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Worksheets

Instrument đầu

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pitot head is used to measure:

a)

dynamic minus static pressure

b)

static plus dynamic pressure

c)

static pressure

d)

dynamic pressure

2.

Manoeuvre induced error:

a)

is caused by pressure changes at static probes or vents

b)

is likely to be greatest when yawing after engine failure

c)

is combined with instrument and position error on a correction card

d)

lasts for only a short time at high altitude

3.

Fitting static vents to both sides of the aircraft fuselage will:

a)

reduce the position error

b)

balance out errors caused by side-slipping or yawing

c)

require a calibration card for each static vent

d)

enable a greater number of instruments to be fitted

4.

A remote reading thermometer depends on .... to indicate changes in temperature:

a)

change of electrical resistance of the two metals

b)

change of electrical resistance with temperature

c)

change of electrical resistance with pressure

d)

change of electrical capacitance with temperature

5.

An air temperature probe may be aspirated in order to:

a)

prevent icing

b)

measure air temperature on the ground

c)

compensate for moisture level at the ramp position

d)

reduce the effects of solar radiation

6.

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to:

a)

read a little low

b)

read a little high

c)

react like an altimeter

d)

freeze at zero

7.

If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a long descent, a dangerous situation could arise due to the ASI:

a)

over-reading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be further from the stalling speed than it actually is

b)

under-reading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be closer to the stalling speed than it actually is

c)

under-reading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps and/or landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds

d)

over-reading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps and/or landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds

8.

The airspeed indicator is calibrated to:

a)

conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at all heights

b)

conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at MSL

c)

an air density of 1013.25 g/m3

d)

indicate correctly in any atmosphere

9.

If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:

a)

increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is

b)

progressively under indicate the value of airspeed

c)

progressively over indicate the value of airspeed

d)

stick at the airspeed showing at the moment of blockage

10.

An aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set on the altimeter has both static vents blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will:

a)

read the airfield elevation

b)

indicate the aircraft height amsl

c)

read the height of the aircraft above the airfield

d)

show only a very small increase in height

11.

The errors affecting the pressure altimeter are:

a)

instrument position, manoeuvre induced, density, temperature, lag

b)

instrument, pressure, manoeuvre induced, density, temperature, lag

c)

instrument, position, manoeuvre induced, temperature, barometric, lag

d)

instrument, pressure, lag, barometric, temperature, compressibility

12.

The vertical speed indicator indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or finishing a climb or descent. The error is a result of:

a)

a combination of time lag and manoeuvre induced errors

b)

a combination of position error and manoeuvre induced errors

c)

manoeuvre induced errors only

d)

a combination of time lag and instrument error

13.

If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb:

a)

the VSI will stop at the rate of climb of the aircraft at the time of blockage

b)

the VSI will indicate a decreasing rate of climb

c)

the VSI will return to zero

d)

the VSI will indicate an increasing rate of climb

14.

When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion:

a)

the CAS and TAS will both increase

b)

the CAS and TAS will both decrease

c)

the CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase

d)

the CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease

15.

The Mach meter gives an indication of mach number by measuring the ratio:

a)

(pitot pressure)/(static pressure)

b)

(static pressure)/(dynamic pressure)

c)

(dynamic pressure)/(pitot pressure)

d)

(dynamic pressure)/(static pressure)

16.

The red pole of a freely suspended magnet will point towards ....... and at latitude 60°N will point ....... at an angle known as the angle of .......

a)

the nose of the aircraft, downwards, deviation

b)

the North magnetic pole, downwards, variation

c)

the nearest pole, downwards, declination

d)

the North magnetic pole, downwards, dip

17.

The slow change in the earth’s magnetic variation is known as the ....... change and is caused by .......

a)

annual, westerly movement of the magnetic pole

b)

diurnal, easterly movement of the magnetic pole

c)

secular, westerly movement of the magnetic pole

d)

annual, sunspot activity.

18.

Which of the following materials are classed as ferromagnetic:

a)

iron, steel, carbon-fibre

b)

nickel, iron, steel

c)

copper, iron, carbon steel

d)

iron, cobalt steel, chromium steel

19.

In a standby direct reading compass there is:

a)

a non-pendulously mounted magnet system

b)

a single pendulously mounted bar magnet

c)

a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted

d)

a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration

20.

For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on headings:

a)

180° and 360°

b)

045° and 225°

c)

135° and 315°

d)

090° and 270°

21.

In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of this liquid is to:

a)

increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity

b)

increase sensitivity, decrease aperiodicity

c)

increase sensitivity at high latitudes, lubricate bearings

d)

increase sensitivity, reduce liquid swirl

22.

Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on:

a)

weight, force applied and speed of rotation

b)

rate of precession and the force applied

c)

weight, rate of precession and speed of rotation

d)

mass, radius of gyration and speed of rotation

23.

In gyroscopic theory the term ‘topple’ is defined as:

a)

real wander only, in the horizontal plane

b)

real wander only, in the vertical plane

c)

wander, real or apparent, in the vertical plane

d)

wander, real or apparent, in the horizontal plane

24.

A force applied to the spinning axis of a rotor is precessed:

a)

through 90° in the direction of spin of the rotor

b)

through 90° in the direction of spin of the rotor in the northern hemisphere and through 90° in the opposite direction in the southern hemisphere

c)

through 270° in the direction of spin of the rotor

d)

at a rate proportional to the speed of rotation of the gyro

25.

A directional gyro indicator is basically a:

a)

horizontal axis earth gyro

b)

horizontal axis tied gyro

c)

vertical axis earth gyro

d)

vertical axis tied gyro

26.

Errors of the directional gyro are:

a)

acceleration error, turning error, altitude error, transport wander, rotor speed error

b)

gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error, transport wander

c)

gimballing error, looping error, rolling error, rotor speed error, transport wander

d)

transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error, acceleration error

27.

The purpose of the caging knob is:

a)

to prevent the gyro toppling

b)

to reset the heading

c)

to reset the heading and to prevent toppling

d)

to prevent apparent wander

28.

The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is tied to the earth’s vertical by:

a)

four pendulous vanes

b)

the roll cut-out

c)

the low centre of gravity of the rotor housing

d)

two mercury level switches and two torque motors

29.

When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted to an artificial horizon in light aircraft:

a)

it should be checked at regular intervals

b)

it should be set to the central position and left there

c)

it should be rendered inoperative

d)

it should be set to 15°

30.

An electrically driven artificial horizon has less errors during the take-off run because:

a)

it is less pendulous, has a higher rotor speed and a linear acceleration cut-out

b)

the mercury level switches are more sensitive than the pendulous vanes fitted to air driven types

c)

the roll cut-out speed is activated

d)

it is less aperiodic than the air driven types

31.

When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn:

a)

the calibrated spring is exerting a force about the lateral axis equal to the rate of turn

b)

the force produced by the spring is producing a precession equal to but opposite to the rate of turn is correctly banked

c)

the spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the opposite direction)

d)

the spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the correct direction)

32.

A turn coordinator has (i) ..... pivoted (ii) ........ in the case

a)

(i) two gimbal rings (ii) orthogonally

b)

(i) single gimbal ring (ii) longitudinally

c)

(i) one gimbal ring (ii) laterally

d)

(i) two gimbal rings (ii) mutually perpendicular

33.

Compass swings should be carried out:

a)

on the apron

b)

only on the compass swinging base or site

c)

at the holding point

d)

on the active runway

34.

Aircraft magnetism caused by hard iron:

a)

is not usually influenced by the earth’s magnetic field

b)

varies directly with magnetic latitude

c)

varies indirectly with magnetic latitude

d)

is maximum on east and west

35.

Deviation due to coefficient A is mainly caused by:

a)

hard iron force acting along the longitudinal axis

b)

hard and soft iron forces acting along the lateral axis

c)

vertical soft iron forces

d)

a misaligned lubber line

36.

A gyro-magnetic compass or magnetic heading reference unit is an assembly which always consists of:

1 - a directional gyro,

2 - a vertical axis gyro,

3 - an earth’s magnetic field detector,

4 - an azimuth control,

5 - a synchronizing control.

The combination of correct statements is:

a)

2 and 5

b)

1, 3 and 5

c)

2, 3 and 5

d)

1 and 4

37.

A slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from:

a)

a direct reading magnetic compass

b)

the flight director

c)

the flux valve

d)

the air data computer

38.

Two checks that can be carried out to check that two selected sequential waypoints have been entered correctly are:

a)

select DSR.TK/STS and check that the status is less than 4; select DIS/TIME and check that the time agrees with the flight plan time

b)

select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan; then check that the time agrees with the flight plan time for the leg

c)

select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan; select DSR.TK/STS and check that the track agrees with the flight plan track for the leg

d)

select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan; select HDG/DA and check that the heading agrees with the flight plan heading for the leg

39.

The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit:

a)

illuminates steadily 2 minutes, in AUTO mode, before reaching the next waypoint

b)

start flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint and goes out at 30 seconds to run

c)

illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on standby battery

d)

illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in

40.

