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WorksheetsCardio Q6
Total questions: 59
Worksheet time: 30mins
You are caring for a 65 year-old male who is pulseless and apneic. The monitor reveals a regular rhythm with a rate of 40, QRS <0.12, and no P waves. What is your next step?
Suction the airway and intubate.
Initiate an IV and administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP.
Begin CPR.
Defibrillate at 360 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
You are assessing a patient with a chief complaint of chest pain. Which of the following history questions must the paramedic ask regarding the onset of symptoms?
Can you describe the pain?
Does anything aggravate or relieve the pain?
When exactly did the pain start?
Can you rate your pain on a 0 to 10 scale?
You are caring for a 50 year-old male diabetic complaining of chest pain. Which of the following medications would you specifically question him about prior to nitroglycerin administration?
Tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or sildenafil (Viagra).
Acetaminophen (Tylenol), diphenhydramine (Benadryl), or ibuprofen (Motrin).
Digoxin (Lanoxin), diltiazem (Cardizem), or Verapamil (Calan).
Metoprolol (Toprol XL), propranolol (Inderal), albuterol (Ventolin).
You are caring for a 50 year-old female complaining of chest pain. According to the 2020 American Heart Association guidelines, supplemental oxygen should be provided if the SpO2 is:
Below 90 percent.
Below 94 percent.
Between 95–100 percent.
Above 94 percent, but less than 100 percent.
Which of the following is the correct dose of aspirin for the patient experiencing chest pain?
162–325 mg
81–164 mg
325–650 mg
500–1000 mg
You are resuscitating a 50 year-old male in VF cardiac arrest. The patient has just been defibrillated. What is your next step?
Initiate immediate transcutaneous pacing.
Perform a pulse check for no more than 10 seconds.
Defibrillate again at the same Joule setting.
Resume immediate CPR.
A type of angina that most often occurs at rest or without a precipitating cause is:
Typical angina.
Prinzmetal's angina.
Stable angina.
Myocardial infarction.
A type of myocardial infarction in which the entire thickness of the myocardium is destroyed is:
A non-Q wave MI.
A subendocardial infarction.
An NSTEMI.
A transmural infarction.
A type of myocardial infarction which is referred to as a non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a:
Transmural infarction.
Subendocardial infarction.
STEMI.
Q wave MI.
The window of time in which an IV fibrinolytic can be given for a STEMI is less than:
12 hours from the onset of symptoms.
9 hours from the onset of symptoms.
4 hours from the time the symptoms were reported.
6 hours from the time the symptoms were reported.
Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the treatment of choice for STEMI when it can be performed effectively with a first medical contact-to-balloon time of:
Less than 90 minutes.
Less than 6 hours.
Less than 3 hours.
Less than 12 hours.
You are caring for a 68 year-old male presenting with dyspnea, tachycardia, crackles, coughing, and blood-tinged sputum. The most likely cause of the patient's condition is:
NSTEMI.
Right ventricular failure.
Left ventricular failure.
Angina pectoris.
You are caring for a 70 year-old female presenting with dyspnea, tachycardia, JVD, lower extremity edema, ascites, and hepatomegaly. The most likely cause of the patient's condition is:
Left ventricular failure.
Right ventricular failure.
STEMI.
Pulmonary embolism.
You are caring for a patient complaining of acute onset of chest pain. His vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 68/40, heart rate of 40 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 24 per minute and a pO2 of 92%. What is the most likely cause of this patient's hypotension?
Hypoxia.
Systemic vasodilation.
Bradycardia.
Massive peripheral vasoconstriction.
You are caring for a patient complaining of acute onset of chest pain. His vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 60/40, heart rate of 200 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 24 per minute and a SpO2 of 92%. What is the most likely cause of this patient's hypotension?
Massive peripheral vasoconstriction.
Hypoxia.
Systemic vasodilation.
Tachycardia.
Pulmonary embolism can result in right ventricular failure because:
Right ventricular afterload is increased.
Left ventricular preload is decreased.
Right ventricular preload is increased.
Left ventricular afterload is decreased.
You are caring for a 54 year-old male presenting with headache, dysarthria, visual disturbances, and confusion. His blood pressure is 220/120 mmHg and his pulse rate is 102. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's condition?
Preeclampsia.
Hypertensive emergency.
Cardiogenic shock.
Tachyarrhythmia.
The most severe form of pump failure is:
Congestive heart failure.
A tachyarrhythmia.
A hypertensive emergency.
Cardiogenic shock.
You are caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock due to an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
CPAP, IV bolus of isotonic fluids, and calcium channel blockers.
