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WorksheetsBIOL-112-Principles of Biology II- Chapters 8, 9, & 10: TYU
Total questions: 106
Worksheet time: 53mins
In photosynthesis, plants use carbon from _____ to make sugar & other organic molecules.
the sun
chlorophyll
water
soil
carbon dioxide
How does carbon dioxide enter the leaf?
through the roots
through the stomata
through the chloroplasts
through the vascular system
through the thylakoids
In a rosebush, speaking as specifically as possible, chlorophyll is located in _____.
mesophyll cells, found within the thylakoids of a leaf's chloroplasts
chloroplasts, which are in thylakoids in the mesophyll cells of a leaf
thylakoids, which are in chloroplasts in the mesophyll cells of a leaf
thylakoids, which are in mesophyll cells in the chloroplasts of a leaf
chloroplasts, which are in mesophyll cells in the thylakoids of a leaf
Chlorophyll molecules are in which part of the chloroplast?
stroma
thylakoid lumen
plasma membrane
thylakoid membrane
stomata
The source of the oxygen produced by photosynthesis has been identified through experiments using radioactive tracers. The oxygen comes from __________.
glucose
water
radioisotopes
light
carbon dioxide
In photosynthesis, what is the fate of the oxygen atoms present in CO2? They end up __________.
as molecular oxygen
in water
as molecular oxygen & in sugar molecules
in sugar molecules & in water
in sugar molecules
The reactions of the Calvin cycle are not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?
carbon dioxide concentrations decrease at night
plants usually open their stomata at night
it is often too cold at night for these reactions to take place
at night, no water is available for the Calvin cycle
the Calvin cycle requires products only produced when the photosystems are illuminated
The Calvin cycle occurs in the __________.
matrix
stroma
stomata
thylakoid membrane
thylakoid lumen
A photon of which color would carry the most energy?
red
yellow
green
blue
orange
The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to __________.
catalyze the synthesis of ATP
capture light energy
catalyze the hydrolysis of water
store energy
screen out harmful ultraviolet rays
What range of wavelengths of light are absorbed by the pigments in the thylakoid membranes?
the range absorbed by carotenoids
the infrared
green, which is why plants are green
the entire spectrum of white light
blue & red
Based on the work of Engelmann, the wavelengths of light most effective in driving photosynthesis are referred to as __________.
an absorption spectrum
a visible light spectrum
an effective spectrum
an electromagnetic
an action spectrum
When chloroplast absorb light, _______.
they become reduced
their photons becomes excited
the Calvin cycle is triggered
their electrons become excited
they lose potential energy
What structure is formed by the reaction center, light-harvesting complexes, and primary electron acceptors located in the thylakoid membrane?
the photosystem
the fluorescence center
the electron transport chain
NADP+ reductase
ATP synthase
Where do the electrons entering photosystem II come from?
chlorophyll molecules in the antenna complex
the electron transport chain
water
light
ATP
During photosynthesis in chloroplasts, O2 is produced from __________ via a series of reactions associated with __________.
H2O . . . photosystem I
CO2 . . . photosystem II
CO2 . . . the Calvin cycle
H2O . . . photosystem II
CO2 . . . both photosystem I & the Calvin cycle
During photosynthesis, an electron transport chain is used to __________.
transport electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I
transport excited electrons from P680 to an electron acceptor
transport excited electrons from P700 to an electron acceptor and transport excited electrons from P680 to an electron acceptor
transport excited electrons from P700 to an electron acceptor
transport NADPH from the light reactions to the Calvin cycle
Both mitochondria and chloroplasts _______.
are surrounded by a single membrane
use chemiosmosis to produce ATP
obtain electrons from water
release oxygen as a by-product
reduce NAD+, forming NADP
You could distinguish a granum from a crista because the granum, but not the crista, would _______.
be inside a mitochondrion
have photosynthetic pigments
contain protein but not lipids
function in energy transformation
During photosynthesis in a eukaryotic cell, an electrochemical gradient is formed across the _______.
thylakoid membrane
chloroplast outer membrane
stomata
chloroplast inner membrane
cristae
The light reactions of photosynthesis generate high-energy electrons, which end up in ____. The light reactions also produce ____ and ____.
water . . . sugar . . . oxygen
NADPH . . . ATP . . . oxygen
chlorophyll . . . ATP . . . NADPH
ATP . . . NADPH . . . oxygen
oxygen . . . sugar . . . ATP
The energy used to produce ATP in the light reactions of photosynthesis comes from ______.
the oxidation of sugar molecules
fluorescence
carbon fixation
splitting water
movement of H+ through a membrane
What is the role of NADP+ in photosynthesis?
