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Basic Path Quiz 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A term used to describe an elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels and related decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is?

a)

Azotemia

b)

Uremia

c)

Nephronophthisis

d)

Hyalinosis

2.

Prerenal azotemia is a result of?

a)

Hyperperfusion of the kidneys

b)

Hypoperfusion of the kidneys

c)

Urine flow obstructed distal to the kidney

d)

A gut punch

3.

Postrenal azotemia is a result of?

a)

Hyperperfusion of the kidneys

b)

Hypoperfusion of the kidneys

c)

Urine flow obstructed distal to the kidney

d)

A gut punch

4.

Raised levels of urea and other nitrogenous waste compounds in the blood normally eliminated by the kidneys is called?

a)

Azotemia

b)

Uremia

c)

Nephronophthisis

d)

Hyalinosis

5.

Some of the risk factors common to acute and chronic injury are?

a)

Age and race

b)

Metabolic syndromes

c)

Genetic factors

d)

Hypertension

e)

Diabetes Mellitus

6.

Some of the modifiers of acute and chronic kidney disease are?

a)

Severity of the renal injury

b)

Stage of the chronic injury

c)

Number of episodes of injury

d)

Duration of the injury

e)

Presence of protein in the urine

7.

To classify a patient as having chronic renal injury, how long must there be a decrease in GFR?

a)

1 month

b)

2 months

c)

3 months

d)

4 months

8.

In end stage renal failure (ESRF) the GFR is?

a)

less than 5%

b)

less than 10%

c)

less than 15%

d)

less than 20%

9.

Some of the systemic manifestations of chronic kidney disease and uremia are?

a)

Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

b)

Calcium phosphate and bone changes

c)

Hematologic and Skin changes

d)

Cardiopulmonary pathology

e)

GI and neuromuscular effects

10.

What are the three categories of glomerular disease?

a)

Primary glomerulopathies

b)

Systemic diseases with glomerular involvement

c)

Hereditary disorders

d)

Congenital defects

11.

What are the broad pathologic responses of the glomerulus to injury?

a)

Hypercellularity

b)

Basement membrane thickening

c)

Hyalinosis

d)

Sclerosis

12.

Of the broad pathologic responses of the glomerulus to injury, which is the only response that happens in the acute phase?

a)

Hypercellularity

b)

Basement membrane thickening

c)

Hyalinosis

d)

Sclerosis

13.

What are the categories of glomerular syndromes?

a)

Nephritic syndrome

b)

Rapid progressive glomerulonephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Chronic renal failure

e)

Isolated urine abnormalities

14.

A glomerulonephritis characterized by inflammation and thinning of the glomerular basement membrane and the occurrence of small pores in the podocytes of the glomerulus, which commonly presents with hematuria, hypertension and oliguria is?

a)

Nephritic syndrome

b)

Rapid progressive glomerulonephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Chronic renal failure

e)

Isolated urine abnormalities

15.

An acute nephritic syndrome characterized by a rapid loss of kidney function, that usually has a 50% decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) within 3 months, crescent formation, and typically no evidence of hypertension?

a)

Nephritic syndrome

b)

Rapid progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Chronic renal failure

e)

Isolated urine abnormalities

16.

_____ or more layers of proliferating cells in Bowman's capsule are a histological marker of severe glomerular injury and a hallmark of inflammatory glomerulonephritis

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

17.

Injury to the glomerulus which results in abnormal filtration leading to extensive proteinuria, edema, and metabolic disturbances with a clinical presentation of hematuria and hypertension is?

a)

Nephritic syndrome

b)

Rapid progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Chronic renal failure

e)

Isolated urine abnormalities

18.

The most common primary cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is?

a)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FGGS)

b)

Diabetes

c)

Lupus

d)

NSAIDS or certain antibiotics

e)

Infections

19.

The most common primary cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is?

a)

Minimal change disease/loss of large amounts of protein

b)

Diabetes

c)

Lupus

d)

NSAIDS or certain antibiotics

e)

Infections

20.

