wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Sports Medicine 2 Quarter 3 Midterm

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a cryotherapy modality?

a)

Ice pack

b)

Ice cup massage

c)

Cold whirlpool

d)

Moist heat pack

2.

How long should an ice pack be applied for?

a)

15-20 minutes

b)

7-10 minutes

c)

10-15 minutes

d)

1 hour

3.

How long should an ice cup massage treatment last?

a)

15-20 minutes

b)

Until skin becomes bright pink, usually for 7-10 minutes

c)

10-15 minutes

d)

5 minutes or less

4.

What should the temperature be for a cold whirlpool?

a)

Less than 50 degrees F

b)

55 to 65 degrees F

c)

70 degrees F

d)

100 to 110 degrees F

5.

In order, what are the sensations that an athlete should expect to feel during a cryotherapy treatment?

a)

Pain, Ache, Numb, Burn

b)

Ache, Burn, Numb, Pain

c)

Pain, Burn, Ache, Numb

d)

Ache, Burn, Pain, Numb

6.

What is an indication for cryotherapy?

a)

Acute sprains and/or strains

b)

Circulatory disturbances

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Raynaud's Phenomenon

7.

What is a physiological effect of cryotherapy?

a)

Decrease blood flow

b)

Increase pain

c)

Decrease joint stiffness

d)

Increase muscle fatigue

8.

All of the following are examples of thermotherapy modalities EXCEPT:

a)

Warm whirlpool

b)

Ultrasound

c)

Paraffin bath

d)

Vapocoolant sprays

9.

What is conduction?

a)

When heat is transferred from a warmer object to a cooler one

b)

Transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases

c)

Heat energy is transmitted through empty space

d)

Generation of heat from another energy such as sound, electricity, and chemical agents

10.

What is convection?

a)

When heat is transferred from a warmer object to a cooler one

b)

Transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases

c)

Heat energy is transmitted through empty space

d)

Generation of heat from another energy form such as sound, electricity and chemical agents

11.

What is radiation?

a)

When heat is transferred from a warmer object to a cooler one

b)

Transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases

c)

Heat energy is transmitted through empty space

d)

Generation of heat from another energy form such as sound, electricity and chemical agents

12.

What is conversion?

a)

When heat is transferred from a warmer object to a cooler one

b)

Transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases

c)

Heat energy is transmitted through empty space

d)

Generation of heat from another energy such as sound, electricity, and chemical agents

13.

Which of the following is a physiological effect of heat?

a)

Decrease muscle spasm

b)

Decrease pain

c)

Increase blood flow

d)

All of the above are physiological effects of heat

14.

What is a contraindication of thermotherapy?

a)

Immediately after an injury

b)

Raynaud's Phenomenon

c)

Hunting Response

d)

Over the neck area

15.

How long should a moist heat pack be applied for?

a)

Less than 10 minutes

b)

10-15 minutes

c)

15-20 minutes

d)

20-30 minutes

16.

True of False: A moist heat pack can effectively heat the deep tissues of the body

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is the purpose of electrotherapy?

a)

To control pain

b)

To decrease muscle atrophy

c)

To re-educate the muscles

d)

All of the above

18.

What is a contraindication for electrotherapy?

a)

If the athlete has a pacemaker

b)

If the athlete is pregnant

c)

If the athlete has a non-united fracture

d)

All of the above are contraindications for electrotherapy

19.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of soft tissue mobilization (massage)?

a)

Increase venous flow and lymphatic drainage

b)

Decrease circulation

c)

Stretch superficial scar tissue

d)

Relax the muscle(s)

20.

All of the following are contraindications for soft tissue mobilization (massage) EXCEPT for?

a)

Muscle spasm

b)

Acute injuries

c)

Hemorrhaging

d)

Skin infection

21.

An athlete's rehabilitation program will depend on:

a)

The severity of the injury

b)

Stage of tissue healing

c)

Sport-specific demands

d)

All of the above

22.

Which of the following is a realistic and reachable goal during a rehabilitation program? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Increase range of motion

b)

Increase pain

c)

Increase strength

d)

Decrease endurance

e)

Improve coordination and skill

23.

Which of the following is a realistic and reachable goal during a rehabilitation program? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Improve joint stability

b)

Increase muscle atrophy

c)

Prevent re-injury

d)

Improve technique, posture, and mechanics

e)

Decrease inflammation and swelling

24.

