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Nursing test 2

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is passive range of motion?

a)

It is not moved at all

b)

Physical Therapist moves it

c)

Nurses moves it for you

d)

You move it

2.

What is active range of motion?

a)

Nurse moves it for you

b)

Physical therapist moves it

c)

You move it

d)

Its not moved at al

3.

What are the purposes of range of motion(ROM)

a)

Prompte circulation

b)

Increase body mass index

c)

Prevent contractures

d)

Promote muscle tone

4.

What is osteoporosis?

a)

Metabolic disease of the bones causing bone loss and fragility fx.

b)

Disease of the muscle system making fit harder to do daily activites

c)

Diseases of the endocrine system

d)

Disease pertains to the pituitary gland

5.

What is the best exercise for osteoporosis?

a)

Weight bearing

b)

Swimming

c)

Walking

d)

Weight lifting

6.

What is the supine position?

a)

Flat on you back

b)

30-50 degrees

c)

90 degrees

d)

Sides

7.

Why would you put a pt. in a supine position?

a)

Surgeries

b)

Aid in breathing

c)

Post epidural

d)

Foley

8.

What is the fowlers postion?

a)

Flat on back

b)

90 degrees

c)

Sides

d)

30-60 degrees

9.

Why would you place a pt. in flowers position?

a)

Pt. with trach

b)

Post epidural

c)

Feeding tubes

d)

COPD

e)

Foley insertion

10.

What is the hi Folwers position?

a)

90 degrees

b)

Sides

c)

Back

d)

Feet down and head up

11.

Why would you place a pt. in hi fowlers position?

a)

Cardiac position

b)

Foley instertion

c)

To aid in breathing

d)

Foley insertion

12.

What is the Prone position?

a)

Back

b)

Sides

c)

Sem-prone

d)

Head on overhead take with pillow to expand lungs for breathing

13.

What is the lateral position?

a)

Sides

b)

Semi-prone

c)

Back surgery

d)

90 degrees

14.

Why would you place a pt in the lateral position?

a)

Left lateral is for enemas

b)

Foley insertion

c)

Used In OB

d)

Post-Epidural

15.

What is the SIMS postion?

a)

Semi-prone

b)

Feet down and head up

c)

90 degrees

d)

On side

16.

Why would you place a pt. in the SIMS position

a)

Foley

b)

Prostate procedures

c)

Left sims can be used with enemas

d)

Surgical position

17.

What is the Lithotomy position?

a)

GYN

b)

90 degrees

c)

Head is down and feet up

d)

Semi-prone

18.

Why would you place a pt in the Lithotomy position?

a)

Surgical position

b)

Asthma

c)

Male prostate procedures

d)

COPD

19.

What is the Trendelenburg position?

a)

Head is down and feet up

b)

Semi-prone

c)

Feet down and head up

d)

90 degrees

20.

Why would you place a pt. in the Tendelenburg position?

a)

Surgical position

b)

Moving a pt. up in bed

c)

Surfical position

d)

COPD

21.

What is the Reverse Trend position?

a)

90 degrees

b)

Semi-prone

c)

Feet down and head up

d)

On side

22.

Why would you place a pt. in the Reverse Trend position?

a)

Surgical position

b)

Post-epidural

c)

COPD

d)

Foley insertion

23.

What is the Orthopedic position?

a)

Semi-Prone

b)

Head on overbed table with pillow to expand lungs for breathing

c)

On side

d)

90 degrees

24.

Why would you place a pt. in the Othopneic position?

a)

COPD

b)

Surgeries

c)

Asthma

d)

CHF

e)

Foley insertion

25.

What are the complications of immobility in the lungs?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

UTI Risk

c)

Hypostatic

d)

Pneumonia

e)

Renal calculi

26.

What are the complication of immobility in circulation?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension

b)

Increased UTI risk

c)

Increased cardiac workload

d)

Thrombus formation

e)

Alterations in blood flow

27.

What are complications in the immobility of the musculoskeletal system?

a)

Atrophy

b)

UTI Risk

c)

Disuse osteoporosis

d)

Joint contractures

28.

What are the complications of the immobility of the urinary system?

a)

Urosepsis

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Urinary stasis

d)

Increases UTI risk

e)

Inflammation to ischemia

29.

What are the complications of the immobility of the skin?

a)

Pressure ulcers

b)

Anxiety

c)

Inflammation to ischemia

d)

Depression

e)

Altered sleep

30.

What are the complications of the immobility of the mental state

a)

Depression

b)

Pressure ulcers

c)

Anxiety

d)

Altered sleep

e)

Increases UTI Risk

31.

