wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Perf 201-300

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?

a)

Weight and drag only.

b)

Weight and thrust only.

c)

Weight, drag and thrust.

d)

Thrust and drag only.

2.

A clearway:

a)

provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off to the required height.

b)

need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with which it is associated.

c)

may be water.

d)

all of the above.

3.

Relative to the ground a headwind___ the effective climb angle and a tailwind ___ the effective climb angle.

a)

increases; decreases

b)

decreases; increases

c)

increases; increases

d)

decreases; decreases

4.

Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude?

a)

When the altimeter has no position error.

b)

At sea level when the temperature is 0˚C.

c)

At standard temperature.

d)

When the altimeter setting is 1 013,2 hPa.

5.

A higher outside air temperature:

a)

does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

b)

increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

c)

reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

d)

reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

6.

The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum:

a)

is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.

b)

is always higher than the minimum drag speed.

c)

is always lower than the minimum drag speed.

d)

is the same as the minimum drag speed.

7.

Density altitude is:

a)

The height above mean sea level corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density.

b)

The pressure altitude corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density.

c)

The height above mean sea level corrected for the ISA atmospheric density.

d)

The pressure altitude corrected for ISA atmospheric density.

8.

An aircraft is operating at the optimum glide speed. When mass decreases what happens to the glide angle and rate of descent (maintaining optimum glide speed)?

a)

The glide angle decreases and the rate of descent is unchanged.

b)

The glide angle is unchanged and the rate of descent decreases.

c)

The glide angle decreases and the rate of descent decreases.

d)

Both the glide angle and rate of descent are unchanged.

9.

Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load, are in a glide descent from the same height in the same atmospheric conditions. The heavy aircraft will:

a)

require a faster speed to achieve the same descent angle as the lighter aircraft.

b)

descend at the same angle with the same time in the descent but at a faster speed.

c)

descend steeper, at a faster speed with a greater rate of descent.

d)

descend at a steeper angle at a faster speed at the same rate of descent.

10.

At a higher gross mass on a piston-engined aeroplane, in order to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude:

a)

the lift/drag ratio must be increased.

b)

the airspeed must be increased and the drag will remain unchanged.

c)

the airspeed must be increased and the drag will also increase.

d)

the airspeed must be decreased and the drag will increase.

11.

The take-off distance available is:

a)

the roral runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

b)

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.

c)

the runway length minus stopway.

d)

the runway length plus half of the clearway.

12.

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

a)

a reduced rake-off distance and improved initial climb performance.

b)

an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.

c)

an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance.

d)

a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.

13.

Uphill slope:

a)

increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.

b)

decreases the accelerate stop distance only.

c)

decreases the take-off distance only.

d)

increases the allowed take-off mass.

14.

As speed is reduced from VMD to VMP:

a)

power required decreases, drag increases.

b)

power required decreases, drag decreases.

c)

power required increases, drag increases.

d)

power required increases, drag decreases.

15.

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on

a)

the bank angle only.

b)

the radius of the turn and the bank angle.

c)

the true airspeed and the bank angle.

d)

the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

16.

The region of speed instability is:

a)

the region above the thrust available and drag curve intersection.

b)

the region in which manual control is not possible.

c)

at speeds below the low-speed buffet.

d)

the same as the region of reversed command.

17.

Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:

a)

maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.

b)

holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.

c)

maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.

d)

maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.

18.

The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:

a)

the maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.

b)

the maximum range for a jet aeroplane.

c)

the maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.

d)

the maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

19.

The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of additional pieces of baggage will cause the climb performance to be:

a)

unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted.

b)

improved.

c)

unchanged.

d)

degraded.

20.

Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?

a)

Decrease of aircraft mass.

b)

Increase of aircraft mass.

c)

Tailwind.

d)

Headwind.

21.

How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.)

a)

The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

b)

The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.

c)

The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.

d)

Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

22.

In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?

a)

In a descent with constant TAS.

b)

In accelerated level flight.

c)

In a climb with constant lAS.

d)

In level flight with constant lAS.

23.

In a glide the maximum range will be obtained by flying at:

a)

VNE.

b)

a speed close to the stalling speed.

c)

VMD.

d)

VMO/MMO.

24.

Considering TAS For maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:

a)

TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.

b)

both will decrease with increasing altitude.

c)

both will stay constant regardless of altitude.

d)

both will increase with increasing altitude.

25.

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:

a)

take-off run available.

b)

take-off distance available.

c)

landing distance available.

d)

accelerate-stop distance available.

