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NCM 117 - Prelim Exam

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following parts of the brain is associated with multiple feelings and behaviors and is sometimes referred to as the “emotional brain”?

a)

a. Frontal lobe

b)

b. Thalamus

c)

c. Hypothalamus

d)

d. Limbic system

2.

Which of the following parts of the brain is concerned with visual reception and interpretation?

a)

a. Frontal lobe

b)

b. Parietal lobe

c)

c. Temporal lobe

d)

d. Occipital lobe

3.

Which of the following parts of the brain is associated with voluntary body movement, thinking and judgment, and expression of feeling?

a)

a. Frontal lobe

b)

b. Parietal lobe

c)

c. Temporal lobe

d)

d. Occipital lobe

4.

Which of the following parts of the brain deals with sensory perception and interpretation?

a)

a. Hypothalamus

b)

b. Cerebellum

c)

c. Parietal lobe

d)

d. Hippocampus

5.

After studying the concepts of personality development, the nursing student understands that Freud is to psychoanalytic theory as Peplau is to:

a)

Psychosocial theory.

b)

Nursing theory.

c)

Interpersonal theory.

d)

Object relations theory.

6.

A client on an in-patient psychiatric unit has a nursing diagnosis of noncompliance R/T not taking antipsychotic medications. The nurse is functioning in which role when the nurse checks for “cheeking”?

a)

Advocate.

b)

Educator.

c)

Medication manager.

d)

Counselor.

7.

It is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being without the absence of disease or infirmity.

a)

Mental Health

b)

Health

c)

Psychiatric Health

d)

Psychiatric-Mental Health

8.

A state of emotional, psychological, and social wellness evidenced by satisfying interpersonal relationships, effective behavior, and coping, positive self-concept, and emotional stability

a)

Mental Health

b)

Health

c)

Psychiatric Health

d)

Psychiatric-Mental Health

9.

Examines the nature and development of abnormal behavior, thoughts, and feelings.

a)

Psychoanalysis

b)

Psychopathology

c)

Psychogenesis

d)

Pathophysiology

10.

The view that abnormal mental function is due the occupation by an evil being of the mind of a person.

a)

Somatogenesis

b)

Demonology

c)

Psychogenesis

11.

The view that disturbed body function produces mental abnormality.

a)

Somatogenesis

b)

Demonology

c)

Psychogenesis

12.

The belief that mental disturbance has psychological origins.

a)

Somatogenesis

b)

Demonology

c)

Psychogenesis

13.

Created in the 15th century for the care/treatment of the mentally ill.

a)

Homecare

b)

Mental Hospital

c)

Asylums

14.

Advocated for humane treatment in 1793 for the mentally ill patients.

a)

Pinel

b)

Kraepelin

c)

Rush

15.

Suggested that clusters of symptoms form a syndrome.


a)

Pinel

b)

Kraepelin

c)

Rush

16.

One gains recognition of his/her own feelings, beliefs, and attitudes.

a)

Self-Awareness

b)

Environment Awareness

c)

Personal Awareness

17.

These are individual differences formed in childhood.

a)

Behavior

b)

Heredity

c)

Personality

18.

A theory that focuses on behaviors, feelings, thought, and experiences of each individual.

a)

Intrapersonal

b)

Interpersonal

c)

Extrapersonal

19.

A feeling of tension, distress, and discomfort produced by a perceived or threatened loss of inner control.

a)

Anxiety

b)

Behavior

c)

Pleasure

d)

Depression

20.

Principle that strives to satisfy desires and reduce inner tension.

a)

Perfection

b)

Reality

c)

Pleasure

21.

Solves problems by planning & acting.


a)

Perfection

b)

Reality

c)

Pleasure

22.

Reasoning to find an excuse to do it anyway.

a)

Sublimate

b)

Repression

c)

Rationalize

23.

It assists the ego in the control of id impulses.

a)

Guilt

b)

Conscience

c)

Counseling

24.

A conflict manifesting the attachment of a son towards the parent of the opposite sex.

a)

Elektra Complex

b)

Oedipal Complex

c)

Phallic Complex

25.

The basic psychic energy of self.

a)

Id

b)

Ego

c)

Superego

26.

Generates the feeling of guilt.

a)

Libido

b)

Conscience

c)

Impulsiveness

27.

Most important activity in psychiatric nursing.

a)

Smiling

b)

Talking

c)

Listening

d)

Playing

28.

In psychiatric nursing, a nurse should be:

a)

physically active but psychologically passive.

b)

psychologically active but physically passive.

29.

When treating clients, we need to focus on the weakness and assets of the individual.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

It is the recognition that objects exist even when no longer visible.

a)

Assimilation

b)

Object Permanence

c)

Accommodation

d)

Conservation

31.

The process of changing cognitive structures in order to accept something from the environment.

a)

Assimilation

b)

Object Permanence

c)

Accommodation

d)

Conservation

32.

During what period does the child develop their ability to coordinate sensory input with motor actions?

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Pre-Operational

c)

Concrete Operational

d)

Formal Operational

33.

It states that physical quantities remain constant despite changes to shape or appearance.

a)

Assimilation

b)

Object Permanence

c)

Accommodation

d)

Conservation

34.

A decrease in which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in depression?

a)

GABA, acetylcholine, and aspartate

b)

Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

c)

Somatostatin, substance P, and glycine

d)

Glutamate, histamine, and opioid peptides

35.

At a synapse, the determination of further impulse transmission is accomplished by means of which of the following?

a)

Potassium ions

b)

Interneurons

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

The myelin sheath

36.