You tests an object with your legs and can't move it, should you lift it?

a)

Yes

b)

No

32.

Select the core details that you should have when using proper body mechanics:

a)

Center of gravity stable

b)

Lift with back

c)

Wide base of support

d)

Lift with les and abd. muscles

e)

Us a narrow positioning of feet

33.

__________-Body moment and freely moving joints, muscles, nervous system and bones working together

a)

Physically fit

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Mobility

d)

Isotonic

34.

__________- is the ability to carry out activates of daily living with vigor and alterness, without endue fatigue

a)

Isometric

b)

Physically fit

c)

Mobility

d)

Logrolling

35.

________-muscles use energy from body not oxygen-lifting heavy objects and sprinting

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Isometric

36.

Uses large muscle groups and oxygen requirements meets or exceeds required amount needed- jogging, brisk, walking, cycling

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Aerobic

d)

Isometric

37.

_______- movement of joints during muscle contraction-weight training, push-ups

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Isometric

38.

_______-muscle contraction without motion-pressing against a surface like pressing a footboard

a)

Isometric

b)

Isotonic

c)

Aerobic

d)

Anaerobic

39.

What is the technique of logrolling best used?

a)

Prolonged bedrest

b)

Hip Injury

c)

Pressure ulcer

d)

Spinal Injury

40.

Who is at risk for complications of immobility?

a)

Someone at risk for a UTI

b)

Anyone who has prolonged bed rest

c)

Someone with a pressure ulcer

d)

A child with influenza

41.

What are some health problem that can cause someone to become immobile

a)

Heart problems

b)

Lung problems

c)

Severe Illness

d)

UTI

e)

Anyone who can't get out of bed

42.

When could you use a gait belt

a)

Transfer

b)

While using a cane

c)

Ambulating

d)

While laying down

43.

Which of the following are true about plater and fiber glass casts?

a)

Do not get wet

b)

Do not insert objects down for scratching

c)

Takes days to fully dry and handle by your palms until dry

d)

Use a cool air dryer or fan to help

e)

Pat down dry with a moist paper towel

44.

How would you assist in positioning a patient with a hp fracture?

a)

Logroll onto opposite hip and back supine to low folders

b)

Cannot tolerate 90 degree flexion at first

c)

Be careful with hip angle

d)

Use hip abductor

e)

Roll over using wheelchair and extra assistance

45.

What is TPN?

a)

Total Parental nutrition

b)

Two parents

c)

Total Internal nutrion

d)

Total nutrition

46.

What are macronutrients?

a)

nutrients the body needs in small amounts to support energy needs and meet physiologic requirements

b)

nutrients the body needs in large quantities to support energy needs and meet physiologic requirements

c)

nutrients the body needs in moderation to support energy needs and meet physiologic requirements

d)

nutrients the body does not need to support energy needs and meet physiologic requirements

47.

What are food diaries?

a)

A almost-like cook book

b)

A recording of your daily food intake

c)

A recording of your bowel movements

d)

A recording of you medications

48.

What kind of tube would you use for a short term feeding (less than 6 weeks)?

a)

Nasogastric(NG) tube

b)

Gastrostomy(G) tube

c)

Nasoenteric(NE) tube

d)

Gastrostomy button

49.

What tube would you used for Long term feeding(greater than 4-6 weeks)?

a)

Gastrostomy tube

b)

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube

c)

Gastrostomy button

d)

Jejunostomy tube

e)

Percutaneous Endoscopic Jejunostomy

50.

What is the common size of a Short term feeding

a)

Small Bore NGT 8Fr-12Fr

b)

Length 46-52 inches

c)

Length of 36-43 inches

d)

Small Bore NGT 12Fr-16FR

51.

What is the location for the PEJ tube?

a)

Placed through the nose down into the stomach

b)

Placed in Jejunum through incision through the abdominal wall surgically

c)

Placed in stomach through incision through the abdominal wall surgically

52.

What is the location of the G Tube, PEG Tube, Or G-Button

a)

Placed in stomach through incision through the abdominal wall surgically

b)

Placed through the nasal cavity down to the stomach

c)

Placed in jejunum through incision through the abdominal wall surgically

53.

What interventions should be implemented for a patient with impaired swallowing?(Chose all that apply.)

a)

Placing them pt. in high fowlers position

b)

Collaborate with speech therapy & dietician for texture-modified diets

c)

Leave food in big slices for easier chewing

d)

Have suction equipment available at bedside

e)

Feed slowly, offering small bites/sips

54.

