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Patho- Exam 5- CNS and Disorders

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The brain and spinal cord are the parts of which nervous system?

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Autonomic Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

2.

What are the functions of the organs in the CNS?

a)

integration; command center

b)

interprets incoming sensory information

c)

issues outgoing instructions

d)

serve as the communication lines among sensory organs, the brain and spinal cord, and glands or muscles

3.

Which nervous system contains the spinal nerves and cranial nerves?

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Autonomic Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

4.

What are the functions of the PNS?

a)

serve as communication lines among sensory organs, the brain and spinal cord, and glands or muscles

b)

integration; command center

c)

issues outgoing instructions

d)

interprets incoming sensory information

5.

Nerve fibers that carry information from the sensory receptors (including cutaneous sense organs in the skin, and proprioceptors in muscles and tendons) TO the CNS:

a)

sensory (afferent) division

b)

motor (efferent) division

6.

Nerve fibers that carry impulses away from the CNS to effector organs (muscles and glands) and/or viscera:

a)

sensory (afferent) division

b)

motor (efferent) division

7.

The motor (efferent) division has 2 subdivisions. Which part is voluntary- consciously controls skeletal muscles?

a)

Somatic Nervous System

b)

Autonomic Nervous System

8.

The motor (efferent) division has 2 subdivisions. Which part is involuntary: automatically controls smooth and cardiac muscles and glands; further divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

a)

Somatic Nervous Systems

b)

Autonomic Nervous Systems

9.

Support cells in the CNS are grouped together as ________.

a)

neuroglia

b)

astrocytes

c)

microglia

10.

Nervous tissue is made up of two principal cell types. What are they?

a)

neuroglia, or glial cells, or glia

b)

neurons

c)

astrocytes

d)

microglia

11.

Which cell type is the most abundant and versatile neuroglia?

a)

neuron

b)

astrocyte

c)

microglia

d)

ependymal

12.

Microglia are phagocytes that defend CNS cells.

a)

true

b)

false

13.

Where can the CNS glial cell type ependymal cells be found?

a)

line cavities of the brain and spinal cord

b)

around the nerve fibers in the CNS

14.

Where can the CNS glial cell type oligodendrocyte be found?

a)

wrapped around nerve fibers in the CNS- produce myelin sheaths

b)

lining the cavities of the brain and spinal cord

15.

PNS glial cells- Schwann cells:

a)

form myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the PNS

b)

protect and cushion neuron cell bodies

16.

PNS glial cells- Satellite cells:

a)

form myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the PNS

b)

protect and cushion neuron cell bodies

17.

Which region of the neurons (nerve cells) include the nucleus and metabolic center of the cell?

a)

cell body

b)

processes

18.

Which region of the neurons (nerve cells) include the fibers that extend from the cell body?

a)

cell body

b)

processes

19.

Neurons- processes- which part of the processes conduct impulses toward the cell body? *may have hundreds of these

a)

dendrites

b)

axons

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

synapse

20.

Neurons- processes- which part conducts impulses away from the cell body?

a)

dendrites

b)

axons

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

synapse

21.

Neurons- processes- which part is the gap between axon terminals and the next neuron?

a)

dendrites

b)

axons

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

synapse

22.

Neurons- processes- which part is the functional junction between nerves where a nerve impulse is transmitted?

a)

dendrites

b)

axons

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

synapse

23.

What is the following definition of? White, fatty material covering axons, protects and insulates fibers, speeds nerve impulse transmission

a)

myelin

b)

cholesterol

24.

What 2 cell types utilize or produce myelin sheaths?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

satellite cells

d)

ependymal cells

25.

Neuron terminology: clusters of bodies in the CNS

a)

nuclei

b)

ganglia

c)

tracts

d)

nerves

26.

Neuron terminology: collections of cell bodies outside the CNS in the PNS

a)

nuclei

b)

ganglia

c)

tracts

d)

nerves

27.

Neuron terminology: bundles of nerve fibers in the CNS

a)

tracts

b)

nerves

c)

white matter

d)

gray matter

28.

Neuron terminology: bundles of nerve fibers in the PNS

a)

tracts

b)

nerves

c)

white matter

d)

gray matter

29.

Neuron terminology: collections of myelinated fibers (tracts)

a)

tracts

b)

nerves

c)

white matter

d)

gray matter

30.