26.

Besides lift, the forces that determine the gradient of climb of an aeroplane are:

a)

Weight and drag only.

b)

Weight, drag and thrust.

c)

Thrust and drag only.

d)

Weight and thrust only.

27.

The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:

a)

decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.

b)

increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.

c)

increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.

d)

is independent of altitude.

28.

You are flying a transport jet aeroplane at minimum drag speed (VMD) of 230 kts. What would be the speed for maximum range?

a)

230 kts

b)

250 kts

c)

304 kts

d)

315 kts

29.

In a power-off glide in still air, to obtain the maximum glide range, the aircraft should be flown:

a)

at a speed corresponding to the maximum lift-to-drag ratio.

b)

at a speed close to the stall.

c)

at a speed corresponding to the minimum drag coefficient.

d)

at a speed close to VNE.

30.

The theoretical best range speed for a jet aircraft at low level is:

a)

approximately 1.32 times the minimum drag speed.

b)

the minimum drag speed.

c)

the same as for a propeller aircraft.

d)

the minimum power speed.

31.

For an aircraft gliding at its best glide range speed, if A of A is reduced:

a)

glide distance will increase.

b)

glide distance will remain unaffected.

c)

glide distance will decrease.

d)

glide distance will remain constant, if speed is increased.

32.

Density altitude is the:

a)

pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature.

b)

altitude reference to the standard datum plane.

c)

altitude read directly from the altimeter.

d)

height above the surface.

33.

The Density Altitude:

a)

is used to establish minimum clearance of 2 000 feet over mountains.

b)

is equal to the pressure altitude.

c)

is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

d)

is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

34.

The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are contained in the following document:

a)

EASA AIR OPS

b)

EASA CS-23

c)

EASA CS-25

d)

FAR-25

35.

An increase in ambient temperature causes the absolute ceiling to:

a)

decrease.

b)

increase.

c)

remain unchanged.

d)

increase subject to its relation to ISA.

36.

With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements concerning Minimum Drag is correct?

a)

it is a function of the density altitude.

b)

it is a function of the pressure altitude.

c)

it is proportional to the aircraft mass.

d)

it is independent of the aircraft mass.

37.

If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:

a)

the minimum drag increases and the lAS for minimum drag increases.

b)

the minimum drag increases and the lAS for minimum drag decreases.

c)

the minimum drag decreases and the lAS for minimum drag decreases.

d)

the minimum drag decreases and the lAS for minimum drag increases.

38.

As you accelerate in level flight from the speed at CLMAX to maximum speed the total drag:

a)

decreases.

b)

increases then decreases.

c)

increases.

d)

decreases then increases.

39.

Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:

a)

the speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.

b)

the speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum climb angle speed.

c)

the speed for maximum lift coefficient.

d)

the speed for minimum drag.

40.

During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:

a)

decreases the climb time.

b)

increases the amount of fuel for the climb.

c)

increases the climb time.

d)

decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.

41.

When does THRUST = DRAG?

a)

Climbing at a constant lAS.

b)

Descending at a constant lAS.

c)

Flying level at a constant lAS.

d)

All of the above.

42.

ASDA is defined as:

a)

the same as TODA.

b)

TODA plus stopway.

c)

TORA plus stopway.

d)

TORA plus clearway.

43.

A constant headwind component:

a)

increases the best rate of climb.

b)

decreases the angle of climb.

c)

increases the maximum endurance.

d)

increases the angle of flight path during climb.

44.

In unaccelerated climb:

a)

lift is greater than the gross weight.

b)

thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

c)

lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.

d)

thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

45.

You are flying turboprop aeroplane at minimum drag speed (VMD) of 143 kts. What would be the speed for maximum range?

a)

108 kts

b)

118 kts

c)

143 kts

d)

189 kts

46.

With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:

a)

the minimum angle of descent.

b)

the minimum drag.

c)

the minimum power required.

d)

the maximum lift.

47.

For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient:

a)

increases with increasing flap angle and decreasing temperature.

b)

decreases with increasing flap angle and decreasing temperature.

c)

increases with increasing flap angle and increasing temperature.

d)

decreases with increasing flap angle and increasing temperature.

48.

In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?

a)

In the take-off run available.

b)

In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.

c)

In the all-engine take-off distance.

d)

In the accelerate stop distance available.

49.

How does the power required curve move with an increase in altitude when plotted on the chart against TAS?

a)

Straight up.

b)

Straight down.

c)

Up and to the right.

d)

Straight across to the right.

