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'B' Coy Mock Test 1 (ASM Part 1 & 7)

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Medical emergency available at the airport are based on the concept of ?

a)

medical personnel & medical facility commensurate with the size of the airport.

b)

medical facility commensurate with the size of the airport.

c)

medical personnel commensurate with the size of the airport.

d)

medical person & medical rooms commensurate with the size of the airport.

2.

For the emergency training in an airport, who shall receive the first aid and cpr training?

a)

Personnel assigned to rescue duties

b)

Public contact employees

c)

Over the counter staff

d)

CERT team

3.

The airport may enlist volunteers from the airport employees besides the rescue and fire fighting service and they shall be trained by ?

a)

Ministry of Health

b)

Accredited agencies in first aid & rescue response duties

c)

Red Cross

d)

Accredited agencies in first aid & response duties

4.

Volunteers assisting in an emergency shall come under the supervision of?

a)

Operations commander on scene

b)

Section commander on scene

c)

First commander on scene

d)

Triage commander on scene

5.

How many % is estimated for an Aircraft crash to be categorized as Priority I casualties?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

6.

Majority of non - accident related medical emergency involved is?

a)

Pulmonary difficulties

b)

Financial difficulties

c)

Hemorrhage difficulties

d)

Coronary difficulties

7.

True / False:

Many lives may be lost and many injuries aggravated if immediate medical attention is not provided by trained rescue personnel

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Triage sorting:


Priority 3 > ? Care

a)

Mild

b)

Soft

c)

Minor

d)

Don't

9.

True / False:

The first qualified, medically trained person to arrive at the site must immediately begin initial triage.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Pick the correct casualty classification card description for the symbol above.

a)

Priority I, Immediate Care, Colour - Red

b)

Priority II, Delayed Care, Colour - Yellow

c)

Priority III, Minor Care, Colour - Green

d)

Priority IV, Deceased, Colour - Black

11.

Who can take over the initial triage from the first qualified, medically trained personnel?

a)

More qualified person

b)

Higher ranking person

c)

Designated airport triage officer

d)

Designated CCA officer

12.

For medical classification card, a PIV casualty symbol is?

a)

Rabbit

b)

Turtle

c)

None of the above

d)

Ambulance with a X

13.

Every effort should be made to ensure this classified priority casualty is stabilized first.

Pick the correct Priority.

a)

PI

b)

PII

c)

PIII

d)

PIV

14.

The injured should pass through four areas which should be carefully located and easily identified:

1) Collection area, choose other 3 areas:

a)

Rehab area

b)

Care area

c)

Triage area

d)

Transportation area

15.

Mobile facilities for the stabilization and treatment of Priorities I and II casualties are recommended to be operational in less than .

a)

8 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

60 minutes

16.

Pick the correct statement below:

a)

Triage area — The triage area should be located at least 90 m upwind and uphill of the accident site to avoid possible exposure to fire and smoke

b)

Triage area — The triage area should be located at least 90 m upwind of the accident site to avoid possible exposure to fire and smoke

c)

Triage area — The triage area should be located at least 100 m upwind and uphill of the accident site to avoid possible exposure to fire and smoke

d)

Triage area — The triage area should be located at least 100 m upwind of the accident site to avoid possible exposure to fire and smoke

17.

The principal objective of an RFF (rescue and firefighting)

service is to ?

a)

save lives and properties in the event of an aircraft accident or incident occurring at, or in the immediate vicinity of an airport.

b)

save lives, reduce property damage and to return the aerodrome to normalcy as quickly as possible.

c)

save lives in the event of an aircraft accident or incident occurring at, or in the immediate vicinity of an airport.

d)

save lives, reduce property damage and to return the aerodrome to peace timeas quickly as possible.

18.

True / False:

The RFF service is provided to create and maintain survivable conditions, to provide egress routes for occupants and to initiate the rescue of those occupants

that is able to make their escape with direct aid.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Choose the statement that is correct:

The RFF service must assume at all times the possibility of and need for extinguishing a fire which may:

a)

exist at the time an aircraft is landing, taking off, taxiing, parked, etc

b)

occur during the loading of cargo in the remote stands

c)

occur immediately following an aircraft accident or incident

d)

occur at any time during rescue operations.

