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Pathophysiology Exam 1 (Neuro Review)

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are major sensory pathways? Select all that apply

a)

Corticospinal tract

b)

Extrapyramidal tract

c)

Spinothalamic tract

d)

Dorsal column system

2.

Which of the following are considered motor pathways? Select all that apply

a)

Corticospinal tract

b)

Extrapyramidal tract

c)

Spinothalamic tract

d)

Dorsal column system

3.

The dorsal column sensory pathway is responsible for which of the following? Select all that apply

a)

Pain

b)

Proprioception

c)

Temperature

d)

Fine touch

4.

The spinothalamic tract sensory pathway is responsible for which of the following? Select all that apply

a)

Pain

b)

Temperature

c)

Proprioception

5.

Which of the following describes the role of the trigeminal pathway?

a)

Carries somatosensory information from the face, head, mouth, and nasal cavity.

b)

Carries sensory information, like touch and proprioception from the feet.

c)

Carries sensory information, like heat and pressure from the arms.

d)

All of these are correct

6.

Which of the following is the relay center through which sensory nerves transmit signals from the spinal cord and brainstem on the way to the cerebral cortex?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Pons

e)

Pituitary gland

7.

Depolarization of the presynaptic nerve terminal causes opening of the voltage-gated _____ channels, leading to the release of neurotransmitters.

a)

Ca2+

b)

K+

c)

Na+

d)

Cl-

8.

Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential (IPSP) cause which of the following:

a)

Causes the local nerve membrane to become hyperpolarized and less excitable

b)

Decreased internal resistance, which results in faster conduction down the nerve

c)

Causes graded potentials that prematurely propagate down the neuron

d)

Causes depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

9.

An autoimmune disease associated with autoantibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors is -

a)

Lupus Cerebritis

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Cerebral Palsy

d)

Guillain-Barre

10.

The third-order neurons of the spinothalamic tract project their axons to the -

a)

precentral gyrus

b)

postcentral gyrus

c)

thalamus

d)

cerebellum

11.

Which of the following are true when concerning the spinothalamic tract? Select all that apply

a)

Responsible for pain and temperature sensations.

b)

Decussation occurs at the same level where the neuronal information entered the spinal cord.

c)

Decussation occurs in the medulla of the brain stem

d)

It is separated into 2 component tracts, the fasciculus gracilis and the fasciculus cuneatus

e)

Responsible for touch and proprioception.

12.

Which of the following are true when concerning the Dorsal column system? Select all that apply

a)

Responsible for pain and temperature sensations.

b)

Decussation occurs at the same level where the neuronal information entered the spinal cord.

c)

Decussation occurs in the medulla of the brain stem

d)

It is separated into 2 component tracts, the fasciculus gracilis and the fasciculus cuneatus

e)

Responsible for touch and proprioception.

13.

Which of the following are functions of the basal ganglia? (Select all that apply)

a)

Heavily involved in movement

b)

Rugulates inhibition and disinhibition pathways between the thalamus and cerebral cortex

c)

Regulates sensory neurons prior to their synapse on the postcentral gyrus

d)

Involved with cognition and perception

14.

A patient presents c/o "jitters". On exam the patient has involuntary flinging of the limbs and involuntary dance-like movements. Gait is normal. Which of the following regions/areas is most likely affected?

a)

Basal Ganglia

b)

Wernicke's area

c)

Broca's area

d)

Pons

15.

Which of the following is essentialliy involved in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Basal Ganglia

16.

The main sensory nuclei for the Trigeminal nerve, CN V, are loacated in the -

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Thalamus

17.

The resting membrane potential of the neuron is about -

a)

+30 mV

b)

-30 mV

c)

+70 mV

d)

-70 mV

e)

0 mV

18.

One of the most common drug targets found in relatively every cell is the (a)   .

19.

The neurons of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system release ________ from the postganglionic neuron.

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Epi/Norepinephrine

d)

Serotonin

20.

Glutamate is the primary ___(1)___ neurotransmitter in the brain and has been implicated in ___(2)___ . It targets ___(3___.

a)

(1)excitatory (2)Multiple sclerosis (3)GPCR & Ion channels

b)

(1)excitatory (2)Alzheimer's and Parkinson's (3)GPCR & Ion channels

c)

(1) inhibitory (2)Alzheimer's and Parkinson's (3)Ca2+ channels

d)

(1) inhibitory (2)Multiple sclerosis (3)Ca2+ ​channels

21.

___________ is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, but it can also be excitatory depending on what ion channel it binds to.

a)

Glycine

b)

GABA

c)

Glutamate

22.