The second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and adults is?

a)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FGGS)

b)

Diabetes

c)

Lupus

d)

NSAIDS or certain antibiotics

e)

Infections

21.

Risk factors for nephrotic syndrome include?

a)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FGGS)

b)

Diabetes

c)

Lupus

d)

NSAIDS or certain antibiotics

e)

Infections

22.

Risk factors for chronic renal failure include?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Family history of kidney failure

d)

Ethnicity and race

e)

Age

23.

Two thirds of the patients with chronic renal failure have what two common clinical findings?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

24.

The two most commonly associated systemic diseases associated with glomerular lesions are?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Lupus

25.

Clinical manifestations of Lupus Nephritis are?

a)

Nephritic syndrome

b)

Rapid progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Recurrent microscopic or gross hematuria

e)

Hypertension and Acute and Chronic renal failure

26.

A childhood syndrome with purpuric skin lesions, abdominal pain and intestinal bleeding, and arthralgias along with renal abnormalities most common in the 3-8 age group is?

H (a)   -Schonlein Purpura

27.

A glomerulonephritis that displays fibrillar deposits in the mesangium and glomerular capillary walls that resemble amyloid fibril is?

a)

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

b)

Diabetic neuropathy

c)

Goodpasture syndrome

d)

Fibrillary glomerulonephritis

28.

What is the mechanism of bacterial endocarditis renal injury?

a)

Bacterial deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli

b)

Renal infarction from septic emboli

c)

Secondary renal cortical necrosis

d)

Possible drug induced acute interstitial nephritis or acute kidney injury as a result of treating the infection

29.

What is the mechanism of diabetes in renal injury?

a)

High sugar levels in the blood can cause these vessels to become narrow and clogged, damaging the kidney glomerulus, such that albumin passes through and ends up in the urine (proteinuria)

b)

High sugar levels may damage the nerves to the bladder and a person may not recognize their bladder is full, causing pressure that impacts the kidneys

c)

Stagnant urine in the bladder high in glucose is a breeding ground for bacteria

d)

Bacterial deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli

30.

What is the mechanism of autoimmune diseases and immune complex disorders in renal injury?

a)

The glomerular, tubular and vascular structures are targeted and damaged as a consequence of autoimmune processes

b)

The function of the glomerulus makes non-renal autoantigens a target due to high flow, high-pressure perm-selective filtration

c)

Antibodies or antigen-antibody complexes that reside outside the kidney lodge in the small vessels of the glomeruli

d)

The inflammatory response leads to further damage

31.

The two major pathologic processes of tubular and interstitial diseases of the kidney are?

a)

Dilation of the vascular poles

b)

Ischemic or toxic tubular injury

c)

Inflammatory reactions of the tubules and interstitium

32.

Acute _______ injury causes acute renal failure, specifically ______ damage that often causes necrosis of ______ epithelial cells. (One word)

(a)  

33.

Causes of Acute Tubular Injury (ATI) or Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) are?

a)

Ischemia, due to decreased or interrupted blood flow

b)

Direct toxic injury to the tubules by endogenous or exogenous agents

c)

Cyanosis, due to decreased or interrupted blood flow

d)

Indirect toxic injury to the tubules by endogenous or exogenous agents

34.

A normal GFR of an adult is?

a)

greater than 40%

b)

greater than 50%

c)

greater than 80%

d)

greater than 90%

35.

What is the percent of high-grade infiltrating Urothelial Carcinomas of the Renal Pelvis that reach five-year survival?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

60%

d)

90%

36.

What percentage of primary renal tumors originate from the urothelium of the renal pelvis?

a)

5-10%

b)

10-15%

c)

15-20%

d)

20-25%

37.

Common clinical features of Renal Cell Carcinoma such as costovertebral pain, a palpable mass, and hematuria present how often in these patients?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

60%

d)

90%

38.

What benign renal tumor is composed of large eosinophilic cells having small, round nuclei?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

39.

What type of Renal Cell Carcinoma is made up of primarily eosinophilic cells with a perinuclear halo?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

40.