50.

For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

a)

that which gives the maximum value of lift.

b)

that which gives the minimum value of drag.

c)

that which gives the minimum lift to drag ratio.

d)

1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.

51.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

b)

An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.

c)

A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.

d)

If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.

52.

In a power-off glide, an increase in aircraft mass will:

a)

increase the glide angle and increase the speed for minimum glide angle.

b)

not affect the glide angle, but increase the speed for minimum glide angle.

c)

increase the glide angle, but not affect the speed for minimum glide angle.

d)

not affect the glide angle, and not affect the speed for minimum glide angle.

53.

The landing distance required will be decreased as a result of:

a)

higher aircraft mass, higher air density, uphill runway slope.

b)

higher aircraft mass, higher air density, downhill runway slope.

c)

low aircraft mass, lower air density, uphill runway slope.

d)

low aircraft mass, high air density, uphill runway slope.

54.

What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (lAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?

a)

Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

b)

Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

c)

Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.

d)

Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.

55.

Gross performance is:

a)

the minimum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.

b)

the average performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.

c)

the maximum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.

d)

65 percent of net performance.

56.

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

a)

is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

b)

is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.

c)

is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.

d)

is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

57.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.

b)

Induced drag increases with increasing speed.

c)

Induced drag is independant of the speed.

d)

Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

58.

The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve

a)

is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.

b)

is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.

c)

is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.

d)

is the maximum drag speed.

59.

The rate of climb

a)

is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.

b)

is the downhill component of the true airspeed.

c)

is angle of climb times true airspeed.

d)

is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

60.

Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,

a)

decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.

b)

improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.

c)

improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.

d)

decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.

61.

How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust

a)

has no change during take-off and climb.

b)

increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.

c)

varies with mass changes only.

d)

decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.

62.

Other factors being equal, an increase in take-off weight will

a)

increase lift off speed and decrease stalling speed

b)

increase lift off and stalling speed

c)

increase lift off speed and stalling speed remains

d)

weight has no effect on take-off speed or lift-off speed

63.

(For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : ISA +15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Headwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry

a)

approximately : 1400 feet

b)

approximately : 950 feet

c)

approximately : 1300 feet

d)

approximately : 750 feet

64.

(For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T :0°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps:

a)

approximately : 940 feet

b)

approximately : 1150 feet

c)

approximately : 1480 feet

d)

approximately : 1650 feet

65.

(For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T :30°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs Tailwind component: 2.5 kt Fl

a)

approximately : 2200 feet

b)

approximately : 1440 feet

c)

approximately : 2800 feet

d)

approximately : 2470 feet

66.

(For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass . Given : O.A.T : ISA Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Run

a)

3000 lbs

b)

3240 lbs

c)

2900 lbs

d)

More than 3650 lbs

67.

(For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given: O.A.T: ISA+10°C Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs Headwind component: 5

a)

65 and 75 KIAS

b)

73 and 84 KIAS

c)

68 and 78 KIAS

d)

71 and 82 KIAS

68.

An aeroplane is climbing at a speed 10 kts lower than the speed for best rate of climb:

a)

angle of climb will decrease.

b)

angle of climb will increase.

c)

angle of climb will not change.

d)

rate of climb will not change.

69.

(For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.3) With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min). Given : O.A.T: ISA + 15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass:3400 lbs Flaps: up Speed: 100 KIAS

a)

1370 ft/min

b)

1290 ft/min

c)

1210 ft/min

d)

1150 ft/min

70.

The TODA is:

a)

declared runway length plus clearway and stopway.

b)

declared runway length plus stopway.

c)

declared runway length plus clearway.

d)

declared runway length only.

71.

With contamination of the aircraft's wings and fuselage:

a)

the TODR is unaffected.

b)

ASDR will decrease.

c)

stalling speed is unaffected.

d)

the lift off speed will be increased.

72.

Requirements for the 3rd segment of take-off climb are:

a)

minimum acceleration altitude for one engine inoperative should be used.

b)

there is no climb gradient requirement during acceleration phase.

c)

level acceleration with an equivalent gradient of 1.2%.

d)

legal minimum altitude for acceleration is 1500.

73.

In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:

a)

deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

b)

reverse engine thrust.

c)

apply wheel brakes.

d)

reduce the engine thrust.

74.

A change of runway in use from a runway slope of 1 % downhill to a runway slope of 1 % uphill will:

a)

increase take-off run, decrease take-off distance

b)

decrease take-off run, decrease take-off distance

c)

increase take-off run, increase take-off distance

d)

decrease take-off run, increase take-off distance

75.