Oxygenation, synchronized cardioversion, and beta blockers.
Oxygenation, IV bolus of isotonic fluids, and vasopressors.
CPR, defibrillation, and antiarrhythmics.
You are transporting a 58 year-old male with chest pain who is experiencing an inferior wall MI. Supplemental oxygen and an IV of NS has been initiated. En route the patient becomes unresponsive, pulseless, apneic and ventricular fibrillation is observed on the cardiac monitor. What is your next step?
CPR until defibrillation equipment is ready, then defibrillate.
CPR for 2 minutes, then re-assess rhythm and pulse.
Administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP.
Immediate transcutaneous pacing.
You have arrived to the scene of a 70 year-old female who was found unresponsive by her husband about 6 minutes prior to arrival. She is pulseless and apneic. No bystander CPR was initiated. What is your next step?
Start CPR while monitor/defibrillator is attached, then assess rhythm.
CPR for 2 minutes, then assess rhythm and pulse.
Administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP.
Transcutaneous pacing.
What differentiates unstable angina from stable angina?
Stable angina occurs at rest, whereas unstable angina occurs during exertion.
Stable angina will not lead to myocardial infarction, whereas unstable angina will always lead to MI if left untreated
Stable angina can be relieved with rest, whereas unstable angina cannot be relieved without medication.
Stable angina is similar in pattern to previous episodes of chest pain, whereas unstable angina is different from previous episodes in some way.
A hereditary condition that affects patients between 30 and 40 years of age and is associated with high risk of sudden cardiac death is:
Brugada syndrome.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Commotio cordis.
Prinzmetal's angina.
You are resuscitating an adult patient in VF cardiac arrest. After the last defibrillation 2 minutes of CPR was performed. The monitor reveals sinus tachycardia and strong carotid and radial pulses are palpated. Ventilations are being assisted with an oropharyngeal airway in place and a BVM device. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Administer norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/kg/min IV.
Obtain a second IV access.
Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Consider an advanced airway and waveform capnography.
You are caring for an adult patient who experienced ROSC after VF cardiac arrest. He is intubated and waveform capnography monitoring is initiated. His blood pressure is 80 mmHg systolic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Consider induced hypothermia.
Administer an IV NS bolus of 1—2 L and a vasopressor.
Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Initiate transcutaneous pacing.
You are caring for an unresponsive adult patient who experienced ROSC after VF cardiac arrest. He is intubated and waveform capnography monitoring is initiated. His blood pressure is 126/70 mmHg systolic. The 12-lead ECG is unremarkable. He does not follow commands. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Consider targeted temperature management.
Administer an IV NS bolus of 1—2 L and a vasopressor.
Administer fibrinolytics.
Prepare for transvenous pacemaker placement.
You are caring for a patient with a right ventricular MI who is hypotensive. Supplemental oxygen and aspirin have been given. Which of the following is the next most appropriate treatment?
Nitroglycerin.
IV fluid bolus.
ACE inhibitors.
Morphine.
You are caring for a 75 year-old male who is pulseless and apneic. An off duty EMT has been performing CPR for 2 minutes prior to your arrival. The monitor reveals a regular rhythm with a rate of 250, QRS >0.12, and no P waves. What is your next step?
Defibrillate at 360 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
Initiate an IV and administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP.
Suction the airway and intubate.
Resume CPR x1 minute then check for a pulse.
You are caring for a 75 year-old male presenting with acute onset of dysarthria, left-sided facial droop, and left arm drift. He is alert, cooperative, and responds to questions. His blood glucose is 90 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his signs and symptoms?
Seizure.
Hemorrhagic stroke.
Insulin induced hypoglycemia.
Ischemic stroke.
You are caring for a 70 year-old female presenting with acute onset of dysarthria, right sided facial droop, and right arm drift. She is alert, cooperative, and responds to questions. Her blood glucose is 102 mg/dL. The patient should be transported to the:
Closest accredited stroke center.
Closest hospital.
Hospital where the patient’s primary care physician has privileges.
Closest level 1 trauma center.
You are caring for a 70 year-old female presenting with acute stroke-like symptoms. According to the AHA (2020), stroke patients may be candidates for treatment with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and other fibrinolytic agents if they receive treatment within:
12 hours of onset.
90 minutes of onset.
3 hours of onset.
24 hours of onset.
Which of the following is part of the assessment of every patient presenting with stroke-like symptoms?
Blood glucose measurement.
Waveform capnography.
Evaluation of gait.
Orthostatic vital signs.