Which type of renal cell carcinoma typically arises from the distal convoluted tubule epithelium?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

41.

Which type of renal cell carcinoma typically arises from the proximal convoluted tubule epithelium?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

42.

What autosomal dominant syndrome (usually occurs in younger individuals) has a higher risk of developing familial cancers such as kidney tumors?

a)

Lynch syndrome

b)

Von Hippel-Lingau (VHL) syndrome

c)

Goodpasture syndrome

d)

Cushing's disease

43.

What percent of patients with Renal Cell Carcinoma have metastasis at the time of diagnosis?

a)

75%

b)

30%

c)

25%

d)

90%

44.

Renal Cell Carcinoma tends to invade what structure?

a)

Renal vein

b)

Renal artery

c)

Ureter

45.

What histologic variant has the worst prognosis?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

46.

What is the most common type of Renal Cell Carcinoma?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

47.

List the major types of Renal Cell Carcinoma

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

48.

The classification of renal cell carcinoma is based on what three criteria?

a)

Histology

b)

Gross appearance

c)

Cytogenetics

d)

Genetics

49.

What is the number one risk factor for Renal Cell Carcinoma?

a)

Alcohol use

b)

Opioid use

c)

Tobacco use

d)

NSAIDs

50.

The most common malignant neoplasm of the kidney found in children is?

W (a)   tumor

51.

A mahogany colored benign renal tumor that often has a central scar is?

a)

Oncocytoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

52.

Angiomyolipomas can be clinically important because they can cause?

a)

Spontaneous hemorrhage

b)

Spontaneous scarring

c)

Spontaneous necrosis

d)

Spontaneous clotting

53.

What percentage of patients with tuberous sclerosis have angiomyolipomas?

a)

5-10%

b)

10-15%

c)

25-30%

d)

20-25%

54.

A small (1.5 cm) well circumscribed pale tumor arising from the renal tubular epithelium histologically presenting with tubular or papillary forms often found on autopsy as an incidental finding is?

a)

Renal papillary adenoma

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Papillary carcinoma

d)

Clear cell carcinoma

e)

Sarcomatoid carcinoma

55.

Branched stones that fill all or part of the renal pelvis and branch into several or all of the calyces commonly from struvite or calcium are referred to as?

a)

Fraggle rock

b)

Staghorn calculus

c)

Sticky calculus

d)

Trabeculated calculi

56.

The most common constituent (type) of renal calculi are?

a)

Calcium

b)

Struvite

c)

Uric acid

d)

Cystine

e)

Cholesterol

57.

What are the main types of renal calculi?

a)

Calcium

b)

Struvite

c)

Uric acid

d)

Cystine

e)

Cholesterol

58.

A rapid onset of hydronephrosis that results in oliguria or anuria and post obstructive diuresis is consistent with a complete b (a)   obstruction.

59.

What are some of the symptoms of hydronephrosis resulting from bilateral partial obstruction?

a)

Distal tubular acidosis

b)

Renal salt wasting (excrete excessive sodium)

c)

Secondary renal calculi

d)

Chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis with scarring and atrophy of the papilla and medulla

e)

Hypertension

60.

Severe hydronephrosis can lead to what pathologic findings in the kidney?

a)

Thin-walled cystic kidney (15-20 cm diameter)

b)

Striking parenchymal atrophy

c)

Total obliteration of the pyramids

d)

Thinning of the cortex

61.

Common extrinsic lesions causing urinary obstruction are?

a)

Tumor outside the kidney

b)

Botched surgery

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Peritoneal fibrosis

e)

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

62.

Common intrinsic lesions causing urinary obstruction are?

a)

Calculi

b)

Tumor within the kidney

c)

Clots

d)

Sloughed papillae

e)

Inflammation

63.

Common clinical complications of urinary obstructions include?

a)

Increases susceptibility to infection

b)

Stone formation

c)

Hydronephrosis

d)

Obstructive uropathy

e)

Jaundice

64.