What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?

a)

A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between 'net' and 'gross' take-off flight paths.

b)

A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.

c)

For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.

d)

A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.

76.

Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:

a)

85 m

b)

100 m

c)

115 m

d)

It will not clear the obstacle

77.

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:

a)

an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

b)

a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

c)

an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

d)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

78.

Use CAP698, SEP1, Figure 2.2 With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given: OAT: 38˚C. Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft. Aeroplane Mass: 3 400 lbs. Tailwind component: 5 kts. Flaps: Approach setting. Runway: Dry. Grass Correction factor: 1.2

a)

4 150 ft.

b)

3 860 ft.

c)

3 680 ft.

d)

5 040 ft.

79.

Use CAP698, SEP1, Figure 2.4 'You are planning a flight in a single engine aeroplane. With regard to the landing chart determine the landing distance required at your planned destination airport. Given: OAT: ISA. Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft. Aeroplane Mass: 3 500 lbs. Tailwind component: 5 kts. Flaps: Landing position (down). Runway: Tarred and wet. Runway Slope: 2% upslope'

a)

1 150 ft.

b)

1 750 ft.

c)

2 250 ft.

d)

2 900 ft.

80.

Use CAP698, SEP1, Figure 2.4 'Using the Landing Diagram for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft), in the following conditions. Given: Pressure altitude: 4 000 ft. OAT: 5˚C. Aeroplane mass: 3 530 lbs. Headwind component: 15 kts. Flaps: Approach setting. Runway: tarred and dry'

a)

1 020 ft

b)

1 550 ft

c)

1 350 ft

d)

880 ft

81.

Use CAP698, SEP1, Figure 2.3 'With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min). Given: OAT: ISA +15˚C. Pressure altitude: 0 ft. Aeroplane mass: 3 400 lbs. Flaps: up. Speed: 100 KIAS'

a)

1 150 ft/min.

b)

1 210 ft/min.

c)

1 290 ft/min.

d)

1 370 ft/min.

82.

Use CAP698, SEP1, Figure 2.4 'With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft. Given: OAT: 0˚C. Pressure altitude: 1 000 ft. Aeroplane mass: 3 500 lbs. Tailwind component: 5 kts. Flaps: Landing position (down). Runway: Tarred and dry'

a)

1 650 feet.

b)

1 480 feet.

c)

1 150 feet.

d)

2 420 feet.

83.

Use CAP698, SEP1, Figure 2.4 'With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft. Given: OAT: 27˚C. Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft. Aeroplane Mass: 2 900 lbs. Tailwind component: 5 kts. Flaps: Landing position (down). Runway: Tarred and Dry'

a)

1 370 feet.

b)

1 650 feet.

c)

1 120 feet.

d)

1 800 feet.

84.

Use CAP698, MEP1, Figure 3.3 'Given: OAT: 24˚C. Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft. RWY: 12L Wind: 080˚/12 kts. Take-off Mass: 3 800 lbs. Runway Surface: Wet Grass - firm soil. Runway Slope: 2% downslope. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway are available.'

a)

1 400 ft

b)

1 750 ft

c)

2 550 ft

d)

2 850 ft

85.

Use CAP698, MEP1, Figure 3.9 'Given: Flaps: 40˚. Aerodrome pressure altitude: sea level. Ambient temperature: +15°C. Landing weight: 4 000 lbs. Wind: calm. Runway: paved and dry. What is the Landing Distance?'

a)

1 240 feet.

b)

1 400 feet.

c)

2 040 feet.

d)

2 400 feet.

86.

Given: Still Air climb gradient: 5%. TAS: 200 kts. Wind component: 50 kts tail. What is the effective wind climb gradient?

a)

3.8%

b)

4.0%

c)

5.0%

d)

5.4%

87.

Given: Still Air climb gradient: 7.5%. TAS: 140 kts. Wind component: 25 kts head. What is the effective wind climb gradient?

a)

9.1%

b)

8.5%

c)

6.1%

d)

5.8%

88.

Use CAP698, MEP1, Figure 3.2 'Given: OAT: 25˚C. Pressure Altitude: 3 200 ft. RWY: 26L Wind: 310˚/20 kts. Take-off Mass: 4 400 lbs. Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?'

a)

3 500 ft

b)

3 800 ft

c)

3 350 ft

d)

4 300 ft

89.