What the levels of Liquid consistencies?(Choose all that apply)

a)

Thin

b)

Opaque-like

c)

Nectar-like

d)

Spoon-thick

e)

Honey-like

55.

_________-Non-restircive. Consists of all unthicken barrages and supplements.

a)

Thin

b)

Nector-like

c)

Honey-like

d)

Spoon-thick

56.

___________-Consists of liquids that re thin enough to sip through a straw but thicker than water.

a)

Thin

b)

Nectar-like

c)

Honey-like

d)

Spoon-thick

57.

_________-Liquids are durable but thickened. They can be eaten with a spoon, but cannot be sipped through a straw.

a)

Thin

b)

Nectar-like

c)

Honey-like

d)

Spoon-thick

58.

__________-Consists of liquids thicken to maintain their shape and need to be eaten with a spoon.

a)

Thin

b)

Nectar-like

c)

Honey-like

d)

Spoon-thick

59.

What are examples of thin liquid consistencies?(Choose all that apply)

a)

Clear juices

b)

Frozen yogurt

c)

Ice cream

d)

Cream soup

e)

Soda

60.

What are examples of nectar-like liquid consistencies?(choose all that apply)

a)

Clear juices

b)

Buttermilk

c)

Nectars

d)

Cream soups

e)

Soda

61.

What are examples of honey-like liquid consistencies?(choose all that apply)

a)

Honey

b)

Tomato sauce

c)

Cream soups

d)

Yogurt

e)

Soda

62.

What are some examples of spoon-thick liquid consistencies?(choose all that apply)

a)

Pudding

b)

Soda

c)

Custard

d)

Hot cereals

e)

Clear juices

63.

Where is glucose stored in the body?

a)

Liver

b)

Heart

c)

Skin

d)

Pancereas

64.

How is glucose used in the body?

a)

Liver glycogen- broken down into glucose and released into the blood to keep blood sugar stable

b)

As fat(long-term)-if glycogen stores are full, extra glucose is converted into fat and stored in adipose tissue

c)

It is used to produce hormones like melatonin that stimulate sleep

d)

Once glucose enters a cell, its used in a process called cellular respiration

65.

What is hypoglycemia?

a)

Abnormally elevated blood glucose level

b)

Abnormally low blood glucose level

c)

<50mg/dL

d)

>109mg/dL or 127mg/dL at random

66.

What should the nurse do if the blood sugar begins to drop?(choose all that apply)

a)

Perform a blood glucose check of the finger

b)

If patient is a&o give them some food or liquid, recheck within 15 minutes

c)

If the glucose level is low enough that the patient is at risk for or Is having a seizure, the treatment is to administer D50 or 50% dextrose

d)

Treat with insulin administration

67.

What should the nurse do if the blood sugar is elevated?(choose all that apply)

a)

Treat with insulin administration

b)

Perform blood glucose check of the finger

c)

Give them some food or liquid

d)

Administer D50 or 50% dextrose

68.

What is food allergy?

a)

An immune system reaction-the body mistakes a food protein as harmful and attacks it

b)

The digestive system has trouble breaking down certain food(not the immune system)

69.

What is food intolerance?

a)

The digestive system has trouble breaking down certain food(not the immune system)

b)

An immune system reaction-the body mistakes a food porter as harmful and attacks it

70.

__________-Prescribed when swallowing is impaired in order to prevent aspiration

a)

Dysphagia diet

b)

Stroke prone diet

c)

Weight loss diet

d)

Weight gain diet

71.

________-provides fluids to prevent dehydration and supplies some simple carbohydrates to help meet energy needs.

a)

Clear liquids

b)

Pureed diet

c)

Full liquids

d)

Mechanical soft diet

72.

________- contains all the liquids included in the clear liquid diet plus any food items that are liquid at room temperature.

a)

Full liquids

b)

Mechanical soft diet

c)

Pureed diet

d)

Clear liquids

73.

___________- The diet of choice for people with chewing difficulties resulting fro, ,missing teeth, jaw problems, or extensive fatigue

a)

Pureed diet

b)

Mechanical soft diet

c)

Full liquids

d)

Clear liquids

74.

__________-A pureed diet is a. blended diet. Some foods may or may not be included.

a)

Clear liquids

b)

Mechanical soft diet

c)

Pureed diet

d)

Full liquids

75.

What are example of foods in the clear liquids diet?

a)

Water

b)

Tea

c)

Coffee

d)

Soups

e)

Popsicles

76.

What are examples of foods in the full liquid diet?

a)

Soups

b)

Milkshakes

c)

Milk

d)

Soft vegatbles

e)

Yogurt

77.