You are assessing an adult patient with stroke-like symptoms who has aphasia. The patient's family member is also present. Considering the treatment for certain types of stroke, the paramedic will be sure to ask:
When did he last see his private physician?
When was the last time he was seen normal?
When was the last time the patient ate or drank?
Does the patient have a history of TIAs?
A blood pressure difference of less than 5--10mmHg between the right and left arm is considered normal. The right arm blood pressure is normally higher than the left. A consistent difference of more than 20 mmHg in blood pressure readings between arms may be indicative of a vascular disease process. Which of the following best explains this rationale for the difference in blood pressure between the two arms?
The pulse pressure of the aorta increases as it dissipates the pressure pulse through the aortic arch.
The left common carotid artery branches off the aorta before the right subclavian artery.
The right common carotid artery branches off the aorta before the left common carotid artery.
The brachiocephalic trunk comes off the aorta before the left subclavian artery.
You are resuscitating a 70 year-old male who is in pulseless ventricular fibrillation (VF). Ventilations are being performed with an advanced airway in place and a BVM. An IV of NS has been established. The cardiac arrest is refractory to three rounds of CPR, 2 rounds of Epinephrine 1 mg IVP, and three defibrillation attempts. The fourth round of CPR has just completed. What is the next medication to be administered?
Administer Lidocaine 3 mg/kg IVP.
Administer Amiodarone 300 mg IVP.
Begin transcutaneous pacing.
Reassess pulse and rhythm.
You are caring for a 4 year-old male child who was found unresponsive by his grandmother after ingesting a bottle of 30 mg Adalat tablets. The patient has a heart rate of 40, a blood pressure of 54 systolic, and a capillary refill time of 4 seconds. Which of the following best describes this patient's condition?
Septic shock.
Hypotensive shock.
Compensated shock.
Cardiogenic shock.
You are caring for a 19 year-old male who presents with acute onset of palpitations and light-headedness. The child is alert. His respiratory rate is 28/min and his blood pressure is 108/70 mmHg. Supraventricular tachycardia is observed on the cardiac monitor. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
Attempt vagal maneuvers.
Provide synchronized cardioversion at 0.5 to 1 J/kg.
Administer adenosine 0.1 mg/kg over 10 minutes.
Administer amiodarone 5 mg/kg over 20 minutes.
You are caring for a 55 year-old male who collapsed and is now pulseless and apneic. The monitor reveals no electrical activity in bipolar limb leads I, II, and III. What is your next step?
Suction the airway and intubate.
Initiate an IV and administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP.
Begin CPR.
Defibrillate at 360 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
You are caring for a 45 year-old male who is complaining of palpitations. He denies chest pain or dyspnea and his lung sounds are clear. His vital signs are stable. The monitor reveals a regular rhythm with a rate of 200, QRS <0.12, and no discernible P waves. IV access and a 12-lead ECG have been obtained. Vagal maneuvers have been unsuccessful. What is your next step?
Defibrillate at 360 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic
Administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP.
Provide synchronized cardioversion at 200 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
Administer Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP.
Which of the following represents a category of patients that may exhibit "atypical S/S" regarding Acute Coronary Syndromes?
Postmenopausal women
Insulin Dependent Diabetics (Type I DM)
Elderly
All of the above
Ventricular fibrillation is MOST likely to develop during which part of the cardiac action potential cycle?
Absolute refractory period
Resting membrane potential phase
Plateau phase
Relative refractory period
An 8 month-old infant is unresponsive and apneic. What is the maximum time that should be spent attempting to palpate a pulse before initiating CPR?
10 seconds.
15 seconds.
20 seconds.
60 seconds.
Why can hyperventilation lead to REDUCED oxygenation?
Decreased tidal volume from hyperventilation stimulates decreased heart rate.
Increased thoracic pressure from hyperventilation decreases cardiac output.
Decreased thoracic pressure from hyperventilation decreases cardiac output.
Increased tidal volume from hyperventilation stimulates decreased heart rate.
You are caring for a 55 year-old male who presents with chest pain, dyspnea, altered mental status, hypotension, and pale, cool, clammy skin. The monitor reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm with a rate of 190, QRS <0.12, and no discernible P waves. What is your next step?
Provide synchronized cardioversion at 200 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
Administer Amiodarone 300 mg IVP.
Administer Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP.
Defibrillate at 360 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
You are caring for a 7 year-old child who is found pulseless and apneic. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio when 2 or more trained rescuers are present to perform CPR?
15:2
3:1
10:1
30:2
You are resuscitating a 5 year-old child in cardiac arrest. The rate and depth of ventilations are most effectively monitored and adjusted in response to:
Information received from waveform capnography.
