:
a)
A. $169 million.
b)
B. $224 million.
c)
C. $281 million.
40.
a)
A. 4.21%.
b)
B. 3.64%.
c)
C. 2.10%.
41.
An investor in a private equity fund is concerned that the general partner can receive incentive fees in excess of the agreed-on incentive fees by making distributions over time based on profits earned rather than making distributions only at exit from investments of the fund. Which of the following is most likey to protect the investor from the general partner receiving excess fees?
a)
A. A high hurdle rate
b)
B. A clawback provision
c)
C. A lower capital commitment
42.
Which of the following statements about private equity securities is incorrect?
a)
A. They cannot be sold on secondary markets.
b)
B. They have market-determined quoted prices.
c)
C. They are primarily issued to institutional investors.
43.
a)
A. $34.62.
b)
B. $37.94.
c)
C. $41.90.
44.
The most likely impact of adding commodities to a portfolio of equities and bonds is to:
a)
A. increase risk.
b)
B. provide higher current income.
c)
C. reduce exposure to inflation.
45.
A private equity fund desiring to realize an immediate and complete cash exit from a portfolio company is most likely to pursue a(n):
a)
A. IPO.
b)
B. trade sale.
c)
C. recapitalization.
46.
The value of a European call option at expiration is the greater of zero or the:
a)
A. value of the underlying.
b)
B. value of the underlying minus the exercise price.
c)
C. exercise price minus the value of the underlying.
47.
a)
A. 1.18%.
b)
B. 1.94%.
c)
C. 2.28%.
48.
A credit analyst is evaluating the credit worthiness of three companies: a construction company, a travel and tourism company, and a beverage company. Both the construction and travel and tourism companies are cyclical, whereas the beverage company is non-cyclical. The construction company has the highest debt level of the three companies. The highest credit risk is most likely exhibited by the:
a)
A. construction company.
b)
B. beverage company.
c)
C. travel and tourism company.
49.
Commodity futures prices are most likely in backwardation when:
a)
A. interest rates are high.
b)
B. storage costs are high.
c)
C. the convenience yield is high.
50.
The buyer of an option has a contingent claim in the sense that the option creates:
a)
A. a right.
b)
B. an obligation.
c)
C. a linear payoff with respect to gains and losses of the underlying.
51.
An arbitrage transaction generates a net inflow of funds:
a)
A. throughout the holding period.
b)
B. at the end of the holding period.
c)
C. at the start of the holding period.
52.
Which of the following statements relating to yield volatility is most accurate? If the term structure of yield volatility is downward sloping, then:
a)
A. short-term rates are higher than long-term rates.
b)
B. long-term yields are more stable than short-term yields.
c)
C. short-term bonds will always experience greater price fluctuation than long-term bonds.
53.
An analyst is attempting to calculate the intrinsic value of a company and has gathered the following company data: EBITDA, total market value, and market value of cash and short-term investments, liabilities, and preferred shares. The analyst is least likely to use:
a)
A. a multiplier model.
b)
B. a discounted cash flow model.
c)
C. an asset-based valuation model.
54.
In the context of mortgage-backed securities, a conditional prepayment rate (CPR) of 8% means that approximately 8% of the outstanding mortgage pool balance at the beginning of the year is expected to be prepaid:
a)
A. in the current month.
b)
B. by the end of the year.
c)
C. over the life of the mortgages.
55.
Which of the following statements about Macaulay duration is correct?
a)
A. A bond’s coupon rate and Macaulay duration are positively related.
b)
B. A bond’s Macaulay duration is inversely related to its yield-to-maturity.
c)
C. The Macaulay duration of a zero-coupon bond is less than its time-to-maturity.
56.
High-water marks are typically used when calculating the incentive fee on hedge funds. They are most likely used by clients to:
a)
A. avoid prime brokerage fees.
b)
B. avoid paying twice for the same performance.
c)
C. claw back the management fees.
57.
The convexity of putable bonds is:
a)
A. always positive.
b)
B. negative for a decrease in yield.
c)
C. negative for an increase in yield.
58.
Which of these is best classified as a forward commitment?
a)
A. A convertible bond
b)
B. A call option
c)
C. A swap agreement
59.
A swap that involves the exchange of a fixed payment for a floating payment can be interpreted as a series of forward contracts with different expiration dates. These implied forward contracts will most likely have:
a)
A. different prices due to differences in the price of the underlying at expiration.
b)
B. identical prices.
c)
C. different prices due to differences in the cost of carry.
60.
Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning a short position of 100 shares of a stock at $50 per share?
a)
A. Maximum loss of $5,000
b)
B. Maximum gain of $5,000
c)
C. Unlimited maximum gain
61.
The Beasley Corporation has just paid a dividend of $1.75 per share. If the required rate of return is 12.3 percent per year and dividends are expected to grow indefinitely at a constant rate of 9.2 percent per year, the intrinsic value of Beasley Corporation stock is closest to:
a)
A. $15.54.
b)
B. $56.45.
c)
C. $61.65.
62.
The “second-order” effect on a bond’s percentage price change given a change in yield-to-maturity can be best described as:
a)
A. duration.
b)
B. convexity.
c)
C. yield volatility.
63.
An investment has an outlay of 100 and after-tax cash flows of 40 annually for four years. A project enhancement increases the outlay by 15 and the annual after-tax cash flows by 5. As a result, the vertical intercept of the NPV profile of the enhanced project shifts:
a)
A. up and the horizontal intercept shifts left.
b)
B. up and the horizontal intercept shifts right.
c)
C. down and the horizontal intercept shifts left.
64.
a)
A. Line of credit.
b)
B. Banker’s acceptance.
c)
C. Commercial paper.
65.