Neuron terminology: mostly unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies

a)

nuclei

b)

white matter

c)

gray matter

d)

nerves

31.

What are interneurons (associated neurons) and what do they do?

a)

cell bodies located in the CNS

b)

connect sensory and motor neurons

c)

axons

32.

In the functional properties of neurons, _________ is the ability to respond to a stimulus and convert it to a nerve impulse.

a)

irritability

b)

conductivity

33.

In the functional properties of neurons, ________ is the ability to transmit the impulse to other neurons, muscles, or glands.

a)

irritability

b)

conductivity

34.

How is a nerve impulse generated? What is the beginning "step" of the process?

a)

the plasma membrane is at rest and is inactive (polarized)

b)

fewer positive ions are inside the neuron's plasma membrane (K+ is the major positive ion INSIDE the cell, Na+ is the major positive ion OUTSIDE the cell)

c)

a stimulus changes the permeability of the neuron's membrane to sodium ions

d)

sodium channels are now open, and sodium (Na+) diffuses into the neuron

e)

the inward rush or sodium ions changes the polarity at that site and is called depolarization

35.

When a nerve pulse is being generated, what happens during action potential initiation and generation?

a)

a stimulus changes the permeability of the neuron's membrane to sodium ions

b)

sodium channels now open, and sodium (Na+) diffuses into the neuron

c)

the inward rush of sodium ions changes the polarity at that site and is called depolarization

d)

a graded potential (localized depolarization) exists where the inside of the membrane is more positive and the outside is less positive

e)

if the stimulus is strong enough and sodium influx great enough, local depolarization activates the neuron to conduct an action potential (nerve impulse)

36.

If enough sodium enters the cell, the action potential (nerve impulse) starts and is propagated over the entire axon. What is this step of nerve impulse generation called?

a)

propagation

b)

initiation

c)

generation

37.

Do fibers with myelin sheaths conduct nerve impulses faster than without?

a)

yes

b)

no

38.

Nerve impulse: membrane permeability changes again becoming impermeable to Na+ ions and permeable to K+ ions. K+ ions rapidly diffuse out of the neuron, involves restoring the inside of the membrane to a negative charge and the outer surface to a positive charge, initial conditions of Na+ and K+ ions are restored using the sodium-potassium pump which uses ATP, 3 Na+ ions are ejected from the cell and 2 K+ ions are returned to the cell, until this phase is completed a neuron cannot conduct another nerve impulse

a)

repolarization

b)

initiation

c)

generation

d)

propagation

39.

Put these steps in the correct order for signal transmission at the synapse: 1. Ion channel opens 2. Ion channel closes 3. Action potential arrives 4. Neurotransmitter is released into synaptic cleft 5. Vesicle fuses with plasma membrane 6. Neurotransmitter binds to receptor on receiving neuron's membrane

a)

3, 5, 4, 6, 1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

c)

6, 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

d)

5, 3, 2, 6, 1, 4

40.

Traumatic brain injury: slight brain injury, typically little permanent brain damage occurs

a)

concussion

b)

contusion

41.

Traumatic brain injury: marked nervous tissue destruction occurs, coma may occur

a)

concussion

b)

contusion

42.

Traumatic brain injuries: death may occur after head blows due to which of the following?

a)

concussion

b)

contusion

c)

intracranial hemorrhage

d)

cerebral edema

43.

What results when blood circulation to a brain area is blocked and brain tissue dies?

a)

cerebrovascular accident (CVA) aka stroke

b)

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

c)

hemiplegia

d)

aphasia

44.

What is characterized by temporary brain ischemia (restriction of blood flow) and numbness, temporary paralysis, and impaired speech?

a)

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

b)

cerebrovascular accident (CVA) aka stroke

c)

hemiplegia

d)

aphasia

45.

What is characterized by one-sided paralysis?

a)

hemiplegia

b)

aphasia

46.

What is caused by damage to the speech center in the left hemisphere?

a)

hemiplegia

b)

aphasia

47.

What is defined as "increase in brain volume due to an increase in water content?"

a)

cerebral edema

b)

TIA

c)

CVA

48.

Which type of brain edema is most common and results from increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier?

a)

vasogenic

b)

cytotoxic

c)

interstitial/hydrocephalic

49.