Which of the following are examples of an isometric exercise?

a)

Plank, wall press, stationary press

b)

Bench press, arm curls, squats, heel raises

c)

Box jumps, power jumps, leaps, bounds, throwing a medicine ball

d)

Leg extension, leg flexion, abduction/adduction exercise machines

25.

Which of the following are examples of an isokinetic exercise?

a)

Plank, wall press, stationary press

b)

Bench press, arm curls, squats, heel raises

c)

Box jumps, power jumps, leaps, bounds, throwing a medicine ball

d)

Leg extension, leg flexion, abduction/adduction exercise machines

26.

Which of the following are examples of a plyometric exercise?

a)

The up phase of a biceps curl

b)

Lowering a dumbbell during a biceps curl

c)

Box jumps, power jumps, leaps, bounds, throwing a medicine ball

d)

A provider adjusts the speed of movement and resistance to that best suited to the athlete's needs

27.

What are manual resistance exercises?

a)

Exercise when distal segment is not fixed and is freely moving in space

b)

Exercise where distal segment is fixed

c)

A variety of exercises that utilize explosive movements to increase athletic power

d)

A provider adjusts the speed of movement and resistance to that best suited to the athlete's needs

28.

What are concentric exercises?

a)

Exercise when distal segment is not fixed and is freely moving in space

b)

Exercise where distal segment is fixed

c)

The muscle shortens as the weight is lifted

d)

Muscle lengthens or is forcibly stretched while the weight is lowered

29.

What are eccentric exercises?

a)

Exercise when distal segment is not fixed and is freely moving in space

b)

Exercise where distal segment is fixed

c)

The muscle shortens as the weight is lifted

d)

Muscle lengthens or is forcibly stretched while the weight is lowered

30.

What are open chain exercises?

a)

Exercise when distal segment is not fixed and is freely moving in space

b)

Exercise where distal segment is fixed

c)

The muscle shortens as the weight is lifted

d)

Muscle lengthens or is forcibly stretched while the weight is lowered

31.

What are closed chain exercises?

a)

Exercise when distal segment is not fixed and is freely moving in space

b)

Exercise where distal segment is fixed

c)

The muscle shortens as the weight is lifted

d)

Muscle lengthens or is forcibly stretched while the weight is lowered

32.

What is the time frame for the acute phase of rehabilitation?

a)

24 hours after the injury

b)

48-72 hours after the injury

c)

72 hours to about 2 weeks after the injury

d)

Up to 6 months after the injury

33.

What is the time frame for the sub-acute phase of rehabilitation?

a)

24 hours after the injury

b)

48-72 hours after the injury

c)

72 hours to about 2 weeks after the injury

d)

Up to 6 months after the injury

34.

What is the time frame for the intermediate phase of rehabilitation?

a)

24 hours after the injury

b)

48-72 hours after the injury

c)

72 hours to about 2 weeks after the injury

d)

Up to 6 months after the injury

35.

Which of the following is a contraindication of cryotherapy?

a)

Hypersensitivity to cold

b)

Acute sprains

c)

Acute strains

d)

Signs of inflammation

36.

What is a paraffin bath used for?

a)

To increase local circulation to the treated limb

b)

Provide superficial heat to angular, bony areas of the body (hands, feet, wrists)

c)

To reduce swelling, muscle spasm, and pain

d)

To move an entire molecule of medication into injured tissues

37.

Which of the following are soft tissue mobilization methods?

a)

Effleurage

b)

Petrissage

c)

Vibration

d)

All of the above are methods

38.

A basketball player sustains a grade II ankle sprain during a game. The athletic trainer assists the athlete off the court and conducts a sideline evaluation. Athlete presents with moderate pain, swelling, limited ROM, and limited strength. What should your initial treatment plan consist of? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Ice bag

b)

Moist heat pack

c)

Compression wrap

d)

Elevation

e)

Contrast bath

39.

A cross country runner presents with right anterior knee pain. The athletic trainer evaluates the athlete and suspects patellar tendonitis. Which of the following modalities would be appropriate for this athlete? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Moist heat pack before practice

b)

Ice cup massage before practice

c)

Ice bag after practice

d)

All of the above are appropriate

40.

What main joint makes up the shoulder?

a)

Sternoclavicular

b)

Acromioclavicular

c)

Coracoclavicular

d)

Glenohumeral

41.

What is the MOI for a clavicle fracture?

a)

FOOSH

b)

Direct trauma

c)

Falling on the tip of the shoulder

d)

All of the above

42.