A renal cortical cyst that presents radiographically as renal cysts having smooth contours, is avascular and gives fluid signals rather than solid signals on ultrasonography is consistent with?

a)

Simple cortical cyst

b)

Oncocytoma

c)

Multicystic renal dysplasia

d)

Nephronohthisis

65.

Dialysis-Associated Cystic Disease presents what risk for Renal Cell Carcinoma?

a)

40-50 fold risk over time

b)

22-30 fold risk over time

c)

83-92 fold risk over time

d)

12-18 fold risk over time

66.

An enlarged, extremely irregular, and multicystic kidney associated with ureteropelvic obstruction, ureteral agenesis or atresia, and other anomalies of the lower urinary tract is most consistent with?

a)

Simple cortical cyst

b)

Oncocytoma

c)

Multicystic renal dysplasia

d)

Nephronohthisis

67.

Children or adolescents presenting with otherwise unexplained chronic renal failure, a positive family history of renal failure, and chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis on biopsy should be worked up for what disease?

a)

Simple cortical cyst

b)

Oncocytoma

c)

Multicystic renal dysplasia

d)

Nephronohthisis

68.

The most common genetic cause of end-stage renal disease in children and young adults is?

a)

nephronophthisis complex

b)

nephritic complex

c)

nephrotic complex

69.

The most common variant of the nephronophthisis disease complex is?

_____ _______ nephronophthisis

a)

Familial juvenile

b)

Familial advanced

c)

Inherited juvenile

d)

Inherited adult

70.

Nephronophthisis occurs in what age group?

a)

0 to 10

b)

10 to 20

c)

20 to 30

d)

30 to 40

71.

How does medullary sponge kidney affect renal function?

a)

Increases GFR

b)

Decreases GFR

c)

Unaffected

72.

In medullary sponge kidney, small cysts develop where in the kidney?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting duct

73.

The three main types of cystic diseases identified in the renal medulla are?

a)

Medullary sponge kidney

b)

Nephronophthisis

c)

Adult-onset medullary cystic disease

d)

Multicystic Renal Dysplasia

74.

The two most common presentations of Autosomal Recessive (Childhood) Polycystic Kidney Disease have a high probability of developing what condition later in life?

a)

Periportal fibrosis

b)

Portal hypertension

c)

Splenomegaly

d)

Congenital hepatic fibrosis

e)

Pulmonary hypertension

75.

What are some of the extrarenal congenital anomalies associated with APKD?

a)

Polycystic liver disease

b)

Cysts in the spleen, pancreas, and lungs

c)

Berry aneurysms

d)

Mitral valve prolapse

e)

Coarctation of the aorta

76.

What individuals have an increased risk for progression of Polycystic Kidney Disease?

a)

Hypertensive

b)

African Americans

c)

Males

d)

Females

e)

Carriers of sickle cell

77.

Hereditary disorder of adults characterized by multiple expanding cysts of both kidneys that ultimately destroy the renal parenchyma and cause renal failure is consistent with?

a)

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

b)

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

c)

Acquired polycystic kidney disease

d)

Congenital polycystic kidney disease

78.

90% of the cases of the fusion of a horseshoe kidney typically is in the upper or lower poles?

a)

Upper

b)

Lower

79.

Ectopic kidneys may have what complications?

a)

Increased risk of viral infections

b)

Increased risk of bacterial infections

c)

Kinking or tortuosity of the ureters

d)

Obstruction to urinary flow

80.

A fetus born without development of the kidney is said to have renal?

a)

Aplasia

b)

Dysplasia

c)

Agenesis

d)

Metaplasia

81.

Defects associated with congenital anomalies are divided into what two groups?

a)

Structural abnormalities in the adrenal glands

b)

Structural abnormalities in kidney or urinary tract

c)

Functional abnormalities in tubular transport

d)

Functional abnormalities in the renal capsule

82.

A congenital anomaly of the kidney that refers to a smaller than normal size kidney is called?

a)

Aplasia

b)

Dysplasia

c)

Hypoplasia

d)

Metaplasia

83.