When dealing with mutually exclusive projects, the most reliable decision rule is:
a)
A. time-weighted rate of return.
b)
B. IRR.
c)
C. NPV.
66.
Based on good corporate governance practices, independent board members most likely:
a)
A. are pre-approved by management before being nominated.
b)
B. have a “lead” director when the board chair is not independent.
c)
C. hold large equity positions but have never worked at the company.
67.
The cost of which source of capital most likely requires adjustment for taxes in the calculation of a firm’s weighted average cost of capital?
a)
A. Common stock
b)
B. Preferred stock
c)
C. Bonds
68.
With respect to the mean–variance portfolio theory, the capital allocation line, CAL, is the combination of the risk-free asset and a portfolio of all:
a)
A. risky assets.
b)
B. equity securities.
c)
C. feasible investments.
69.
a)
A. 42.0 days.
b)
B. 47.9 days.
c)
C. 75.7 days.
70.
With respect to the capital asset pricing model, which of the following values of beta for an asset is most likely to have an expected return for the asset that is less than the risk-free rate?
a)
A. −0.5
b)
B. 0.0
c)
C. 0.5
71.
The cost of debt can be determined using the yield-to-maturity and the bond rating approaches. If the bond rating approach is used, the:
a)
A. coupon is the yield.
b)
B. yield is based on the interest coverage ratio.
c)
C. company is rated and the rating can be used to assess the credit default spread of the company's debt.
72.
Kim Corporation is considering an investment of 750 million won with expected after-tax cash inflows of 175 million won per year for seven years. The required rate of return is 10 percent. Expressed in years, the project’s payback period and discounted payback period, respectively, are closest to:
a)
A. 4.3 years and 5.4 years.
b)
B. 4.3 years and 5.9 years.
c)
C. 4.8 years and 6.3 years.
73.
Bollinger Bands are constructed by plotting:
a)
A. a MACD line and a signal line.
b)
B. a moving-average line with an uptrend line above and downtrend line below.
c)
C. a moving-average line with upper and lower lines that are at a set number of standard deviations apart.
74.
When two mutually exclusive projects with conventional cash flows are being ranked, the net present value (NPV) and internal rate of return (IRR) decision rules are most likely to conflict when the:
a)
A. projects’ investments are of different scale.
b)
B. projects have multiple IRRs.
c)
C. projects have similar timing of cash flows.
75.
a)
A. −4.
b)
B. 0.
c)
C. 4.
76.
Using the dividend discount model, what is the cost of equity capital for Zeller Mining if the company will pay a dividend of C$2.30 next year, has a payout ratio of 30 percent, a return on equity (ROE) of 15 percent, and a stock price of C$45?
a)
A. 9.61 percent.
b)
B. 10.50 percent.
c)
C. 15.61 percent.
77.
The annualized return for an investor who has achieved a return of 5% over a six-week period is closest to:
a)
A. 43.33%.
b)
B. 52.63%.
c)
C. 54.24%.
78.
a)
A. Security 1.
b)
B. Security 2.
c)
C. Security 3.
79.
When considering two mutually exclusive capital budgeting projects with conflicting rankings—one has a higher positive net present value (NPV), the other has a higher internal rate of return (IRR)—the most appropriate conclusion is to choose the project with the:
a)
A. higher NPV.
b)
B. higher IRR.
c)
C. shorter payback.
80.
Which of the following statements is the most accurate description concerning the internal rate of return (IRR) method? IRR:
a)
A. is the preferred method for evaluating mutually exclusive projects.
b)
B. assumes that all cash flows from a project will be reinvested at the computed IRR.
c)
C. is sensitive to changes in the firm’s weighted average cost of capital.
81.
Which of the following performance measures is most appropriate for an investor who is not fully diversified?
a)
A. M-squared.
b)
B. Treynor ratio.
c)
C. Jensen’s alpha.
82.
With respect to return-generating models, the slope term of the market model is an estimate of the asset’s:
a)
A. total risk.
b)
B. systematic risk.
c)
C. nonsystematic risk.
83.
A risk metric that measures how different an actual investment outcome could be from what the investor expects is most likely a:
a)
A. vega.
b)
B. duration.
c)
C. standard deviation.
84.
An investment of $150,000 is expected to generate an after-tax cash flow of $100,000 in one year and another $120,000 in two years. The cost of capital is 10 percent. What is the internal rate of return?
a)
A. 28.39 percent.
b)
B. 28.59 percent.
c)
C. 28.79 percent.
85.
a)
A. low ability to take risk, but a high willingness to take risk.
b)
B. high ability to take risk, but a low willingness to take risk.
c)
C. high ability to take risk and a high willingness to take risk.
86.
Analysts who have estimated returns of an asset to be greater than the expected returns generated by the capital asset pricing model should consider the asset to be:
a)
A. overvalued.
b)
B. undervalued.
c)
C. properly valued.
87.
What is a major problem with long-term cycle theories?
a)
A. The sample size is small.
b)
B. The data are usually hard to observe.
c)
C. They occur over such a long period that they are difficult to discern.
88.
A client who is a 34-year old widow with two healthy young children (aged 5 and 7) has asked you to help her form an investment policy statement. She has been employed as an administrative assistant in a bureau of her national government for the previous 12 years. She has two primary financial goals—her retirement and providing for the college education of her children. This client’s time horizon is best described as being:
a)
A. long term.
b)
B. short term.
c)
C. medium term.
89.
The slope of the security characteristic line is an asset’s:
a)
A. beta.
b)
B. excess return.
c)
C. risk premium.
90.
Suppose a company uses trade credit with the terms of 2/10, net 50. If the company pays its account on the 50th day, the effective borrowing cost of skipping the discount on day 10 is closest to:
a)
A. 14.9%.
b)
B. 15.0%.
c)
C. 20.2%.