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WorksheetsImmunology Quiz Week 1 (Lectures 1-4)
Total questions: 64
Worksheet time: 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What types of pathogens is innate immunity able to protect against?
a)
Extracellular bacteria, parasites & fungi
b)
Intracellular bacteria & parasites
c)
Intracellular Viruses
d)
Extracellular Parasites
e)
Previously seen foreign pathogens
2.
What are the dominant immunological cell-types for innate immunity?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Macrophages
c)
NK cells
d)
Dendritic Cell
e)
Mast Cells
3.
Innate immunity responds to non-microbial substances
a)
false
b)
true
4.
Innate immunity has the capability for immunological memory.
a)
false
b)
true
5.
What generative organ generates all immune cells?
a)
Bone Marrow
b)
Appendix
c)
Lymph Node
d)
Tonsil
e)
Spleen
6.
A committed progenitor cell arises from which stem cell type?
a)
Hematopoetic
b)
Common progenitor
c)
Dendritipoetic
d)
Lymphatic
e)
Thoracic
7.
Which of the following are cytokines, important for immune cell differentiation? (one could be considered a subtype of another)
a)
Interleukins
b)
Interferons
c)
Chemokines
d)
Interkines
e)
Myeloid
8.
In the blood, what cell types can arise from a myeloid progenitor cell?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Eosinophils
c)
Basophils
d)
Monocytes
e)
Mast Cells
9.
Which of the following are considered sentinel immune cells?
a)
Immature dendritic cells
b)
Mast Cells
c)
Macrophages
d)
B-Cells
e)
T-Cells
10.
Which of the following is involved with bacterium phagocytosis mediated by a macrophage?
a)
Fusion to pseudopodia
b)
Phagosomal formation
c)
Lysosome-phagosome fusion
d)
Lysosomal enzyme digestion
e)
Release of lysosomal products
11.
What cytokines involved with NK cells trigger killing of macrophages and their engulfed cargo?
a)
IL-12
b)
IFN-y
c)
IL-23
d)
IFN-d
e)
IFN-a
12.
Neutrophils' function in innate immunity includes…
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Release of ROS/RNS
c)
Antimicrobial peptides
d)
Cytokine release
e)
Inflammatory mediation
13.
Macrophages' function in innate immunity includes…
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Inflammatory mediation
c)
Antigen presentation
d)
Release of ROS/RNS
e)
Complementation and cytokine release
14.
Dendritic cells' function in innate immunity includes…
a)
Antigen presentation
b)
Costimulatory signals
c)
Release of ROS
d)
Release of interferons/cytokines
e)
Inflammatory mediation
15.
Natural killer (NK) cells' function in innate immunity includes…
a)
Virally-infected cell lysis
b)
Interferon signalling
c)
Macrophage activation
d)
Inflammatory mediation
e)
Phagocytosis
16.
Which of the following cells mediates immunoserveillance?
a)
Dendritic Cells
b)
Neutrophils
c)
Macrophages
d)
NK Cells
e)
Mast Cells
17.
Innate immunity mechanisms exist prior to microbe exposure.
a)
true
b)
false
18.
Innate immunity components include…
a)
Epithelial barriers
b)
Leukocytes
c)
Circulating effector proteins
d)
Cytokines
e)
B-Cells
19.
The response of the innate immune system could be described as...
a)
Rapid
b)
Nonspecific
c)
Lacking immunological memory
d)
Slow
e)
Specific
20.
Which of the following layers is not present in a gram-positive bacteria?
a)
Outer membrane
b)
Lipopolysaccharide
c)
Lipoteichoic acid
d)
Surface protein
e)
Cell membrane
21.
What's another name for LPS?
a)
Endotoxin
b)
Exotoxin
c)
Lipotoxin
d)
Bactotoxin
e)
Septotoxin
22.
What portion of LPS can cause shock?
a)
Lipid A
b)
Core oligosaccharide
c)
O-antigen
23.
Which TLR recognizes LPS?
a)
TLR-4
b)
TLR-3
c)
TLR-2
d)
TLR-5
e)
TLR-6
24.
Which TLRs are located on the plasma membrane?
a)
TLR-2&6
b)
TLR-1&2
c)
TLR-5
d)
TLR-4
e)
TLR-9
25.
Which TLRs are located on the endosomal membrane?
a)
TLR-3
b)
TLR-7
c)
TLR-9
d)
TLR-2&6
e)
TLR-1&2
26.
What would the benefit of a TLR-4 antagonist (e.g. Eritoran) be?
a)
Reduce severe sepsis symptoms
b)
Induce inflammatory response
c)
Induce complementation pathway
d)
Avoid viral skin infections
e)
Induce interferon signalling
27.
Imiquimod [Aldara, Zyclara] (a TLR-7 agonist) is used for treating what?
a)
Viral skin infection
b)
Bacterial skin infection
c)
Fungal skin infection
d)
Sepsis
e)
Endotoxin-mediated sepsis
28.
What are the majure features of innate immunity?
a)
Pathogen-assosicated molecular pattern recognition
b)
Germline encoding
c)
Nonclonal receptors
d)
No memory
e)
Memory
29.
What are the 3 outcomes of complement activation?
a)
Recruitment of inflammatory cells
b)
Pathogen opsonization
c)
Pathogen killing
d)
Macrophage activation
e)
Dendritic activation
30.
What are the complement activation mechanisms?
a)
Lectin
b)
Alternative pathways
c)
Classical pathway
d)
Endotoxin pathway
e)
Inflammatory pathway
31.
Which component of C3 opsonizes in the complement pathway?
a)
C3b
b)
C3a
c)
C3c
d)
C3d
e)
C3e
32.