What are some examples of food in the Mechanical Soft diet?

a)

Soft vegetables

b)

Fruits

c)

Shredded meats

d)

eggs

e)

blended diet

78.

What should the nurse do when a pt. is NPO

a)

Clarify orders

b)

Maintain hydration/nutrition

c)

Feed them at least once a day to meet calorie intake

d)

Monitor for aspiration risk

e)

Monitor labs and vital signs

79.

What is intake?(choose all that apply)

a)

Oral fluids

b)

IV Fluids

c)

Enteral/Parenteral feedings

d)

Blood work

80.

What is body output?(choose all that apply)

a)

Emesis

b)

Stool

c)

Urine

d)

Blood

e)

Suctioned gastric contents

81.

What must you always do before checking gastric residuals?

a)

Check just for the placement

b)

Check placement and residual prior to any type of tube feeding

c)

Check. just of the residual

d)

It is not necessary to check for either

82.

How should you check for residual in a pt?

a)

Connecting the syringe to the enteral tube and pull back on the plunger and aspirate for gastric contents. Should always be reinstalled back into the pt, unless told otherwise

b)

Connecting the syringe to the iv line and inserting air, then pulling back and trashing the gastric contents

c)

Connecting the syringe the enteral tube and pulling back the plunger removing the gastric contents and disposing of them in the biohazard container

83.

True or False: High residual volumes indicated delayed gastric emptying and increases the risk for aspiration, in which the pt. may need a special kind of medication to promote or enhance gastric emptying

a)

True

b)

False

84.

True or False: Preschoolers require nutritious between-meal snacks to meet nutritional needs during this rapid growth and active time

a)

True

b)

False

85.

In what stage are lifelong food habits developed in

a)

Toddlers

b)

Preschoolers

c)

Teens

d)

Older adults

86.

How should you check placement for an NG Tube/PEG tube?(Choose all that apply)

a)

X-Ray

b)

Feeling along the stomach

c)

Test pH of aspirated contents (pH of 7> indicates in repertory tract)

d)

Apirate gastric contents with syringe

e)

Auscultate the abdomen

87.

What are concerns for a vegetarian in regards to to nutritional status?

a)

Sufficient nutrients

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Iron

e)

ZInc

88.

What interventions can be implemented for a patient experiencing nausea?

a)

Remove offensive odors

b)

NPO diet

c)

Enteral Tubes

d)

Administers IV fluids

89.

What should you do if the NG tube was inserted into the lungs

a)

Immediately withdraw the NGT

b)

Keep pushing down

c)

Come up a little then reinsert once again

d)

Tell patient It will be alright and continue pushing down

90.

Signs and symptoms NG tube enters the lungs(Select all that apply)

a)

Patient becomes cyanotic

b)

Patient remains normal skin color

c)

Patient unable to make a verbal sound

d)

Coughing spasmodically/uncontrollably

91.

What nursing interventions should be implemented during a continuous or bolus tube feeding?

a)

Verify tube placement

b)

Check residuals

c)

Assess tolerance of feeding

d)

Lay patient flat

e)

Feed before checking tube placement

92.

What nursing interventions should be implemented prior to any tube feeding?

a)

Verifying providers orders

b)

Start feeding even if bowel sounds are absent

c)

Identify the patient

d)

Assess the patients condition

93.

What is a Levin tube used for?

a)

Short-term use for decompression, suction, irrigation, or feeding

b)

Gastric decompression (draining stomach contents, removing air, or continuous suction)

94.

__________-single lumen, short term, not ideal for continuous suctions

a)

Levin

b)

Salem sump

95.

________-double lumen with air vent (Blue pigtail), safer for continuous suction/decompression.

a)

Levin

b)

Salem sump

96.

What are types of foods and/or diet should the nurse encourage for a patient who has a wound that needs healing?

a)

Protein(Lean meats, poultry, fish, eggs, dairy)

b)

Vitamin C(Citrus fruits, strawberries, kiwi, tomatoes, bell peppers)

c)

Vitamin A( carrots, sweet potatoes, spinach)

d)

Greasy high in fat foods

97.

What should you do to understand meal time preparation?

a)

Assess pain level, anxiety and fatigue

b)

Assist to wash hands and face

c)

Clean bedside table surface and position in front of patient

d)

Remove offensive orders

e)

Sit and converse about other patients

98.

What are some special considerations when administering TPN

a)

Line and site care

b)

Monitoring

c)

Solution handling

d)

Infections

e)

Administration