It is reduced and then carries electrons to the Calvin cycle.
As part of the electron transport chain, it manufactures ATP.
It assists chlorophyll in capturing light.
As a component of photosystem II, it catalyzes the hydrolysis of water.
It acts as the primary electron acceptor for the photosystems.
Which choice occurs during the Calvin cycle?
excited electrons are conveyed from chlorophyll to an electron acceptor
CO2 is reduced
photons are absorbed
ATP & NADPH are synthesized
light energy is converted to chemical energy
Rubisco is _____.
the 5-carbon sugar molecule that reacts with CO2 to begin the Calvin cycle
the enzyme that forms a 4-carbon compound in CAM photosynthesis
the enzyme responsible for splitting H2O to produce O2 in photosynthesis
the enzyme in plants that first captures CO2 to begin the Calvin cycle and is the most abundant protein in chloroplasts
the first stable intermediate in C4 photosynthesis
In the Calvin cycle, CO2 is combined with _____.
a 5-carbon compound to form an unstable 6-carbon compound, which decomposes into two 3-carbon compounds
a 7-carbon compound to form two 4-carbon compounds
a 2-carbon compound to form a 3-carbon compound
two 2-carbon compounds to form a 5-carbon compound
a 5-carbon compound to form a stable 6-carbon compound that can be converted directly to glucose
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) is produced in the stroma of chloroplasts. Which statement most completely describes this compound?
It is produced from glucose during glycolysis.
For every three molecules of CO2, six molecules of G3P are formed, but five molecules must be recycled to regenerate three molecules of RuBP
For every three molecules of CO2, six molecules of G3P are formed, but only one molecule exits the cycle to be used by the plant cell.
It is a 3-carbon sugar.
All of the choices are correct.
Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?
The light reactions produce ATP and NADPH, both of which are used in the Calvin cycle.
The light reactions produce water, ATP, NADPH, all of which are used in the Calvin cycle.
The light reactions produce carbon dioxide and water, all of which are used in the Calvin cycle.
The light reactions produce ADP and NADP+, both of which are used in the Calvin cycle.
The light reactions produce carbon dioxide, ATP, NADPH, all of which are used in the Calvin cycle.
What is the role of NADP+ in photosynthesis?
It forms part of photosystem II.
It absorbs light energy.
It is the primary electron acceptor.
It helps produce ATP from the light reactions.
It forms NADPH to be used in the Calvin cycle.
The use of C4 and non-CAM plants as crops may be limited in some regions because on hot, dry days, they close their stomata. What happens as a result of this closing?
It builds up oxygen from the light reactions in the leaf.
In a process called photorespiration, rubisco binds oxygen instead of carbon dioxide.
It prevents carbon dioxide from entering the leaf.
It reduces water loss.
All of the choices are correct.
Why are C4 plants more suited to hot climates than C3 plants?
They do not close their stomata in hot, dry weather.
They evolved in cold weather but migrated to the tropics, where they were more suitable.
The same cells that bind carbon dioxide perform the Calvin cycle.
Unlike C3 plants, they keep fixing carbon dioxide even when the concentration of carbon dioxide in the leaf is low.
They suspend photosynthesis in the heat.
You have a large, healthy philodendron that you carelessly leave in total darkness while you are away on vacation. You are surprised to find that it is still alive when you return. What has the plant been using for an energy source while in the dark?
Even though it can't carry out the light reactions, the plant can still produce sugars because the Calvin cycle doesn't require light.
While it did have access to light, the plant stored energy in the form of sugars or starch, and it was able to derive energy from the stored molecules during your vacation.
When light energy is not available, plants can derive energy from inorganic molecules.
Even though the plant received no visible light, it was able to use the short-wave part of the electromagnetic spectrum (gamma rays and X-rays) to carry out photosynthesis.
None of the choice is correct.
The person credited with first recognizing (in the 1850s) that living cells cannot arise spontaneously, but arise only from previously existing cells, is ______.
Robert Hooke
Watson
Rudolf Virchow
Louis Pasteur
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
The function of the cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that _____.
are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred)
have the same number of chromatids as the parent cell had chromosomes
have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell but not the same genetic content
have a random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes
None of the choices is correct.
The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called _____.
a chromatid
chromatin
a centromere
a chromoplast
a centrosome
How many maternal chromosomes are present in a somatic human cell not engaged in cell division?
23
46
92
184
None of the choices is correct.
A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with _____.
64 chromosomes
64 pairs of chromosomes
32 pairs of chromosomes
16 chromosomes
None of the choices is correct.