The computer of a north referenced Inertial Navigation System (INS) in flight, provides compensation for:

a)

aircraft manoeuvres, real wander, apparent wander, transport wander

b)

coriolis, real wander, apparent wander, transport wander

c)

earth rotation, transport wander, coriolis

d)

transport wander, apparent wander, coriolis, magnetic variation

41.

During initialization of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until:

a)

the ramp position has been inserted and checked

b)

the platform is leveled

c)

the gyros and accelerometers are in the “null” position

d)

the green “ready NAV” light has been illuminated and the mode selector switch has been set to the “NAV” position

42.

Dither is used in a laser gyro in order to:

a)

enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates

b)

increase the maximum rotational rate that can be sensed by the gyro

c)

stabilize the laser frequencies at peak power output

d)

break the frequency lock which would prevent small rotational rates from being sensed by the gyro

43.

A basic digital computer consists of:

1. input peripherals,

2. central processing unit,

3. inertial unit,

4. Memory,

5. auto brightness control,

6. output peripherals

a)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 6

b)

1, 2, 4 and 6

c)

1, 4, 6 only

d)

2, 3, 4 and 6

e)

inertial unit,

44.

In computer terminology a memory which loses its data when power is removed is called:

a)

non-volatile

b)

non-permanent

c)

non-retentive

d)

volatile

45.

In computer terminology “software” refers to:

a)

the memory system floppy disks, hard disks, etc

b)

the RAM and ROM capacity

c)

the programme of instructions

d)

the BIOS

46.

The permanent memory of a digital computer usually takes the form of:

a)

integrated circuits rated in megabytes

b)

shift registers whose capacity is rated in mega or gigabytes

c)

floppy or hard disks whose capacity is measured in mega or gigabytes

d)

Central Processing Unit

47.

The purpose of the Arithmetic Logic Unit within the Central Processing Unit is to:

a)

act as a temporary store for information being processed

b)

perform calculations in the binary number system

c)

perform calculations in the binary, octal or hexadecimal system

d)

perform all clock functions based on the computer clock frequency (clock time)

48.

The fundamental components of an autopilot control loop are:

a)

rate gyro, servomotor, error signal generator

b)

rate gyro, servomotor, torque limiter

c)

torque limiter, error signal generator, servomotor

d)

servomotor, rate gyro, torque limiter, error signal generator

49.

An aircraft has yaw damping included in its auto-stabilization system. An essential requirement of such a system is:

a)

a three axis autopilot system

b)

parallel connected servomotors

c)

automatic maintenance of C of G position

d)

INS inputs to the CADC

50.

An automatic flight control system is fitted with control wheel steering (CWS).

a)

The autopilot must be disengaged before the pilot can input manoeuvring commands

b)

Manoeuvring commands may be input by applying normal forces to the control yoke without first disengaging the autopilot

c)

Manoeuvring commands may be input using pitch and turn controls on the automatic flight system control panel, without first disengaging the autopilot

d)

The CWS is only there for steering on the ground

51.

During an approach to an autoland at 1500 feet:

a)

off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed

b)

localizer is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed

c)

localizer is controlling the roll channel, stabilizer is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed

d)

provided both localizer and glide slope signals are valid LAND 3 will illuminate

52.

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?

a)

Fail-soft

b)

Fail-passive

c)

Fail-operational or fail-active

d)

Land 2 system

53.

During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is:

a)

fail-active or fail-operational

b)

fail-passive

c)

approaching decision height

d)

requiring a crew input

54.

During an autoland approach:

a)

flare is engaged at 1500’AGL

b)

localizer roll control is disengaged just prior to touchdown

c)

flare is disengaged prior to touchdown at 5’ GA

d)

glide slope is the engaged pitch mode until 5’ GA

55.

In an autoland at 1000’ AGL with two autopilots engaged:

a)

the armed roll mode would be LOCALIZER

b)

the engaged roll mode would be GLIDE SLOPE

c)

the engaged pitch mode would be FLARE

d)

the engaged roll mode would be LOCALIZER

56.

If a fault develops in a triplex autopilot system during an approach, the system will revert to:

a)

fail-passive and the landing may continue

b)

fail control wheel mode

c)

fail-operational

d)

a manual disconnect

57.

Central Air Data Computers (CADCs) transmit data concerning;-

a)

airspeed, altitude and decision height

b)

airspeed, altitude and Mach number

c)

airspeed, attitude and Mach number

d)

airspeed and altitude only

58.

The autothrottle is used to control some factors during the three primary control modes; they are:

a)

EPR, Mach and Speed

b)

EPR, wheel and speed

c)

EPR, Mach and altitude

d)

EPR, wheel and altitude

59.

