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Ch44 practice quiz Part 1

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Your patient is complaining of pain in his big toe of his left foot. the pain occurs at night and causes swelling . He's frustrated because it happens often, but he can never tell when. Which of the following is the doctor likely to do based on the big book?

a)

advise patient to avoid sardines, herring and anchovies

b)

prescribe vitamin D3

c)

prescribe probenecid

d)

prescribe Aspirin

e)

check serum uric acid levels

2.

When performing a history for suspected gout, which of the following clue you in to the possibility?

a)

the patient eats a lot vegetables

b)

parent who had a history of gout

c)

the patient has said the pain is bilateral and simultaneous

d)

patient has a history of alcohol consumption

e)

patient uses diuretics

3.

You are reviewing a patients(female) charts. Which of the following are causes for concern?

a)

ESR (22 mm/hr)

b)

Uric acid levels ( 4.5 mg/dl)

c)

WBC's ( 10,500/mm)

d)

platelets ( 250,000 /mm)

e)

aPTT (15 seconds)

4.

Your patient with gout complains that night pain is unrelieved. He is currently on probenecid, colchicine, dexamethasone, and methotrexate. Which of the following is correct in regards to orthodox gout treatment?

a)

aspirin will be added to assist with pain management.

b)

all medications need to be discontinued and a new regimen started

c)

due to adverse side effect( bone pain), dexamethasone will be discontinued

d)

colchicine will be removed

5.

define gout

a)

chronic, progressive rheumatic disorder that affects many areas, but primarily the spine

b)

chronic loss of bone density

c)

acute, inflammatory accumulation of uric acid in the blood.

d)

chronic, systemic inflammatory disease that affects many organs but the ligaments and cartilage

6.

A key characteristic of gout is

a)

Heberden's Node

b)

benign tumors

c)

tophi

d)

Bouchard's node

e)

gangrene and amputation of the affected limb

7.

for your Gout patient, which of the following is a wrong intervention/patient teaching to perform?

a)

Advise no alcohol or food high in purines

b)

bed rest and immobilization of the affected joint

c)

increase fluid intake

d)

monitor I&O

e)

decrease fluid intake

8.

What do you tell your patient who asks the typical outcome of gout?

a)

ask the doctor, I just pass meds

b)

I'm sorry, Gout is degenerative, the general prognosis is 2 years as multiple organs are affected.

c)

Gout is not curable and your symptoms will last longer with each inflammation period.

d)

If you eliminate foods high in purines from your diet and take the prescribed medication as dictated, you can have full recovery in as little as 3 months

e)

Gout is chronic, vitamin D supplements, coupled with methotrexate can limit symptoms

9.

Your patient is complaining in the chest and lumbar vertebral areas. She says she feels stiff and you can hear her bones giving off a "creaky" sound. Which of the following do you suspect?

a)

RA

b)

OA

c)

SLE

d)

Osteomyelitis

e)

calcium deficiency induced fractures

10.

When taking your patients health history, he says he has no family history of any disease, he does not smoke/drink, exercises and eats healthily, nor had any blunt traumas recently. However his symptoms appear to be OA. why would you diagnose this?

a)

He presents with petechiae and dyspnea

b)

because he mentions bilateral and simultaneous inflammation

c)

OA can be idiopathic

d)

because all seniors have OA

11.

Which of the following would be at the lowest risk for acquiring OA?

a)

45 year old male with a sedentary lifestyle

b)

a warehouse worker

c)

a football player

d)

a woman age 75

e)

a ballerina

12.

Where are OA symptoms typically seen?

a)

hands of women

b)

the necks of women

c)

feet of men

d)

knees and elbow joints

e)

hips of men

13.

Osteoarthritis is

a)

comorbid with other rheumatic diseases

b)

the least diagnosed form of arthritis

c)

the most common form of arthritis

d)

the most serious form of arthritis

14.

Your patient with OA does not want to leave bed. She is scared of physical activity pain. Which exercises if any would you recommend for her?

a)

biking

b)

archery

c)

no weight/ slow squats and chest strengthening exercises

d)

swimming

e)

light stair climbing

15.

Which of the following are a key trait of osteoarthritis?

a)

tophi

b)

malignancy

c)

benign tumors

d)

cholecystitis

e)

nodes on the hands

16.

The physician is trying to diagnose Osteoarthritis, which of the following diagnostic tests is he likely to order?

a)

Dexa scan

b)

MRI

c)

XRAY

d)

synovial fluid biopsy

e)

bone scans

17.

Which of the following should the nurse teach her client in regards to their medication?

a)

To take the prescribed does of mycophenolate as prescribed, can cause blindness

b)

to monitor their Blood pressure while taking Aspirin

c)

That phantom pain is often associated with aspirin use

d)

digoxin can cause paresthesia, notify physician so as to lower dose or change medication

18.

