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OPHTHAL QUIZ

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In central retinal artery occlusion ,a cherry red spot is due to?

a)

Hemorrhage at macula

b)

Increased choroidal perfusion

c)

Increase in retinal perfusion at macula

d)

The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids

2.

Identify the retinal pathology?

a)

CRAO

b)

CRVO

c)

Diabetic retinopathy

d)

Traumatic retinopathy

3.

Identify the marked

a)

Normal optic disc

b)

Optic disc pit

c)

Normal macula

d)

Macular hole

4.

Optic nerve sheath fenestration can be done for?

a)

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

b)

Optic nerve sheath glioma

c)

Optic disc drusen

d)

Optic disc neuropathy in Glaucoma

5.

Commonest lesion that hinders vision in Diabetic Retinopathy is?

a)

Macular edema

b)

Microaneurysm

c)

Retinal hemorrhage

d)

Retinal detachment

6.

Following is due to?

a)

Drug toxicity

b)

Smoking and alcohol

c)

Repeated trauma

d)

High myopia

7.

In retinal detachment,fluid accumulates between?

a)

Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer

b)

Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium

c)

Nerve fibre layer and rest of retina

d)

Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruchs membrane

8.

Identify the lesion

a)

Intraocular foreign body

b)

Cysticercosis

c)

Tuberculoma

d)

Hamartomas

9.

Topical atropine is contraindicated in?

a)

Retinoscopy in children

b)

Iridocyclitis

c)

Corneal ulcer

d)

Primary angle closure glaucoma

10.

After 48 hrs of catract extraction operation,a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss.On examination,eye looked red with ciliary injection,corneal edema and absent red reflex,the first suspicion must be?

a)

Secondary glaucoma

b)

Anterior uveitis

c)

Bacterial endophthalmitis

d)

Acute conjunctivitis

11.

What field defect is most likely in this patient?

a)

Right homonymous hemianopia

b)

Left homonymous hemianopia

c)

Binasal hemianopia

d)

Bitemporal hemianopia

12.

Arden index is used for interpretation of?

a)

Visual evoked response

b)

Electrooculogram

c)

Electroretinogram

d)

Visual field charting

13.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma?

a)

Has a peak incidence in first decade

b)

Arises from oligodendrocytes

c)

Causes meningeal hyperplasia

d)

Associated with type 1 neurofibromatosis

14.

The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm?

a)

Crystalline lens

b)

Sclera

c)

Corneal epithelium

d)

Epithelium of lacrimal glands

15.

Which laser is used for capsulotomy?

a)

Diode laser

b)

Carbon dioxide laser

c)

Eximer laser

d)

ND-YAG

16.

One of the earliest feature of Anterior uveitis includes:

a)

Keratic precipitates

b)

Hypopyon

c)

Posterior synechiae

d)

Aqueous flare

17.

Proptosis is present in the following conditions except:

a)

Horner syndrome

b)

Orbital cellulitis

c)

Thyroid ophthalmopathy

d)

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

18.

Cattle truck appearance is seen in?

a)

Incomplete arterial occlusion

b)

Complete arterial occlusion

c)

Incomplete venous occlusion

d)

Complete venous occlusion

19.

Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by?

a)

Epithelium

b)

Substantia propria

c)

Descemets membrane

d)

Endothelium

20.

Phacolytic glaucoma is best treated by:

a)

Fistulizing operation

b)

Cataract extraction

c)

Cyclodestructive procedure

d)

Miotics and beta blockers

21.

Connect the following picture to reach to a dianosis

a)

Wardenburg syndrome

b)

Retinitis pigmentosa

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Marfan syndrome

22.

Identify the following instrument:

a)

OCT

b)

Ultrasound biomicroscopy

c)

Corneal topography

d)

Perimetry

23.

T sign on B scan is seen in:

a)

Subretinal fluid

b)

Exudative RD

c)

Scleritis

d)

Papilledema

24.

Name the instrument and its use:

a)

Anterior corneal surface analysis

b)

Posterior corneal surface analysis

c)

Corneal thickness analysis

d)

Corneal diameter analysis

25.

Identify the type of lens

a)

PMMA ACIOL

b)

Iris fixated ACIOL

c)

Capsular bag PCIOL

d)

Scleral fixative IOL

26.

Prism test is done for:

a)

Strabismus

b)

Amblyopia

c)

Keratoconus

d)

Refractive errors

27.

PEEK sign is feature of:

a)

Thyroid ophthalmopathy

b)

Congenital cataract

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Abducens nerve palsy

28.

Fasenella servat operation is done for:

a)

Senile ectropion

b)

Ptosis

c)

Squint

d)

Lid laceration repair

29.

Identify the condition

a)

Congenital Horners

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Lawrence moon biedl syndrome

d)

Retinoblastoma

30.

Cilioretinal artery is a branch of:

a)

Anterior ciliary artery

b)

Posterior ciliary artery

c)

Direct branch of ophthalmic artery

d)

Central retinal artery

31.

What percentage of cones overall reside outside the foveal region?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

90%

32.

What diagnostic device is used for evaluation of contrast sensitivity?

a)

Pelli-robson test

b)

Anomaloscope

c)

Farnsworth-munsell100-hue test

d)

Ishihara plates

33.