_________ is the neurotransmitter that is important for reward-related behavior.

a)

Dopamine

b)

GABA

c)

Glycine

d)

Norepinephrine

23.

__________ is predominantly produced in the gut, helps with bowel motility, and has been implicated in several psychological disorders.

a)

NMDA

b)

Glutamate

c)

GABA

d)

Dopamine

e)

Serotonin

24.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in wakefulness, feeding, and motivation and regulates several hypothalamic functions and neuroendocrine responses?

a)

GABA

b)

Histamine

c)

Glycine

d)

Dopamine

25.

Myasthenia gravis and Dementia are primarily treated with inhibitory medications that affect which neurotransmitter?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Histamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

e)

Acetylcholine

26.

Which of the following pathogens can lead to complications associated with meningoencephalitis? select all that apply

a)

Cryptococcus

b)

Acanthamoeba spp

c)

Naegleria fowleri

d)

West Nile Virus

e)

EBV

27.

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is an opportunistic infection caused by _____(1)_______ , leading to _______(2)________.

a)

(1) JC Virus (2) damage to the Schwann cells and axonal shearing.

b)

(1) JC Virus (2) infected oligodendrocytes, demyelination, and extensive white matter lesions.

c)

(1) Polio Virus (2) damage to the Schwann cells and axonal shearing.

d)

(1) Polio Virus (2) infected oligodendrocytes, demyelination, and extensive white matter lesions.

28.

Which of the following are characteristics of Syringomyelia? Select all that apply

a)

Loss of pain and temperature in the upper extremities

b)

Occurs due to the formation of a fluid-filled cavity in the center portion of the spinal cord

c)

Occurs due to demyelination in the peripheral nervous system

d)

Damage to the dorsal column occurs due to the excess CSF in the central canal

29.

Which of the following describes and epidural hematoma: Select all that apply

a)

Typically associated with a skull fracture

b)

Due to a meningeal artery rupture

c)

Causes separation of the dura from the periosteum

d)

Occurs due to traumatic displacement of the brain leading to tears in the veins where they penetrate the dura.

e)

The dura is still attached to the skull

30.

Which of the following describes and subdural hematoma: Select all that apply

a)

Typically associated with a skull fracture

b)

Due to a meningeal artery rupture

c)

Causes separation of the dura from the periosteum

d)

Occurs due to traumatic displacement of the brain leading to tears in the veins where they penetrate the dura.

e)

The dura is still attached to the skull

31.

If a patient presents with clinical stroke symptoms that resolve within 24 hours, the event is termed -

a)

Transient Ischemia

b)

hemorrhagic ischemia

c)

Hypoxic ischemia

d)

Cerebral ischemia

32.

T/F: Lacunar infarcts can be clinically silent or cause severe impairment.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

_____________ is a neurological disease resulting from thiamine (B1) deficiency and is marked by short-term memory disturbances.

a)

Alzheimer's

b)

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

c)

Leigh syndrome

d)

Dementia

e)

Kugelberg-Welander disease

34.

Which illness is charachterized by:

i. Acute onset of macrophages stripping the myelin from the axon

ii. Inflammation of the peripheral nerves

iii. Typically preceded by an infection

a)

Lupus Cerebritis

b)

Myasthenia Gravis

c)

Guillain-Barre

d)

Encephalitis

35.

Which illness is charachterized by:

i. Antibodies against neurons

ii. Proteases and free radicals cause damage to the endothelium of arteries

iii. Causes cerebral vasculitis

a)

Guillain-Barre

b)

Lupus Cerebritis

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Dementia

e)

Meningoencephalitis

36.

The pathologic process that is common across most of the neurodegenerative diseases is:

a)

the lack of/degeneration of dopamine

b)

premature release of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft

c)

the accumulation of protein aggregates

d)

delayed neuronal action potentials

37.

___________________ is/are a rapidly progressive dementia caused by aggregation and intercellular spread of a misfolded mutated PrPSC protein.

a)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome [Prion diseases]

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Parkinson's Disease

e)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

38.

Pathologic hallmarks of _______________, particularly evident in the end stages of the illness, are amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.

a)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome [Prion diseases]

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Parkinson's Disease

e)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

39.

___________________is a neurodegenerative disease marked by a hypokinetic movement disorder that is caused by loss of dopaminergic neurons from the substantia nigra.

a)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome [Prion diseases]

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Parkinson's Disease

e)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

40.