Use CAP698, MEP1, Figure 3.1 'Given: OAT: 24˚C. Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft. RWY: 12L Wind: 080˚/12 kts. Take-off Mass: 3 800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?'

a)

1 050 ft

b)

1 750 ft

c)

1 350 ft

d)

1 150 ft

90.

Use CAP698, MEP1, Figure 3.7 'Given: OAT: 10˚C. Pressure altitude: 2 000 ft. Gross mass: 3 750 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given?'

a)

430 ft/min.

b)

500 ft/min.

c)

890 ft/min.

d)

200 ft/min.

91.

Use CAP698, MEP1, Figure 3.7. 'Given: OAT: -20˚C. Pressure altitude: 18 000 ft. Gross mass: 4 000 lbs. Mixture: leaned to 25˚F rich of peak EGT. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?'

a)

870 ft/min.

b)

1 370 ft/min.

c)

1 050 ft/min.

d)

550 ft/min.

92.

Refer to CAP698, MEP1 Figure 3.10. 'Given: Aerodrome pressure altitude: 80 ft. Ambient temperature: +10°C. Landing Distance Available (LDA): 3 080 ft. Wind : 12 kts head. Runway slope: 1.5% down. Runway surface: grass. Runway surface condition: wet / short. Using the above specified data, find the Field Limited Landing Mass (FLLLM):'

a)

3 150 lbs

b)

3 450 lbs

c)

3 750 lbs

d)

4 513 lbs

93.

Use CAP698, MRJT1, Figure 4.4. Given: Take-Off Mass (TOM): 58 500 kg. Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -7˚C. Flaps: 15˚ Wind: 10 kts head. Runway slope: 1% down. Air Conditioning (A/C) Packs: OFF. Using the above data, determine the take-off distance:

a)

5500 ft

b)

5900 ft

c)

6400 ft

d)

6900 ft

94.

An aircraft is flying at 1.3 VS1G in order to provide an adequate margin above the low speed buffet and transonic speeds. If the mass increases from 285 000 kg to 320 000 kg and 1.3 VS1G is 180 kts CAS at 285 000 kg, then the new 1.3 VS1G will be:

a)

191 kts: drag will increase; NM/kg will increase; fuel flow will increase.

b)

201 kts: drag will increase; NM/kg will decrease; fuel flow will increase.

c)

201 kts: drag will remain the same; NM/kg will increase; fuel flow will decrease.

d)

191 kts: drag will increase; NM/kg will decrease; fuel flow will increase

95.

Which of the following factors favors the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?

a)

High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature

b)

Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.

c)

High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.

d)

Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.

96.

" Use CAP698, MRJT1, Figure 4.23. Given: Aircraft mass: 52 000 kg. Temperature: ISA +20˚. Engine Anti-Ice: ON. Air Conditioning (AC): OFF. Using the above data, determine the net level off altitude."

a)

14 800 ft

b)

15 400 ft

c)

17 000 ft

d)

17 400

97.

" Use CAP698, MRJT1, Figure 4.30. Given: Aerodrome Pressure altitude: 3 000 ft. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +30°F. Runway slope: 1.5% down. Wind: 10 kts head. Flaps: 40°. Using the data above, determine the Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass."​

a)

55 850 kg

b)

56 375 kg

c)

57 000 kg

d)

58 125 kg

98.

"Use CAP698, MRJT1, Figure 4.8. Given: Pressure altitude: 3 000 ft. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +30˚ C. Runway Length limited Take-Off Mass (RLTOM): 60 000 kg. Runway: 2% upslope. Flaps: 5˚. Wind: 5 kts tail. PMC: ON. Air Conditioning (AC) Packs: OFF. Using the above data, determine the VMCG and V1:"​

a)

VMCG = 111 kts, V1 = 147 kts

b)

VMCG = 109 kts, V1 = 148 kts

c)

VMCG = 111 kts, V1 = 148 kts

d)

VMCG = 109 kts, V1 = 147 kts​

99.

"Use CAP698, MRJT1, Figure 4.24. Given: Pressure altitude: 37 000 ft. Temperature: ISA -10C. Gross Mass: 44 000 kg. Engine Anti-Ice: ON Wing Anti-lce: OFF. Wind: 30 kts head. Obstacle: 23 000 ft AMSL. Using the above data, determine the drift-down time, fuel burn and distance flown to clear the obstacle by the statutory minimum."

a)

20 minutes, 1 000 kg, 125 NM

b)

24 minutes, 700 kg, 122 NM​

c)

32 minutes, 1 100 kg, 153 NM

d)

35 minutes, 1 350 kg, 170 NM