A baseball player tripped over the base while running and landed on the tip of his right shoulder. He complains of pain in both the tip of his shoulder and chest. He has difficulty lifting his arm above his shoulder because of the pain. What injuries might result from this mechanism of injury? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

SC joint sprain

b)

AC joint sprain

c)

Clavicle fracture

d)

Anterior dislocation

e)

Rotator cuff strain

43.

What are the muscles that make up the rotator cuff in the shoulder?

a)

Deltoid, trapezius, teres major, and latissimus dorsi

b)

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

c)

Subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres major, supraspinatus

d)

Bicep, tricep, deltoid, pectoralis major

44.

Other than the finger joints, which joint is most commonly dislocated in sports?

a)

AC

b)

SC

c)

GH

d)

All of the above are equally vulnerable to injury

45.

What is tendonitis?

a)

Inflammation of a tendon

b)

Swelling of the muscle

c)

Inflammation of a bursa

d)

Inflammation of a ligament

46.

The information gathered in the history section of the evaluation would be recorded under which part of the SOAP note?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

47.

What type of information should be recorded in the plan section of the SOAP notes?

a)

Findings during observation

b)

Shorts-term goals

c)

Findings during palpation

d)

Findings during history

48.

What are the bones that make up the shoulder complex?

a)

Humerus, radius, ulna, clavicle

b)

Humerus, clavicle, sternum, scapula

c)

Ribs, humerus, radius, ulna

d)

Scapula, rib, humerus, clavicle

49.

How does an athlete develop bursitis in the shoulder?

a)

Trauma

b)

Overuse

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

50.

What is the common mechanism of an anterior glenohumeral dislocation?

a)

Adduction and external rotation

b)

Abduction and internal rotation

c)

Abduction and external rotation

d)

Adduction and internal rotation

51.

What are the soft-tissue structures associated with the shoulder complex? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Bicep

b)

Tricep

c)

Trapezius

d)

Deltoid

52.

The most commonly dislocated bones in the foot are the tarsals.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The Tap (Bump) Test evaluates whether the posterior talofibular ligament has been sprained.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The plantar fascia connects the tibia and fibula.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

A positive Anterior Drawer Test means what has been damaged?

a)

Deltoid ligament

b)

5th metatarsal fracture

c)

Anterior talofibular ligament

d)

Tibiofibular ligament

56.

A March Fracture usually occurs where?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Cuneiforms

c)

Metatarsals

d)

Fibula

57.

The technical term for "shin splints" is:

a)

Medial tibial stress syndrome

b)

Medial malleolus stress syndrome

c)

Acute compartment syndrome

d)

Achilles tendon rupture

58.

A positive Talar Tilt Test means there is possible damage to:

a)

Calcaneofibular ligament

b)

Deltoid ligament

c)

5th metatarsal

d)

Both CF and deltoid ligaments

59.

A volleyball player comes down from a spike on the outside of her foot causing it to invert. She feels a snap and falls to the floor in pain. When palpating the foot you find that her peroneal muscles are tender, and she is extremely point tender over the distal end of her 5th metatarsal. She has no history of ankle problems. What injury do you suspect she may have suffered?

a)

Tinea cruris

b)

Jones fracture

c)

Metatarsalgia

d)

Peroneal tendonitis

60.

Which of the following are possible causes for plantar fasciitis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Shoes

b)

Overweight

c)

Activity on soft surfaces

d)

Overuse

e)

Poor mechanics

61.

Which of the following are a possible cause for MTSS?

a)

Pes planus (flat feet)

b)

Poor conditioning

c)

Activity on hard surfaces

d)

Poor running technique

e)

All of the above

62.

If you suspect an athlete has acute compartment syndrome, that is a medical emergency and they should be referred immediately.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What are possible treatment plans for shin splints? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Thermotherapy

b)

Check shoes

c)

Stretch and strengthen

d)

NSAIDs

e)

Cross train

64.

What is BEST care for a stress fracture?

a)

Athlete should be NWB

b)

Walking boot or cast

c)

No activity for 3-4 weeks

d)

All of the above

65.

Which of the tendons surrounding the ankle joint can potentially develop tendonitis?

a)

ATF

b)

PTF

c)

Deltoid

d)

Achilles

66.

How can fractures in the lower leg and ankle be ruled out?

a)

Tap (Bump) Test

b)

Calf Squeeze (Compression) Test

c)

Ottawa Ankle Rules

d)

All of the above

67.