What sickle cell hemoglobinopathy is most commonly associated with proliferative sickle cell retinopathy?

a)

Sickle cell trait(AS)

b)

Sickle cell homozygote(SS)

c)

Sickle cell hemoglobin C(SC)

d)

Sickle cell thalassemia(SThal)

34.

What is the most characteristic abnormality that can be seen on fluorescein angiography in a patient central serous chorioretinopathy (CSC)?

a)

Smoke stack pattern

b)

multifocal hyperfluorescence

c)

hyperfluorescent dot

d)

Lacy hyperfluorescence

35.

What is the mode of inheritance for Von Hippel lindau syndrome

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X-Linked

d)

Sporadic

36.

In a premature infant born at 29 weeks gestation, what is the appropriate time for the initial screening examination for Retinopathy of prematurity(ROP)

a)

At birth

b)

1-3 weeks after birth

c)

4-6 weeks after birth

d)

No examination indicated

37.

What is the reason that enucleation is recommended in No light perception eyes within 14 days of penetrating injury?

a)

Sympathetic ophthalmia

b)

Chronic pain

c)

Bacterial endophthalmitis

d)

Lens associated uveitis

38.

Supplementation with Vit A & E is recommended in patients with what condition?

a)

Abetalipoproteinemia

b)

Refsum disease

c)

Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis

d)

Zellweger syndrome

39.

What is a ciliopathy associated with pigmentary retinopathy & hearing loss?

a)

Usher syndrome

b)

Maternally inherited diabetes and deafness

c)

Bardet-Biedl syndrome

d)

Joubert syndrome

40.

What kind of cataract is associated with chalcosis?

a)

Oil drop cataract

b)

Anterior subcapsular cataract

c)

Posterior subcapsular cataract

d)

Sunflower cataract

41.

What systemic medication is most likely to cause severe intra operative floppy iris syndrome(IFIS)?

a)

Alfuzosin

b)

Doxazosin C

c)

Tamsulosin

d)

Terazosin

42.

What is the mode of inheritance of Axenfeld Rieger syndrome?

a)

X-linked

b)

Sporadic

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

Autosomal dominant

43.

What type of tonometer utilizes the Imbert fick principle for measurement of IOP?

a)

Pneumatonometer

b)

Schiotz tonometer

c)

Perkins tonometer

d)

Dynamic contour tonometer

44.

Mutations in which gene are associated with pseudoexfoliation syndrome?

a)

CYP1B1

b)

FOXC1

c)

LOXL1

d)

PITX2

45.

Lateral muscular branch of ophthalmic artery supplies which extraocular muscle?

a)

Superior rectus

b)

Medial rectus

c)

Inferior rectus

d)

Inferior oblique

46.

With what syndrome has Duane retraction syndrome is associated?

a)

Goldenhar syndrome

b)

Kleinfelter syndrome

c)

Turner syndrome

d)

Waardenburg syndrome

47.

What percentage of retinoblastoma cases arise from somatic non hereditary mutation of both alleles of RB1 gene in a retinal cell?

a)

10%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

48.

What is the most common ocular manifestation of abusive head trauma?

a)

Corneal abrasion

b)

Hyphema

c)

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

d)

Retinal hemorrhage

49.

Visual evoked potential (VEP) testing is most helpful in diagnosis of which condition?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Compressive optic neuropathy

c)

Demyelinating optic neuropathy

d)

Cone dystrophy

50.

Damage to what anatomical pathway causes Balint syndrome?

a)

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

b)

Ventral occipitotemporal

c)

Dorsal occipitoparietal

d)

Optic tract

51.

What brainstem structure is responsible for generating horizontal saccades?

a)

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

b)

Paramedian pontine reticular formation

c)

Interstitial nucleus of cajal

d)

Rostral interstitial nucleus of medial longitudinal fasciculus

52.

Touton giant cells are typically observed in histologic specimens obtained from patients with what disorder?

a)

Bacterial keratitis

b)

Juvenile xanthogranuloma

c)

Acanthamoeba keratitis

d)

Follicular cell lymphoma

53.

A corneal scraping in the setting of keratitis demonstrates double walled cysts. What is the etiology of this keratitis?

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Herpes viris

c)

Acanthamoeba

d)

Fusarium

54.

Where is the far point of hyperopic eye?

a)

At optical infinity

b)

In front of the eye a finite distance away

c)

Coincidence with the nodal point

d)

Behind the eye

55.

What technique allows objective measurement of astigmatism?

a)

Jackson cross cylinder test

b)

Astigmatic dial test

c)

Retinoscopy

d)

Stenopeic slit test

56.

During catarct surgery, capsulorrhexis is performed on the anterior lens capsule. The lens capsule is composed of what type of collagen?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

57.

What imaging study is best to evaluate a patient with homonymous hemianopia?

a)

MRI with contrast

b)

MRI without contrast

c)

CT with contrast

d)

CT without contrast

58.

The gene product that is defective in cases of retinoblastoma has what cellular function?

a)

Transport cell wall proteins

b)

Regulates cell cycle

c)

Contributes to cellular structure

d)

Produces energy

59.

In what quadrant is a chorioretinal coloboma most likely to be formed?

a)

Inferonasal

b)

Superonasal

c)

Inferotemporal

d)

Superotemporal

60.

What agent used in the therapy of uveitis may induce anti chimeric antibodies?

a)

Abatacept

b)

Infliximab

c)

Interferon alpha-2a/2b

d)

Tacrolimus