During a CAT 2 ILS automatic approach, the source for altitude information is the:

a)

basic altitude capsule stack

b)

radar altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet

c)

radio altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet

d)

mode comparator sensor

60.

The type of automatic landing system which would necessitate a manual landing after a system failure during an automatic approach is:

a)

fail-passive

b)

fail-safe

c)

fail-active

d)

fail-operational

61.

When localizer and glide slope are captured at 1500 feet during an automatic landing sequence, two other functions will be activated at the same time; they are:

a)

touchdown mode and roll out mode

b)

flare mode arm and touchdown mode

c)

flare mode engage and roll out mode

d)

flare mode arm and off line channels engaged

62.

A fundamental requirement of a closed loop servomechanism is:

a)

a stable reference device

b)

an interlock control

c)

a tacho-generator

d)

feedback

63.

Auto-trim is functional:

a)

in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot engaged

b)

in the pitch channel only with the autopilot engaged

c)

in the pitch channel only with the autopilot disengaged

d)

in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot disengaged

64.

With the autopilot engaged in the Alt mode the Captain alters the barometric setting. The aircraft

a)

maintains its altitude

b)

changes its altitude in accordance with the change in pressure setting

c)

switches barometric input over to the 1st Pilot setting

d)

trips out of altitude hold

65.

Autopilot synchronization in an aircraft:

a)

requires that the interlocks are made before the autopilot will engage

b)

ensures that, when the autopilot is engaged, the take-over is effected smoothly and without snatching on the control system

c)

requires that the aircraft is trimmed out before the autopilot can be engaged

d)

needs at least two alternators running in parallel

66.

JAR 25 operational requirements for the installation of automatic pilot state that the system must have: A. automatic synchronization, B quick release controls on both control wheels.

a)

Only statement A is correct

b)

Only statement B is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Neither statement is correct

67.

The control laws for an autopilot are known as:

a)

normal law and emergency law

b)

alternate law and direct law

c)

normal, alternate and emergency laws

d)

normal, alternate and direct laws

68.

The autothrottle will come on automatically even with the A/T switch OFF when:

a)

in a FBW aircraft the AoA reaches a critical value called floor

b)

the AoA reaches the stalling angle

c)

TOGA button is pressed

d)

reverse thrust is selected in flight

69.

The Ground Proximity Warning mode 5 provides a visual and audible warning to the pilot if the aircraft:

a)

descends below 500 ft radio altitude with gear retracted

b)

is below 1000 ft radio altitude and more than 1.3 dots below the ILS glide path

c)

descends below 200 ft radio altitude with flaps retracted

d)

sinks more than approximately 10% of accumulated altitude

70.

The GPWS uses inputs from:

a)

the radio altimeter, the ILS receiver, the Air Data Computers and the landing gear position indicators

b)

the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators

c)

the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the ILS receiver, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators

d)

the radio altimeter and the ILS receiver

71.

GPWS mode one gives warning of:

a)

excessive descent rate

b)

height loss after take-off/missed approach

c)

unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration

d)

excessive terrain closure rate

72.

GPWS, mode two operates between:

a)

50 ft and 2450 ft AGL

b)

50 ft and 1800 ft AGL

c)

50 ft and 700 ft AGL

d)

50 ft and 500 ft AGL

73.

At what radio altitude is Mode 4 armed?

a)

500 ft

b)

700 ft

c)

200 ft

d)

790 ft

74.

On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:

a)

initiate the required manoeuvre immediately

b)

make a note of the details

c)

request a flight clearance deviation from ATC

d)

do nothing until a TA is received

75.

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between TCAS I and II is that:

a)

TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

b)

TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30 passengers whilst TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft

c)

TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only whilst TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S

d)

TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

76.

The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:

a)

Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend

b)

Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right

c)

Climb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent

d)

Turn Left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn

77.

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

a)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC

b)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity

c)

RAs must never be disregarded

d)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

78.

An altitude alerting system must at least be capable of alerting the crew on:

1. Approaching selected altitude,

2. Abnormal gear/flap combination,

3. Excessive vertical speed,

4. Excessive terrain closure,

5. Excessive deviation from selected altitude,

6. Failure to set SPS or RPS as required

a)

1&3

b)

2&5

c)

4&6

d)

1&5

79.

What is the GPWS mode 3 audible alert?

a)

“don’t sink, don’t sink” followed by “whoop, whoop, pull up” if the sink rate exceeds a certain value

b)

“don’t sink, don’t sink” followed immediately by “whoop, whoop, pull up”

c)

“don’t sink, don’t sink” continuously

d)

“Terrain, don’t sink” continuously

80.