20.

The rupture of fuel tanks in an aircraft crash and the consequent spillage of highly volatile fuels, and other flammable liquids used by aircraft, present a high degree of probability of ignition if these liquids come into contact with hot metal parts of the aircraft or because of sparks caused by the movement of wreckage or disturbance of the electrical circuit.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The extent of aircraft fires which may affect rescue is influenced largely by ?

a)

the quantity and disposition of fuel carried by the aircraft

b)

the location of any fuel released as a result of the accident or incident.

c)

the highly pressured hydraulics in the lines

d)

the oxygen locations when an accident occurs

22.

The most important factors bearing on effective rescue in a survivable aircraft accident is:

I)

II)

III)

a)

speed with which personnel and equipment designated for RFF purposes, can be deployed

b)

the training received

c)

the effectiveness of the equipment

d)

the AAR shared for future operations

23.

True / False:

A detailed grid map(s) of the airport and its immediate vicinity (with date of revision) should be provided for

the use of the airport services concerned.

Copies should also be distributed to external agencies, such as police and medical services as required.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The airport category for RFF should be based on:

a)

the overall length of the longest aeroplanes normally using the airport

b)

the widest aeroplanes wingspan

c)

the maximum fuselage width

d)

the height of the aeroplanes normally using the airport

25.

In a category 10 airport,

I) the aeroplane overall length is: ?? m up to but not including 90 m

II) Maximum fuselage width of ?? m

a)

I) 60 / II) 8

b)

I) 76 / II) 8

c)

I) 65 / II) 9

d)

I) 70 / II) 9

26.

True / False:

When the number of movements of the aeroplanes in the highest category normally using the airport is 700 or lesser in the busiest consecutive three months, then the airport category can be dropped by 1.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What does constitute an aircraft movement?

a)

Taxing

b)

Landing

c)

Towing

d)

Take-off

28.

For cargo operations, an all - cargo aeroplanes can be downgraded in category.

Choose the categories that may be dropped to category 7

a)

10

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

29.

Principal agents produce a ?????? control,

for a period of several minutes or longer. Complementary agents have rapid fire ???????? capability but offer a “transient” control which is usually only available during application.

a)

good / extinguishing

b)

permanent / dissolvent

c)

temporary / suppression

d)

permanent / suppression

30.

What is the amounts of water specified for foam production predicated for Level A ,B & C?

a)

8.2 l/min, 6.5 l/min, 3.55l/min

b)

8.2l/sec, 5.5 l/sec, 3.75l/sec

c)

9 l/min, 6.5 l/min, 3.55l/min

d)

8.2l/min, 5.5 l/min, 3.75l/min

31.

What is the objective of the critical area concept?

a)

safeguard the integrity of the fuselage

b)

maintain tolerable conditions for its occupants

c)

extinguish the entire fire

d)

attempting to control the entire fire

32.

Q= Q1 + Q2

What is Q2?

a)

the water required after control has been established and is needed for such factors as the maintenance of control and / or extinguishment of the remaining fire.

b)

the water required before control has been established and is needed for such factors as the maintenance of control and / or extinguishment of the remaining fire.

c)

total water required

d)

the water for control of the fire in the practical critical area

33.

Q1 = ?

a)

Practical critical area X Application rate X Time of initial discharge

b)

Practical critical area X Theoretical critical area X Time of application

c)

Practical critical area X Application rate X Time of application

d)

Theoretical critical area X Application rate X Time of application

34.

If, Q1 = A X R X T


What does T stands for?

a)

Time of application

b)

Rate of application

c)

Estimation of application

d)

Method of application

35.

The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of two minutes and not exceeding three minutes to the end of each runway, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum conditions of visibility and surface conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

A reserve supply of foam concentrate equivalent to how many percent of the quantities should be maintained on the airport for vehicle replenishment purposes.

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

37.

For a category, 1 / 2 airport that replaces it's water with, 100% complimentary agent.