What is the MOI for an ankle dislocation? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Traction

b)

Twisting

c)

Direct trauma

d)

Tension

68.

A Jones Fracture is an example of what type of fracture?

a)

Avulsion

b)

Epiphyseal

c)

Stress

d)

Acute

69.

A March Fracture is an example of what type of fracture?

a)

Avulsion

b)

Epiphyseal

c)

Stress

d)

Acute

70.

Which athletes are MOST susceptible to stress fractures?

a)

Track or cross country

b)

Volleyball

c)

Gymnasts

d)

Basketball

71.

Which muscles are located on the posterior side of the lower leg?

a)

Gastrocnemius and soleus

b)

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus

c)

Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus

d)

Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis

72.

Which muscles are located on the anterior side of the lower leg?

a)

Gastrocnemius and soleus

b)

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus

c)

Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus

d)

Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis

73.

Which muscles are located on the medial side of the lower leg?

a)

Gastrocnemius and soleus

b)

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus

c)

Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus

d)

Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis

74.

Which muscles are located on the lateral side of the lower leg?

a)

Gastrocnemius and soleus

b)

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus

c)

Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus

d)

Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis

75.

A positive Kleiger's Test means there is possible damage to:

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament

b)

Anterior tibiofibular ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular ligament

d)

Posterior talofibular ligament

76.

Which of the following are part of the Ottawa Ankle Rules? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Point tenderness over both the lateral and medial malleolus

b)

Point tenderness over the cuboid and 5th MT

c)

Point tenderness over the navicular and 5th MT

d)

Athlete is unable to walk 4 consecutive steps

77.

A positive Thompson Test means there is possible damage to:

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament

b)

Deltoid ligament

c)

Achilles tendon

d)

Posterior talofibular ligament

78.

What is the medical diagnosis for a "separated shoulder"?

a)

SC joint sprain

b)

AC joint sprain

c)

Dislocation

d)

Fracture

79.

Plantar fasciitis results in a sharp shooting pain with the first few steps taking in the morning.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

What is the BEST treatment for an athlete with suspected plantar fasciitis?

a)

RICE

b)

Orthotics

c)

Stretching

d)

All of the above

81.

You are assessing a gymnasts’ foot pain and you suspect she may have strained her flexor digitorum longus muscle. What movements may cause her pain?

a)

Toe flexion

b)

Toe extension

c)

Dorsiflexion

d)

Plantarflexion

82.

"When did it occur?" and "How did it occur?". These questions belong to which section of a SOAP Note?

a)

S

b)

O

c)

A

d)

P

83.

Palpation of the injury would go under what category?

a)

S

b)

O

c)

A

d)

P

84.

Vital signs would go under what category?

a)

S

b)

O

c)

A

d)

P

85.

Long-term goals would go under what category?

a)

S

b)

O

c)

A

d)

P

86.
Medications the patient is to receive goes under what category?
a)
S
b)
O
c)
A
d)
P
87.

What are S.O.A.P. notes?

a)

notes for others in healthcare to read

b)

notes for your parents

c)

notes for the patient to review

d)

notes for the public to review once posted online

88.

Where does this information belong?

Patient is limping when they walk into the room.

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

89.

Where does this information belong?

Patient is feeling numbness & tingling going down his arm.

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

90.

Where does this information belong?

Patient felt a pop or a snap

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

91.

Where does this information belong?

Athlete's pain is a 7 out of 10.

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

92.

Where does this information belong?

The athlete hurt this same ankle last year.

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

93.

Where does this information belong?

Swelling

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

94.

Where does this information belong?

Crepitus

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

95.

Where does this information belong?

Manual Muscle Tests

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

96.

Where does this information belong?

Measure Active ROM

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

97.

Where does this information belong?

Feeling local heat

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

98.

Where does this information belong?

Athlete hurt it yesterday.

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

99.

IN ORDER, what are the 6 phases of rehab?

a)

Pain management, proprioception, ROM, endurance, strength, sport-specific activity

b)

Pain management, strength, endurance, ROM, proprioception, sport-specific activity

c)

Pain management, ROM, proprioception, strength, endurance, sport-specific activity

d)

Pain management, endurance, strength, proprioception, ROM, sport-specific activity

100.

Who is the coolest teacher in the Bus Barn?

a)

Coach Cole

b)

Coach Wright

c)

Coach Howard

d)

Mrs. Romero

e)

Mrs. Goetz