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the use of restraints? Check all that applies.

a)

Restraints may never be initiated without a physician’s order

b)

Orders for restraints must be reissued by a physician every 2 hours for children and adolescents.

c)

Clients in restraints must be observed and assessed every hour for issues regarding circulation, nutrition, respiration, hydration, and elimination.

d)

Adults in restraints must have an in-person reevaluation by a physician every 8 hours.

37.

Guidelines relating to “duty to warn” state that a therapist should consider taking action to warn a third party when his or her client (select all that apply):

a)

threatens violence toward another individual.

b)

identifies a specific intended victim.

c)

has command hallucinations

d)

reveals paranoid delusions about another individual

38.

The right to determine one’s own destiny is to autonomy; as the duty to benefit or promote the good of others is to:

a)

Nonmaleficence.

b)

Justice

c)

Veracity.

d)

Beneficence.

39.

A nursing student observes an incorrect dosage of medication being given to a client receiving electroconvulsive therapy. To observe the ethical principle of veracity, which action would the nursing student take?

a)

Keep the information confidential to avoid harm to others.

b)

Inform the student’s instructor and the client’s primary nurse, and document the situation.

c)

Tell only the client about the incident because the decision about actions would be determined only by the client.

d)

Because the client was not harmed, the incident would not need to be reported.

40.

A nursing student states to the instructor, “I’m afraid of mentally ill clients. They are all violent.” Which statement would the instructor use to clarify this perception for the student?

a)

“Even though mentally ill clients are often violent, there are ways to de-escalate these behaviors.”

b)

“A very few clients with mental illness exhibit violent behaviors.”

c)

“There are medications that can be given to clients to avoid violent behaviors.”

d)

“Only paranoid clients exhibit violent behaviors.”

41.

Which action should be taken by the clinician when there is reasonable certainty that a client is going to harm someone? Select all that apply.

a)

Assess the threat of violence toward another.

b)

Identify the person being threatened.

c)

Notify the identified victim.

d)

Notify only law enforcement authorities to protect confidentiality.

e)

Consider petitioning the court for continued commitment.

42.

On which client would a nurse on an in-patient psychiatric unit appropriately use four-point restraints?

a)

A client who is hostile and threatening the staff and other clients.

b)

A client who is intrusive and demanding and requires added attention.

c)

A client who is noncompliant with medications and treatments.

d)

A client who splits staff and manipulates other clients.

43.

A nursing student uses a client’s full name on an interpersonal process recording submitted to the student’s instructor. What is the instructor’s priority intervention?

a)

Reinforce the importance of accurate documentation, including the client’s name.

b)

Correct and remind the student of the importance of maintaining client confidentiality.

c)

Tell the student that because the client has been deemed incompetent, confidentiality is not an issue.

d)

Tell the student that because the client is involuntarily committed, confidentiality is not an issue.

44.

The phone rings at the nurse’s station of an in-patient psychiatric facility. The caller asks to speak with Mr. Hawkins, a client in room 200. Which nursing response protects this client’s right to autonomy and confidentiality?

a)

“I am sorry you cannot talk to Mr. Hawkins.”

b)

“I cannot confirm or deny that Mr. Hawkins is a client admitted here.”

c)

“I’ll see if Mr. Hawkins wants to talk with you.”

d)

“I’m sorry, Mr. Hawkins is not taking any calls.”

45.

The nurse on an in-patient psychiatric unit documents the following in a client’s chart: “Seems to have no regard for legal or ethical standards. A problem client who needs constant limit-setting.” Which response by the nurse manager reflects the potential liability related to this charting entry?

a)

“Documenting this breeches the client’s right to confidentiality.”

b)

“Documenting this puts you at risk for malpractice.”

c)

“Documenting this puts you at risk for defamation of character.”

d)

“Documenting this breeches the client’s right to informed consent.”

46.

On an in-patient psychiatric setting, which action reflects the nurse’s role of teacher?

a)

The nurse assesses potentially stressful characteristics of the environment and develops strategies to eliminate or decrease stressors.

b)

The nurse orients new clients to the unit and assists them to fit comfortably into the environment.

c)

The nurse assists the client and family members to cope with the effects of mental illness.

d)

The nurse is the guardian of the therapeutic environment

47.

On an in-patient psychiatric unit, a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder states, “I’m so glad that the Zoloft that my doctor just prescribed will quickly help me with my mood.” Which nursing response reflects the role of teacher?

a)

“I’ll set up a time with your doctor to clarify information about this medication.”

b)

“Let’s talk about how you feel about taking this new medication.”

c)

“It’s great that you have learned this information about your new medication.”

d)

“This medication will probably take 2 to 4 weeks to be effective.”

48.

Which is an example of appropriate psychosexual development?

a)

An 18-month-old relieves anxiety by the use of a pacifier

b)

A 5-year-old boy focuses on relationships with other boys.

c)

A 7-year-old girl identifies with her mother

d)

A 12-month-old begins learning about independence and control.

49.

A 25-year-old client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is admitted to an in-patient psychiatric unit. Since being fired 2 months ago, the client stays inside and avoids others. Which outcome reflects this client’s developmental task assessment as described by Erikson?

a)

Stagnation.

b)

Despair.

c)

Isolation.

d)

Role confusion.

50.

A 7-year-old boy is active in sports and has received a most-improved player award at his baseball tournament. Which outcome reflects this child’s developmental task assessment as described by Erikson?

a)

Autonomy.

b)

Identity.

c)

Industry.

d)

Initiative.