Which illness is characterized by the following?

i. Degeneration of striatal neurons and CAG expansion

ii. Progressive movement disorder and dementia

iii. Jerky, hyperkinetic, sometimes dystonic movements involving all parts of the body (chorea)

iv. Affected individuals may later develop bradykinesia and rigidity.

a)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome [Prion diseases]

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Parkinson's Disease

e)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

41.

When contrasting dementia and delirium, which of the following pertains to delirium:


1. Abrupt onset

2. Impaired attention

3. Duration is months to years

4. Slow declining disorder

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1, 2, and 4

d)

1 and 3

42.

T/F: ALS is a progressive disorder in which there is loss of upper motor neurons in the cerebral cortex and lower motor neurons in the spinal cord and brainstem.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of the following cerebrovascular diseases results from rupture of CNS vessels and has a common etiology that includes hypertension and vascular anomalies?

a)

Ischemic

b)

Hemorrhagic

c)

Thrombotic occlusion

d)

Embolic

44.

The most frequent cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage is -

a)

the rupture of atherosclerotic plaques

b)

the rupture of a saccular aneurysm in a cerebral artery.

c)

pieces of the thrombus break off and travel to smaller vessels and cause ischemia

45.

What is the “at-risk” portion of the brain called surrounding a stroke?

a)

Penumbra

b)

Infarcts

c)

Lesions

d)

Lacunae

e)

Lobar

46.

Spinal cord lesions to LMNs will result in which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Hypertonia

b)

Hypotonia

c)

Flaccid paralysis

d)

Spastic paralysis

47.

Spinal cord lesions to UMNs will result in which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Hypertonia

b)

Hypotonia

c)

Flaccid paralysis

d)

Spastic paralysis

e)

Hyperreflexia

48.

Most patients develop unilateral optic neuritis with visual deficits in (a)   . This is the most common presentation. Neuroimaging shows demylination of the axon.

49.

During an acute meningitis infection, a patient's lab values would consist of decreased glucose levels due to which of the following?

a)

Increased levels of viral load within the cerebrospinal fluid

b)

increased cellular respiration occurring due to the presence of bacteria.

c)

possible decrease in glucose transportation into the CSF due to the mechanisms being impaired by the inflammation.

d)

there is an increased uptake of glucose from the CSF by the glial cells

50.

Neuroimaging was performed for a patient with suspected encephalitis. Visible inflammation of the temporal lobe was noted. Which of the following is most likely the causative agent?

a)

Herpes Simplex

b)

Rabies

c)

Poliomyelitis

d)

HIV

51.

Which of the following soil fungi is worrisome due to its ability to cause infection and destroy healthy tissue? The infection starts in the sinuses and erodes through the bone and tissue.

a)

Candida

b)

Cryptococcus

c)

Blastomyocytes

d)

Histoplasma

e)

Mucor

52.

An action potential that's propagated down a nerve fiber with an increased diameter would have _____(1)_____ internal resistance which means _________ conduction.

a)

(1)Decreased, (2)Faster

b)

(1)Decreased, (2)Slower

c)

(1)Increased, (2)Faster

d)

(1)Increased, (2)Slower

53.

Which of the following cell types is responsible for the myelination of neurons in the central nervous system?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Microglial cells

54.

Which of the following cell types is responsible for the myelination of neurons in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Microglial cells

55.

Which of the following cell types are specialized macrophages within the central nervous system?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Microglial cells

56.

Which of the following cell types is responsible for:


1. Creating tight junctions to control the permeability of the blood-brain barrier

2. Removing excess neurotransmitter (glutamate) from synapses

3. Removes excess K to avoid interference with the action potential

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Microglial cells

57.

Which of the following cells lines the ventricles and responsible for the secretion of CSF?

a)

Microglial cells

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Schwann Cells

e)

Oligodendrocytes

58.

Which of the following is not a component of the CSF?

a)

Protein

b)

Glucose

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Sodium

59.

T/F: Gray matter is composed of nerve cell bodies while white matter is composed of myelinated nerve bundles.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Which of the following is NOT a nuclei within the basal ganglia?

a)

caudate nucleus

b)

substantia nigra

c)

putamen

d)

globus pallidus

e)

hypothalamus

61.

The frontal lobe is mostly responsible for ____________.

a)

Intellect and personality

b)

Speech

c)

Motor functions

d)

Vision

e)

Memory

62.

An infarct that affects__________ area leads to nonaffluent aphasia where the patient understands the conversation but can't find the proper words to relay their message.

a)

Broca's

b)

Wernicke's

63.

"Hello Bill! How are you feeling today?"


"Well the water fountains are looking pretty nice and the cats need to fly to San Francisco."


This is an example of:

a)

Wernicke's Aphasia

b)

Broca's Aphasia