Cytokinesis refers to ______.
reduction in the number of chromosomes
division of the entire cell
division of the nucleus
division of the cytoplasm
movement of a cell from one place to another
Chromatids are _____.
found only in aberrant chromosomes
the bacterial equivalent of eukaryotic chromosomes
composed of RNA
held together by the centrioles
identical copies of each other if they are part of the same chromosome
If a cell contains 60 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell at the completion of the cell cycle?
15
30
45
60
120
A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cells doubled _____.
between prophase and anaphase of mitosis
during the M phase of the cell cycle
between the G2 phase and prophase
between anaphase and telophase of mitosis
between the G1 and G2 phases of interphase
A cell biologist carefully measured the quantity of DNA in grasshopper cells growing in cell culture. Cells examined during the G2 phase of the cell cycle contained 200 units of DNA. What would be the amount of DNA at G1 of the cell cycle in one of the grasshopper daughter cells?
50 units
100 units
between 50 and 100 units
200 units
400 units
During interphase, the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is ______.
dispersed in the cytoplasm as long strands of chromatin
condensed and the chromosomes are often visible under the light microscope
transported through the nuclear pores
attached to microtubule spindle fibers
dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chromatin
DNA replication occurs in ______.
the G1 phase of interphase in reproductive cells only
metaphase of meiosis only
the cytokinesis portion of the cell's life cycle
the S phase of interphase in both somatic and reproductive cells
prophase of both mitosis and meiosis
If a normal somatic human cell is just about to divide, it has __ chromatids.
0
23
46
92
There is not enough information to answer the question.
Down syndrome is characterized by cells having three copies of chromosome 21. As a cell in an individual with Down syndrome prepares to enter mitosis, how many chromatids would be present?
23
46
92
94
98
Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?
the movement of chromosomes to opposite poles
separation of chromatids
alignment of chromosomes along the cell's equator
replication of chromosomes
condensation of chromatin
During which phase in the cell cycle would you find the most DNA per cell?
prophase II
S
G2
S1
G1
In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and the chromatin uncoils. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in _____.
interphase
S phase
anaphase
metaphase
prophase
Which phase of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope?
anaphase
S phase
interphase
metaphase
telophase
Assume that you are dealing with a species that has 14 chromosomes per somatic cell. How many sister chromatids are present in early telophase of mitosis?
0
7
14
28
None of the choices is correct.
In a human skin cell that is going through the cell cycle, when do the centrosomes separate?
prophase
anaphase
S phase
metaphase
G2 phase
Following cytokinesis in an animal cell, how many centrioles does each new daughter cell possess?
zero
one
two
four
eight
Which represents an incorrect description?
metaphase: the nuclear envelope disappears
metaphase: chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane
telophase: chromosomes become more extended
anaphase: there is movement of the chromosomes to the poles
prophase: chromosomes become more tightly coiled
In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during which stage of the cell cycle?
prophase
anaphase
metaphase
the G1 phase
cytokinesis
You would know a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that _____.
it had formed a cell plate
it had microtubules
it had two pairs of centrioles during prophase
the nucleolus was visible during metaphase
it had formed a cleavage furrow
Which process does not occur in dividing bacteria?
mitosis
replication of DNA
inward growth of the plasma membrane
separation of the origins of replication
binary fission
During binary fission in a bacterium _____.
the two DNA molecules divide in half, forming four DNA fragments
the two DNA molecules break up into plasmids
the origins of replication move apart
the two DNA molecules attach to the centrioles
the two DNA molecules float free in the cell and are guided to daughter cells by a spindle-like apparatus
Which is involved in the binary fission of bacteria?
formation of a cell plate
disintegration of the nuclear membrane
formation of a spindle apparatus
distribution of a copy of the single parental chromosome to each daughter cell
prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
When a cell in S phase is fused with a cell in G1, _____.
the original G1 cell will divide immediately
the two nuclei fuse and further division is arrested
DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1nucleus
the chromosomes of the original G1 nucleus condense in preparation for mitosis
the replication of DNA occurring in the original S nucleus is terminated
Tissue culture experiments with PDGF demonstrate that without this substance _____.
fibroblasts fail to divide
bacterial cells lose their resistance to antibiotics
animal cells are unable to attach to the substratum
the various kinases, such as MPF, are unable to bind to cyclin
cells divide in an uncontrolled fashion, confirming PDGF’s role as a cell division inhibitor
You would be unlikely to see which human cell dividing?
skin cell
nerve cell
intestinal lining cell
cell from an embryo
cancer cell
Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____.
do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition
spend the majority of their time in the G0 phase
exhibit anchorage dependence
produce molecules that inhibit the growth factors required for cell division
All of the listed responses are correct.