A congenital anomaly of the kidney that presents as a complete or incomplete malformation of kidney is referred to broadly as?

a)

Aplasia

b)

Renal Dysplasia

c)

Hypoplasia

d)

Metaplasia

e)

Agenesis

84.

Intrarenal reflux is most common where in the kidney, due to the fact that the papillae are flattened or have concave tips rather than the convex pointed type?

Upper and lower (a)   of the kidney

85.

Examples of vesicoureteral reflux are?

a)

Congenital absence or shortening of the intravesical portion of the ureter prevents ureter from being compressed during micturition

b)

Congenital lengthening of the intravesical portion of the ureter prevents ureter from being compressed during micturition

c)

Bacteria themselves or the associated inflammation can promote reflux by affecting ureteral contractility

d)

Acquired vesicoureteral reflux can occur from spinal cord injury

86.

Examples of neurogenic bladder dysfunction causing urinary retention are?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Ureteral metaplasia

c)

Spinal cord injury

d)

Fibrotic scarring of the bladder

87.

Examples of urinary bladder obstruction are?

a)

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

b)

Tumors

c)

Waxy casts

d)

Calculi

88.

What are the three mechanisms by which microbes move from the bladder to the kidneys?

a)

Peritoneal abscess

b)

Urinary tract obstruction and stasis of urine

c)

Vesicoureteral reflux

d)

Intrarenal reflux

89.

What are the stages of a UTI?

a)

Colonization of bacteria

b)

Uroepithelium penetration and bacterial replication

c)

The bacteria ascend through the ureters towards the kidney

d)

Infection ensures (pyelonephritis)

e)

Bacteria cascade up the the kidney causing acute kidney injury

90.

What are the two main methods bacteria infect the kidney?

a)

Hematogenous infection

b)

Lymphatic infection

c)

Ascending infection

91.

What type of viral infections are common in the kidney of immunocompromised patients?

a)

Polyomavirus

b)

Cytomegalovirus

c)

Coronavirus

d)

Adenovirus

92.

The most common organisms identified in an upper urinary track infection is?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

S. aureus

c)

S. epidermidis

d)

E. coli

93.

Chronic Tubulointerstitial Nephritis presents with?

a)

Tubular injury

b)

An infiltration of mononuclear leukocytes

c)

Prominent interstitial fibrosis

d)

Widespread tubular atrophy

e)

Interstitial edema

94.

Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis presents as rapid onset of what symptoms?

a)

Tubular injury

b)

An infiltration of mononuclear leukocytes

c)

Often accompanied by leukocytic infiltration of the interstitium and tubules

d)

Widespread tubular atrophy

e)

Interstitial edema

95.

What differentiates Tubulointerstitial Nephritis from other kidney diseases?

a)

The absence of nephritic or nephrotic syndrome

b)

The presence of nephritic or nephrotic syndrome

c)

The presence of blood in the urine

d)

The presence of defects in tubular function (polyuria, nocturia, metabolic acidosis as a result of decreased ability to excrete acids)

96.

Tubulointerstitial Nephritis is a group of renal diseases that cause what type of injury to the kidney?

a)

Inflammatory injuries of the tubules and interstitium

b)

Malignancies of the tubules and interstitium

c)

Inflammatory injuries of the renal capsule

d)

Malignancies of the renal capsule

97.

Severe breakdown of muscle is called Rhabdomyolysis and can result in what pathology in the kidney?

a)

Acute renal failure

b)

Chronic renal failure

98.

Waxy casts in the urine are associated with what pathology?

a)

Advanced liver disease

b)

Clear cell carcinoma

c)

Elevated GFR

d)

Advanced kidney disease

99.

Renal tubular epithelial cell casts found in the urine are indicative of?

a)

Damage to the tubule cells

b)

Renal tubular necrosis

c)

Viral disease

d)

Kidney transplant rejection

100.

Toxic injury or ischemia to the tubular cells of the kidney cause the cells to slough and result in what potential event in the tubules?

O (a)   of the tubules