What is the required amount of percentage reserve that it should have?

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

38.

Vehicle foam tanks must be kept full at all times when the vehicle is in operational service because partially

filled tanks will:

a)

create stability problems when the vehicle is cornering at speed.

b)

create an increase of the designed speed of the vehicle because of the reduced weight.

c)

create a high pitch noise while travelling

d)

create a leak in the foam tank if maintained throughout

39.

Response time is considered to be the time between the initial call to the RFF service and the time when the first responding vehicle(s) is(are) in position to apply foam at a rate of at least 40 percent of the discharge rate specified.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Provision of ready access to approach areas up to how many metres from the threshold or at least from the threshold to the airport boundary?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1000

d)

10000

41.

Roads within 90 m of a runway should be constructed to prevent surface erosion and the transfer of debris to the runway.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

When RFF vehicles leave their fire stations and enter the manoeuvring area they come under the direction of fire station watch - room. These vehicles must be equipped with two-way radio communications equipment, through which their movements can at all times be subject to direction by the fire station watch-room.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Communications between I) , II) & III) should be maintained throughout an emergency response.

a)

Flight Crew

b)

Airport Police

c)

RFF Service

d)

Air Traffic Control

44.

Direct communication between the RFF personnel

and the flight crew during an emergency does not

necessarily involve speech only .


What are the other options?

a)

Direct line of sight

b)

ARONS system

c)

Flight Radar 360

d)

Hand Signals

45.

Foam used for aircraft RFF is primarily intended to provide,

a)

an air-excluding blanket which prevents volatile flammable vapours from mixing with air or oxygen

b)

permanent control of fire and a transient control

c)

quick knockdown of fire

d)

immediate dispersal of volatile flammable vapours through convulsion

46.

There 5 types of foam in ASM Part 1, Section 8:

I) Aqueous Film Forming Foam

II) Film Forming Fluoroprotein Foam


Pick the correct remaining 3 types of foam

a)

Organically Induced Foam

b)

Protein Foam

c)

Fluoroprotein Foam

d)

Synthetic Foam

47.

Which is not a method of foam production?

a)

Aspiration by inducted air

b)

Aspiration by compressed air insertion

c)

Aspiration within the jet

d)

Aspiration by agitation

48.

Foam concentrates are recommended to have a PH value between, 6 - 8.5.

The value above indicates what type of value?

a)

Acidic

b)

Neutral

c)

Alkaline

d)

Extremities

49.

The viscosity of a foam concentrate is an indication of the

resistance to flow of the liquid in the plumbing of an

RFF vehicle, and its consequential entry into the water system. The viscosity measurement of a foam

concentrate when at its lowest temperature should not exceed 200mm/s.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Sediments may form due to:

a)

The foam contains impurities

b)

Subjected to adverse storage

c)

Weather conditions / varying temperatures

d)

The Rff vehicle storage capacity

51.

I) Induction percentage for all foam making devices

II) The expansion ratio

III) 1/4 drainage time

IV) Jet range of the main monitor

V) Spray patter of the main monitor


All the requirements above are required for a

a)

Foam production performance test

b)

Foam induction performance test

c)

Half - yearly vehicle performance test

d)

Quarterly vehicle performance test

52.

Induction systems should induce with a tolerance of +/-10% of the desired induction percentage.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Most aircraft doors are located on the ? side of the aircraft and the door handles usually turns ?

a)

Right / Clockwise

b)

Left / Anti - clockwise

c)

Front / Inwards

d)

Back / Outwards

54.

Fuel tanks normally in wings – some run through fuselage - others all outboard of inboard engines. Fuel tanks are interconnected and have cross-feed valves.

Tank vents are normally at ? of wings.

a)

trailing edge

b)

under side

c)

leading edge

d)

top side

55.

“Triage” is the

a)

sorting and classification of casualties to determine the order of priority for treatment and transportation.

b)

classification of casualties to determine the order of priority for treatment and transportation.

c)

sorting of casualties to determine the order of priority for treatment and transportation.

d)

identifiaction of casualties to determine the order of priority for treatment and transportation.