What is the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor?
Cells of benign tumors do not metastasize; those of malignant tumors do.
Cells of benign tumors metastasize; those of malignant tumors do not.
Benign tumors will not kill you; malignant tumors will.
Benign tumors do not arise by transformation; malignant tumors do.
Benign tumors arise by transformation; malignant tumors do not.
How many genes are present in the human genome?
23
46
hundreds
tens of thousands
almost one hundred thousand
What is a locus?
a type of spore made only by fungi
the specific location of a gene along the length of a chromosome
a structure that appears during prophase I and consists of two paired genes
the precise DNA sequence of a gene
a cell with two chromosome sets
Sexual and asexual reproduction are alike in that _____.
they both require meiosis to complete the reproductive cycle
they both involve two parents
they both give rise to genetically distinct offspring
in both cases, every parent transmits all of its genes to its progeny
they can both occur in multicellular organisms
A clone is the product of _____.
asexual reproduction
sexual reproduction
mitosis
meiosis
A karyotype is ______.
a display of all of an individual's chromosomes arranged in pairs
a list of all the genes a person carries
a method of identifying crossover events
the physical traits a person has
all the possible gametes a person could produce
Fertilization produces _____.
a haploid zygote in some life cycles and a diploid zygote in others
a diploid zygote
a haploid zygote
a multicellular haploid organism in a life cycle with an alternation of generations
a diploid zygote, except during the gametophyte stage of alternation of generations
Which statement is true?
Haploid cells can divide by mitosis.
Diploid cells can divide by mitosis.
Haploid cells cannot divide by meiosis.
Diploid cells can divide by meiosis.
All of the choices are correct.
Which is part of the alternation of generations life cycle?
multicellular diploid stage (sporophyte)
spores
zygote
multicellular haploid stage (gametophyte)
All of the choices are correct.
If the multicellular algal genus Ulva shows alternation of generations, it uses ____.
only meiosis and fertilization
mitosis only
mitosis, meiosis, and fertilization
both mitosis and meiosis but not fertilization
both mitosis and fertilization but not meiosis
In sexually reproducing species, the chromosome number remains stable over time because _____ and ____ always alternate.
mitosis … fertilization
meiosis I … meiosis II
meiosis … interphase
meiosis … fertilization
meiosis … mitosis
The egg (ovum) of a domesticated rabbit contains 22 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the somatic (body) cells of a rabbit?
11
22
44
88
132
In a diploid cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the formation of daughter cells containing ______ chromosomes.
0
5
10
20
40
How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?
23
22
2
1
It depends on the sex of the individual.
Sister chromatids __________.
are only involved in meiosis
are only involved in mitosis
have the same gene loci but may have different alleles of some genes
are identical copies of each other formed during DNA synthesis
are pairs of chromosomes, one of which comes from the father and one of which comes from the mother
Humans have 46 chromosomes. This number of chromosomes will be found in ______.
all gamete-producing cells after meiosis I
liver cells
all the egg and sperm cells
all the cells found in a human
all cells in anaphase of mitosis
When we say that an organism is haploid, we mean that ______.
its cells have half of one set of chromosomes
its cells have two sets of chromosomes
it has one half of a chromosome
its cells each have one chromosome
its cells have a single set of chromosomes
Which is a function of mitosis in humans?
production of eggs
production of sperm
increasing genetic variability
decreasing the number of chromosomes
multiplication of body cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell
Somatic cells in humans contain _____ set(s) of chromosomes and are therefore termed ______.
one … diploid
two … diploid
one … haploid
two … haploid
three … triploid
Nearly all life cycles have both haploid and diploid phases. Usually, the transition from haploid to diploid takes place _____.
at fertilization, when gametes fuse
during gastrulation
when mitotic cytokinesis occurs
during crossing over in meiosis
when DNA is replicated during the S phase of the cell cycle
Spores and gametes are different in that _____.
gametes are derived directly from sporophytes to form gametophytes
gametes can fuse to form a zygote, but spores can develop into independent organisms without first forming a zygote
gametes never resemble spores morphologically
only the formation of gametes contributes to genetic variation
gametes are always haploid, whereas spores are diploid
Which result in cells that contain half the parental chromosome number?
metaphase
interphase
mitosis
meiosis
cytokinesis
At the end of telophase I of meiosis and the first cytokinesis, there are ______.
two diploid cells
one haploid ovum and three polar bodies
four haploid cells
two haploid cells
four diploid cells
What is the result when a diploid cell undergoes meiosis?
two diploid cells
four haploid cells
two haploid cells
four diploid cells
two haploid cells and two diploid cells
Synapsis occurs during _____.
anaphase I
metaphase I
prophase II
prophase I
cytokinesis
Which occur during anaphase II?