If your OA patient is complaining of unrelieved pain, which of the following are you likely to see in the MAR for pain?

a)

IV prednisone

b)

IV cortisone

c)

IV acyclovir

d)

IV Dilaudid tablets

e)

Carisoprodol tablets

19.

Joint replacement for OA patients is most likely to be for the ....... and .........?

(a)  

20.

Should the physician wish to provide alternative therapy to your OA patient, what is she likely to prescribe/ recommend?

a)

Glucosamine

b)

physical therapy

c)

imagery

d)

dopamine reuptake inhibitors

e)

massages

21.

As the nurse, what is the primary intervention for OA patients?

a)

movement

b)

keeping affected limb immobilized till inflammation passes

c)

teaching patient proper medication administration

d)

requesting restraints (raised side rails) to limit fall risk.

e)

placing the bed in lowest position and rails around the room to support the patient

22.

Total hip replacement is indicated when arthritis involves the

a)

the head of the femur

b)

acetabulum

c)

cocci

d)

iliac crest

23.

your patient has neither involvement of the femur, nor acetabulum. What other indications could result in needing a hip arthroplasty?

a)

fractures

b)

lacerations

c)

tumors

d)

fat emboli

e)

injuries

24.

in a client requiring a hip arthroplasty, which of the following interventions would you preform?

a)

assess clients cooperativeness to preserve circulation

b)

prevent impairment of the skin

c)

prevent hypostatic pneumonia

d)

deep breathing every 2 hours(incentive spirometer)

e)

asses for hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypovolemia

25.

Which of the following diagnostic procedures is the physician likely to request before the hip arthroplasty?

a)

Dexa Scan

b)

MRI

c)

X-ray

d)

Bone scan

e)

none of the above

26.

During the hip arthroplasty, which of the following is likely used

a)

hemovac (closed wound suction)

b)

cardiovac (closed wound suction)

c)

renalvac (closed wound suction)

d)

cephalovac (closed wound suction)

27.

What are the postoperative interventions you will provide for a hip arthroplasty patient?

a)

neurovascular checks every 24 hrs, then every 2 hrs for 24 hours, then every 4 hours, along with vitals

b)

provide analgesia via a PCA pump

c)

Provide embolism stalking before and after the procedure

d)

maintain leg position with abduction splint/ pillow

e)

use assistive device to reach objects on the floor

28.

What are the 7 P's of neurovascular check?

a)

pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, polar temperature, pallor, puffiness, pain

b)

pulselessness, paresthesia, poor circulation, paralysis, pallor, polar field inversion, puffiness, pain

c)

paresthesia, paralysis, pulselessness, polar temperature, pallor, pain

d)

this is not the correct acronym. the correct one is peanut

29.

Post operative hip arthroplasty should report which of the following to their provider immediately according to the book?

a)

malaise and excessive fatigue unrelieved for 3 days

b)

dehiscence

c)

evisceration of the surgical site

d)

erythema of the foot if the repaired joint

e)

numbness and tingling in extremities

30.

sprains affects the ............?

a)

ligaments and muscles

b)

ligaments

c)

muscles

31.

strains affects the ............?

a)

ligaments and muscles

b)

ligaments

c)

muscles

32.

Directly following hip arthroplasty, Jackson-Pratt drainage tubes should be

a)

removed and delegate monitoring and suctioning to nursing staff

b)

replaced with hemovac

c)

maintained

d)

removed

e)

have their suctioning function slowed to allow synovial fluid to accumulate

33.

Describe a fat embolus

a)

accumulation of fatty tissues

b)

embolization of tissue fat, platelets, fatty acids within lung capillaries

c)

embolization of platelets and RBC's

d)

vasoconstriction which causes fats to clot

34.

What makes fat emboli deadly?

a)

uric acid concentration leading to Renal failure

b)

its not deadly, but will cause dizziness/blackouts

c)

the capacity to puncture the lungs or heart

d)

hypoxia and tissue damage of the brain

35.

In a patient suspected of having a fat embolism, what subjective information would you assess?

a)

orientation

b)

sweating

c)

irritability

d)

crackles

e)

Chest pain

36.

In patients suspected of having a fat embolism, which of the following objective data can you expect to find?

a)

fainting spells

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

crackles

d)

ecchymoses

e)

petechiae

37.

In a patient with a fat embolus, petechiae would be locarted where?

a)

conjunctiva of the eye

b)

neck

c)

chest

d)

armpits

e)

abdomen

38.