Which component of the complement pathway forms the membrane attack complex?
a)
C9
b)
C8
c)
C7
d)
C6
e)
C5
33.
Innate immune response to infection can best be described as…
a)
Biphasic
b)
Monophasic
c)
Triphasic
d)
Induced
e)
Complement
34.
What are some methods that extracellular bacteria have developed to evade the innate immune response?
a)
Inhibition of complement activation
b)
Phagocytosis resistance
c)
ROS scavenging
d)
Inhibition of phagolysosome formation
e)
Disruption of phagosomal membrane
35.
What are some methods that intracellular bacteria have developed to evade the innate immune response?
a)
Inhibition of phagolysosome formation
b)
ROS/RNS inactivation
c)
Disruption of phagosomal membrane
d)
Phagocytosis resistance
e)
Inhibition of complement activation
36.
Innate immune receptors are pre-adapted for PAMPs
a)
true
b)
false
37.
Lymphocytes only have one type of immunological receptor
a)
true
b)
false
38.
Adaptive immune receptors are pre-adapted for PAMPs
a)
false
b)
true
39.
There is a limit to the variants of immunological receptors in lymphocytes.
a)
false
b)
true
40.
What generative organs are important in the context of ADAPTIVE immunity?
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Lymph Node
d)
Tonsils
e)
Appendix
41.
Which of the following are leukocytes?
a)
Lymphocytes
b)
Basophils
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Monocytes
e)
Eosinophils
42.
An antigen is a substance that is recognized and responded to by the adaptive immune system
a)
true
b)
false
43.
What is the difference between an activated and naïve lymphocyte?
a)
Antigen activation
b)
Differentiation and functionality
c)
Antigen presentation
d)
Phagocytic
e)
Complementation and cytokine release
44.
Which of the following are lymphoid progenitor cells able to become?
a)
T Helper cells
b)
Cytotoxic T Cells
c)
Plasma Cells
d)
Dendritic Cells
e)
Eosinophils
45.
Mature dendritic cells reside in the peripheral tissue
a)
false
b)
true
46.
Which of the following reside in peripheral tissue?
a)
T Helper cells
b)
Cytotoxic T Cells
c)
Plasma Cells
d)
Mature dendritic Cells
e)
Immature dendritic cells
47.
Thymocytes differentiate into which cells?
a)
T Helper cells
b)
Cytotoxic T Cells
c)
Plasma Cells
d)
Dendritic cells
e)
Natural Killer cells
48.
Dendritic cells are generated by which lineage?
a)
Myeloid
b)
Lymphoid
c)
Neither
49.
Humoral immunity involves which portion of the body?
a)
Bodily fluids
b)
Cytosol
c)
Skin surface
d)
Humerus
e)
Humira
50.
Cell-mediated immunity involves which portion of the body?
a)
Cytosol
b)
Bodily fluids
c)
Skin surface
d)
Humerus
e)
Humira
51.
An infected macrophage will have which lymphocyte respond to it?
a)
T Helper
b)
Cytotoxic T Cells
c)
Plasma Cells
d)
Dendritic Cells
e)
Natural Killer cells
52.
An intracellular microbe will have which lymphocyte respond to it?
a)
Cytotoxic T Cell
b)
T Helper
c)
Plasma Cell
d)
Dendritic Cells
e)
Natural Killer cells
53.
Which cell type produces antibodies?
a)
B Cells
b)
T Cells
c)
Neither
54.
Which cell types possess antigen receptors?
a)
Naïve B & T cells
b)
T Cells
c)
Memory Cells
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Monocytes
55.
What is the purpose of clonal selsection?
a)
To remove self-reactive lymphocytes
b)
To remove non-effective lymphocytes
c)
To remove malfunctional lymphocytes
d)
To remove lymphocytes with broad specificities
e)
To generate a large repertoire of effector lymphocytes for a foreign antigen
56.
What are the principles of clonal selection?
a)
Each lymphocyte bears a single type of receptor with unique specificity
b)
Interaction between a foreign molecule and a lymphocyte leads to activation
c)
The differentiated effector cells will bear receptors of identical specificity from the original lymphocyte
d)
Lymphocytes with self-reactivity will be deleted and are absent
e)
None of the above
57.
What are the peripheral lymphoid organs?
a)
Lymph Nodes
b)
Spleen
c)
Mucosal and cutaneous tissue
d)
None of the above
e)
Blood
58.
Which section of a lymph node do B cells reside?
a)
Follicle
b)
Paracortex
c)
Afferent vessel
d)
Efferent vessel
e)
Venule
59.
Which section of a lymph node do T cells reside?
a)
Paracortex
b)
Follicle
c)
Afferent vessel
d)
Efferent vessel
e)
venule
60.
Which cell type bridges innate & adapative immune responses?
a)
Dendritic Cells
b)
T Cells
c)
B Cells
d)
Lymph cells
e)
None of the above
61.
Where do immature dendritic cells travel to reach maturity?
a)
Lymph Nodes
b)
Spleen
c)
Mucosal and cutaneous tissue
d)
Blood
e)
Bone marrow
62.
What signals are required for lymphocyte activation?
a)
Antigen-receptor binding of T-cell with dendritic cell
b)
Antigen-receptor binding of B-cell with T-cell
c)
Antigen-receptor binding of B-cell with Dendritic cell
d)
Antigen-receptor binding of T-Cell with secondary lymph tissue
e)
Antigen-receptor binding of macrophage with dendritic cell
63.
What are some some functions of NK cells?
a)
APC maturation
b)
T Cell inhibition
c)
T Cell differentiation
d)
T Cell killing
e)
APC elimination
64.
NK cells have "immune" memory
a)
true
b)
false
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