The team leader’s orders.
The patient’s skin color, temperature, and condition.
Continuous pulse oximetry readings.
To improve patient outcome for the possible stroke patient, the patient should be transported to:
The closest facility with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
An accredited stroke center with computed tomography (CT) imaging.
An accredited chest pain center with spiral computed tomography (CT) imaging.
A level 3 trauma center with portable chest radiography imaging.
Which of the following is a common risk factor for ischemic stroke?
Atrial-fibrillation.
Ventricular-fibrillation.
Asystole.
Sinus tachycardia.
It is important for the paramedic to rapidly recognize signs and symptoms of stroke because:
The treatment for stroke is time sensitive.
Paramedics have other EMS calls waiting.
Paramedics are most likely to witness stroke signs and symptoms.
The patient may change his mind about being transported.
Why does the prehospital administration of diuretics usually not benefit a patient with congestive heart failure?
Diuretics help relieve the volume overload, but most patients in CHF are not hypervolemic.
Diuretics can counteract the failures in the renal system that are associated with congestive heart failure.
Diuretics are required to compensate for the hyperkalemia produced by the potassium used to treat congestive heart failure.
Increased urine production helps the body rid itself of the toxins created by congestive heart failure.
Pre-hospital treatment for a patient experiencing acute CHF with pulmonary edema would include:
CPAP/BiPAP and IV nitroglycerin.
Oxygen 15 liters NRB and morphine.
Nebulized Atrovent and IV NS bolus.
Oxygen 2 liter NC and placing the patient on the left side.
Which of the following is a contraindication for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)?
SpO2 of less than 94%.
Able to follow commands.
Respiratory arrest.
Respiratory rate greater than 25 per minute.
You are at the home of a 65 year-old female c/o sudden onset of pain in her left calf. VS are WNL, Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. Dorsalis pedis pulse is diminished on the left lower extremity; left foot is pale and cold; sensation is altered on the left lower extremity. What do you suspect?
Deep vein thrombosis
Varicose veins
Pulmonary Embolism
Acute arterial occlusion
You are called to the scene of a 65 year-old male c/o severe pain that originates in the back (between the scapulae) and radiates down into the legs. Pain began about 15 minutes prior to arrival and patient states “this is the worst pain I’ve ever had.” Pt states that the severity of the pain was maximal from time of onset; a “10” on “0–10” scale. Skin: pale, warm, diaphoretic. Peripheral pulses are unequal. VS: Left B/P 160/102, Right B/P 198/132, Pulse 132, Respirations 24. Which of the following best explains the patient’s signs and symptoms?
Acute Dissecting Aortic Aneurysm
Pulmonary Embolism
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Acute MI
You are called to the home of a 33 year-old obese female c/o lower right leg pain. Pt states she has been in bed for about two weeks recuperating from abdominal surgery. Pt also states she takes birth control pills and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. Lung sounds are clear. The right lower extremity is warm to the touch, edematous, and shows diffuse redness. VS: B/P 130/78, pulse 110, respirations 20. What is the best explanation for the patient’s signs and symptoms?
Acute Arterial Occlusion
Intermittent Claudication
Pulmonary Embolism
Deep-Vein Thrombosis
Which of the following terms is described as Right Ventricular dysfunction due to an increase in resistance to right ventricular emptying?
CHF
Orthopnea
Cor Pulmonale
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
A patient walks up the stairs and has leg pain that is relieved by rest due to peripheral atherosclerosis. This pain is reproducible (i.e.: always occurs when walking up the stairs). What is this called?
Angina
Ischemic arterial pain
Intermittent claudication
Muscular hypoxic syndrome
You are caring for a 45 year-old male who presents with chest pain, dyspnea, altered mental status, hypotension, and pale, cool, clammy skin. The monitor reveals a regular rhythm with a rate of 30, QRS >0.12, more P waves than QRS complexes, and a variable PR interval. The patient’s rhythm is refractory to Atropine 1.0 mg IVP. What is your next step?
Administer Dopamine 5—20 mcg/kg IV.
Initiate transcutaneous pacing (TCP).
Provide synchronized cardioversion at 50 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
Defibrillate at 360 Joules monophasic or equivalent biphasic.
List the medications (dose, routes, etc) as described in the Symptomatic Bradycardia algorithm.
Atropine 1 mg IV, Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/min IV infusion, Epinephrine 2-10 mcg/min IV infusion
Aspirin 325 mg PO, Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL, Morphine 2 mg IV
Amiodarone 300 mg IV, Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV, Procainamide 20 mg/min IV
Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push, Diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV, Verapamil 5 mg IV