In a patient with a fat embolus, which diagnostic tests are typically used?

a)

X-ray

b)

Blood gasses(hypoxemia)

c)

CBC( hemoglobin/hematocrit)

d)

CBC (platelet count)

e)

Renal panel (BUN)

39.

Medical management of a fat emboli would include?

a)

Oxygen therapy

b)

corticosteroids

c)

Digoxin(increases circulatory output)

d)

antiemetics

e)

incentive spirometer

40.

For your patient with a fat embolus which of the following interventions would be performed?

a)

assessment of arterial blood gasses

b)

Monitor I &O

c)

have patients remove their anti-embolic stockings at night

d)

massage the area over the embolus to break it up

e)

assess daily weight

41.

Which of the following would you use to describe osteoporosis to a client diagnosed with it?

a)

age related bone thinning

b)

deposits of malignant tumors degrade bone structure over time

c)

loss of bone density

d)

accumulation of uric acid in the blood

e)

degenerative bone disease resulting from inflammation

42.

who is at the highest risk for osteoporosis?

a)

A woman who is 56 years old

b)

A man who is 65 years old

c)

A man whos mother had osteoporosis

d)

A woman who is 56 years old with family Hx of osteoarthritis

43.

why do women between the ages of 55 and 65 have a high risk for osteoporosis

a)

decrease in prostaglandin function

b)

testosterone imbalance

c)

estrogen deficiency

d)

release of luteinizing hormone in menopause

e)

Less vitamin D synthesis than men of a same age

44.

Which ethnic groups/stature are most indicated for osteoporosis

a)

Small Caucasian and Oriental women

b)

Large African and steppe women

c)

Small women of South American or Middle Eastern descent

d)

Large women of German or Scandinavian heritage

45.

What are the risk factors ascribed to osteoporosis?

a)

smoking

b)

drinking

c)

genetic/environmental factors

d)

lack of exercise

e)

low social-economic standing

46.

You have a patient with Osteoporosis. Which of the following initial symptoms would not surprise you?

a)

creaky bones

b)

bone pain

c)

vertebral fracture

d)

hip fracture

e)

pain in the bones of the extremeties

47.

Define lordosis

a)

rounding of the lumbar spine

b)

lateral curvature of the spine

c)

increase of the spine inwards

d)

rounding of the thoracic spine

48.

Define scoliosis

a)

rounding of the lumbar spine

b)

lateral curvature of the spine

c)

increase of the spine inwards

d)

rounding of the thoracic spine

49.

Define kyphosis

a)

rounding of the lumbar spine

b)

lateral curvature of the spine

c)

increase of the spine inwards

d)

rounding of the thoracic spine

50.

In your patient with osteoporosis, which diagnostic procedures would be used to verify the diagnosis?

a)

Blood test for Calcium/Phosphorus

b)

XRAY

c)

Dexa scan

d)

Nuclear scan

e)

Bone mineral density scan

51.

For patients the doctor would prescribe a vitamin D supplement. What would be contraindicated with this treatment?

a)

amphetamines

b)

smoking

c)

Alcohol

d)

muscle-skeletal relaxants

e)

corticosteroids

52.

After the attending physician prescribes Alendronate for advanced Osteoporosis which patient teaching would you need to reinforce?

a)

Administer Alendronate with 6-8 oz. of water

b)

sitting upright 30 minutes after ingestion of Fosamax

c)

Patient must drink Fosamax with milk

d)

monitor patient for nausea, dizziness, leg cramps, hypercalcemia

e)

sit upright 30 minutes after taking Alendronate

53.

For patients who have not had their pain controlled via analgesia, what are the next viable options?

a)

hip arthroplasty

b)

vertebroplasty

c)

Kyphoplasty

d)

angioplasty

e)

nephrectomy

54.

Your patient was admitted to the hospital for pain associated with scoliosis. After being admitted he wants to leave 4 hours later after pain is controlled. What is the appropriate response?

a)

Your physician advises against it, but if you must please sign these AMA papers

b)

When you were admitted you signed agreeing to follow our 24 hour holding policy

c)

order sedatives

d)

Have patient sign AMA papers, and provide teaching on home pain management

55.

Of the following interventions/ Patient teaching, Which of the following would you not preform for your Osteoporosis patient?

a)

provide safety measures against falls

b)

place bed in the lowest position

c)

advise substituting smoking for nicotine patch

d)

place a sit chair in patients shower

e)

advise patient to take recommended Vitamin D supplement

56.

How would you respond to a client who asked the general outcome of osteoporosis?

a)

your condition is chronic, fracture episodes will be more frequent every year

b)

your condition is chronic, Vitamin D supplements can slow bone loss

c)

Your condition can be reversed with vitamin D supplements and immunoboosters

d)

With 1 year of medical treatment you can reverse your disease