What are the inputs to a modern jet transport aeroplane’s stall warning system?

1. AoA,

2. Engine rpm,

3. Configuration,

4. Pitch and bank information,

5. Control surface position,

6. Airspeed vector

a)

1&3

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6

c)

2, 4 & 6

d)

1, 3, 5 & 6

81.

With an Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System:

a)

the secondary display will show continuously the engine primary instruments

b)

the primary display unit will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as N1, N2, N3 and maybe oil pressure

c)

the primary engine display will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as N1, EGT and maybe EPR

d)

the primary engine instruments are N1, EGT and EPR and are on the primary and secondary display units

82.

The display modes for the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System are:

a)

operational, status and maintenance of which status and maintenance are automatic

b)

flight phase related, advisory and failure related

c)

operational, status and maintenance

d)

operational, flight phase related and status

83.

The Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System alert messages are shown on the upper display unit in three forms:

a)

Level ‘C’ are warnings that require immediate corrective action

b)

Level ‘A’ are cautions that require immediate crew awareness and possible action

c)

Level ‘B’ are advisories requiring crew awareness

d)

and these messages appear on the top left of the upper display unit

84.

An engine electronic system which in normal conditions of flight shows only the primary engine instruments is:

a)

an EICAS system with EPR, EGT and N2 shown on the primary instruments

b)

an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the lower screen

c)

an EICAS system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen, the secondary screen being blank

d)

an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen, the left screen being blank

85.

The properties of a gyro are:

1. Mass,

2. Rigidity,

3. Inertia,

4. Precession,

5. rotational speed

a)

1, 2 & 3

b)

2 & 4

c)

2 & 3

d)

1 & 3

86.

Which of the following will affect a direct reading compass?

1. ferrous metals,

2. non-ferrous metals,

3. electrical equipment

a)

1 only

b)

1 & 3

c)

1 & 2

d)

All 3

87.

The Machmeter consists of:

a)

an airspeed indicator with Mach scale

b)

an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule

c)

an altimeter corrected for density

d)

a VSI and altimeter combined

88.

CAS is IAS corrected for:

a)

position and instrument error

b)

instrument, pressure and density error

c)

relative density only

d)

compressibility

89.

A DGI has:

a)

one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis

b)

two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis

c)

two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis

d)

one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis

90.

The torque motor of a gyro stabilized magnetic compass:

a)

precesses the directional gyro

b)

takes its input from the flux valve

c)

moves the heading pointer

d)

moves the Selsyn stator

91.

A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

a)

crosswinds – particularly on east/west headings

b)

parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose

c)

acceleration on east/west headings

d)

turning through east/west headings

92.

An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

a)

outside air temperature

b)

barometric data from static source

c)

time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth

d)

difference between absolute and dynamic pressure

93.

The Inertial Strap down Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during alignment in order to:

a)

establish the trihedron with reference to the earth

b)

establish true or magnetic heading

c)

check the function of the laser gyros

d)

compensate for aircraft movement

94.

At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:

a)

EAS

b)

TAS

c)

ground speed

d)

CAS

95.

VFE is the maximum speed that:

a)

the flaps can be operated

b)

the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration

c)

the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration

d)

the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration

96.

Mach number is defined as the ratio of:

a)

IAS to LSS

b)

TAS to LSS

c)

CAS to LSS

d)

EAS to LSS

97.

When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:

a)

nose up and correct angle of bank

b)

attitude and bank angle are correct

c)

nose up and bank angle too low

d)

nose up and bank angle too high

98.

To obtain heading information from a gyro stabilized platform, the gyros should have:

a)

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

b)

1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

c)

2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis

d)

2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

99.

What are the inputs to the ADC?

1. OAT,

2. dynamic pressure,

3. TAT,

4. static pressure,

5. electric power,

6. pitot pressure,

7. AoA

a)

1, 2, 5 & 6

b)

all 7

c)

3, 4 & 6

d)

3, 4, 5, 6, & 7

100.

A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:

a)

DGI

b)

Artificial horizon

c)

Turn indicator

d)

RIMC

101.

VNO is the max. speed which:

a)

the pilot can fully deflect the controls

b)

should only be exceeded in still air and with caution

c)

should never be exceeded

d)

must not be exceeded for flap/gear extension

102.

If the static vent becomes blocked on an unpressurized a/c, what could you do?

a)

Open the window

b)

Break the VSI glass

c)

Compute altitude mathematically

d)

Select standby pitot source

103.

A radio altimeter is:

a)

ground based and measures true altitude

b)

ground based and measures true height

c)

a/c based and measures true altitude

d)

a/c based and measures true height