Homologs separate and migrate toward opposite poles.
Nuclei re-form.
The synaptonemal complex disappears.
Chromosomes line up in one plane.
Sister chromatids separate and migrate toward opposite poles.
Which occurs during anaphase I?
Chromosomes line up in one plane.
Homologs separate and migrate toward opposite poles, guided by the spindle apparatus.
Sister chromatids separate and migrate toward opposite poles.
Nuclei re-form.
The cell is haploid.
What is the function of meiosis?
to make one cell with twice the number of chromosomes as the parent pairs
to make diploid spores
to make cells with a haploid number of chromosomes
to make four cells with the same chromosome number as the parent
to make exact copies of the parent cell
Crossing over occurs during ______.
prophase II
prophase I
metaphase II
cytokinesis
metaphase I
Regions of chromosomes where nonsister chromatids cross over are called _____.
inversions
tetrads
chiasmata
homologs
kinetochores
The synaptonemal complex _____.
is formed by a protein called cohesin
physically connects homologous chromosomes during mitosis
is another name for chiasmata
is broken down by enzymes during anaphase II
physically connects homologous chromosomes during prophase I
Which event occurs only during prophase I of the first meiotic division?
Homologous chromosomes line up at the center of the cell.
The nuclear membrane breaks down.
A spindle of microtubules forms.
Replication of DNA takes place.
Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs.
In a male mammal, every cell that undergoes meiosis gives rise to ______ sperm.
one
two
four
no set number
three or four
Which function makes meiosis lengthier and more complex than mitosis?
decreasing the chromosome number to haploid
ensuring that each daughter cell gets a single, complete set of chromosomes
introducing genetic variation among the daughter cells
undergoing two rounds of cytokinesis
All of the choices are correct.
Regarding the role of cohesin protein in maintaining cohesion between sister chromatids, which of the following statements is false?
During meiosis I, cohesin holds sister chromatids together along their lengths as chiasmata form between homologs.
During meiosis II, cohesin holds sister chromatids along their lengths as the second meiotic spindle forms.
Cleavage of cohesins between sister chromatid arms at anaphase I allows homologs to separate.
Ignoring crossover, how many kinds of gametes can be produced by an organism with a diploid number of 8?
2
4
8
16
32
Which contributes to genetic variation in sexually reproducing species?
random fertilization, DNA synthesis, independent assortment
internal fertilization, spindle formation, crossing over
crossing over, internal fertilization, independent assortment
random fertilization, independent assortment, crossing over
independent assortment, spindle formation, random fertilization
In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is 23. Independent assortment has the possibility of producing _____ different types of gametes.
24
232
100,000
1 million
223
The diploid number of chromosomes in a certain animal is 8 (2n = 8). How do the four pairs of homologous chromosomes align and separate during meiosis?
All 16 chromatids move together.
They align and assort independently to form any of 16 different combinations.
The first to move influences all the others.
Exactly two maternal and two paternal chromosomes always move to each of the two poles.
All of the maternal chromosomes always move to one pole, and all the paternal chromosomes always move to the other pole.
In a diploid set of chromosomes, one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes is derived from the father (paternal), and the other comes from the mother (maternal). If 2n = 6, what is the probability of obtaining a gamete in which all the chromosomes are paternal ones?
1/4
1/8
1/16
1/32
The answer cannot be determined from these data.
The major contribution of sex to evolution is that _____.
it is the only mechanism for species to reproduce
it increases genetic variation
it provides a way in which somatic mutations can be inherited
Which answer is not involved with or an outcome of crossing over?
The DNA in two nonsister chromatids is broken by specific proteins at exact points.
the random alignment of homologous pairs of chromosome at metaphase I
Chiasmata indicate where crossing over is occurring between homologs.
formation of chromosomes containing paternal and maternal alleles
All of the choices relate to crossing over.
Which statement reflects an advantage that sexual reproduction likely provides over asexual reproduction?
Although both reproductive strategies perpetuate the same combination of alleles within individuals in a population, sexual reproduction is energetically less costly than asexual reproduction.
Although energetically more costly than asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction leads to different combinations of alleles that could provide adaptability in a changing environment.
Sexual reproduction maintains the same combination of alleles and does not run the risk of losing successful combination of alleles as is observed to occur in asexually reproducing organisms.
In terms of energetic costs, sexual reproduction is a cheaper strategy than asexual reproduction for generating genetic variation in a population.
Although sexual and asexual reproduction both offer opportunities for increasing genetic variation, sexual reproduction is comparatively lower in its energetic costs to the organism.