Which type of brain edema is characterized by intracellular swelling due to increased cellular concentration of osmotically active solutes, affects both gray and white matter, often a complication of hypoxia/ischemia because of failure of the ATP-dependent sodium pump in affected cells?

a)

vasogenic

b)

interstitial/hydrocephalic

c)

cytotoxic

50.

Which type of brain edema is characterized by an accumulation of CSF in extracellular spaces of periventricular white matter, usually results from obstructed flow of CSF, volume of periventricular white matter reduced, and many be reversible by shunting?

a)

vasogenic

b)

cytotoxic

c)

interstitial/hydrocephalic

51.

What disease state has autoantibodies that bind acetylcholine receptors on motor end plates of muscle, block the normal binding of acetylcholine and induce complement-mediated lysis which results in progressive weakening of skeletal muscles. Treatment for this is aimed at increasing acetylcholine levels, decreasing antibody production and/or removing antibodies?

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

CVA

c)

TIA

52.

What is a plexus?

a)

generic of a Lexus

b)

networks of nerves serving motor and sensory needs of the limbs

53.

How many plexuses are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

Select the plexuses from the choices below:

a)

cervical

b)

brachial

c)

lumbar

d)

sacral

e)

thoracic

55.

The ANS has a chain of 2 motor neurons called:

a)

preganglionic

b)

postganglionic

c)

sympathetic

d)

parasympathetic

56.

What is the sympathetic division also known as?

a)

thoracolumbar division

b)

splanchnic nerves

57.

Preganglionic neurons originate from T1 though L2- axons pass through a __________________ to enter a sympathetic trunk ganglion.

a)

rams communicans

b)

medulla oblongata

c)

foramen ovale

58.

After synapsing at the ganglion, the axon may synapse with a second neuron at the same or different level (role of ganglia is to provide a gateway to effect multiple organ systems and/or an entire organ system based on signals from the brain through preganglionic nerve fibers.) Alternatively, the preganglionic neuron may pass through the ganglion without synapsing and form part of the splanchnic nerves.

a)

true

b)

false

59.

What do parasympathetic fibers release?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

norepinephrine

60.

What do sympathetic postganglionic fibers release?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

norepinephrine

61.

What do preganglionic axons of both divisions of the ANS release?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

norepinephrine

62.

What is another name for parasympathetic fibers?

a)

cholinergic

b)

adrenergic

63.

What is another name for sympathetic fibers?

a)

cholinergic

b)

adrenergic

64.

G-protein coupled receptor/serpentine/7-membrane spanning receptor

a)

Alpha, beta and muscarinic receptors

b)

Nicotinic receptor

65.

Multisubunit channel (made up of multiple peptides/proteins, ligand gated ion channel (non-selective cation channel), depending on how the subunits are arranged or included, different cations may may use the channel.

a)

Alpha, beta and muscarinic receptors

b)

Nicotinic receptor

66.

Norepinephrine (NE) and Epinephrine (E)

a)

binds to alpha (1,2) and beta (1,2) receptors

b)

binds to muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

67.

Acetylcholine

a)

binds to alpha (1,2) and beta (1,2) receptors

b)

binds to muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

68.

Which ANS division is considered the "fight or flight" division, meaning a response to unusual stimulus when emotionally or physically stressed or threatened?

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

69.

Sympathetic division takes over to increase activities. The "E" division.

a)

exercise

b)

excitement

c)

emergency

d)

embarrassment

70.

Which ANS division is considered the "housekeeping" or "rest-and-digest" system?

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

71.

Which ANS division maintains daily necessary body functions such as digestion, defecation, and diuresis?

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

72.

The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems have the same effects, therefore when PNS is "on" SNS is also "on."

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Norepinephrine stimulates alpha and beta receptors of the effector cell but also binds to alpha and beta receptors on parasympathetic termini which inhibits the release of Ach.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

ACh release stimulates cholinergic receptors on the effector cells but also binds to cholinergic receptors on sympathetic termini to stimulate release of NE.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

Do beta blockers lower blood pressure?

a)

yes

b)

no

76.

Severe congenital brain diseases include: hydrocephalus- abnormal increase in the intracranial volume of CSF associated with dilation of the ventricular system.

a)

true

b)

false

77.

Brain mass declines with age. Why?

a)

Neurons die through life and are not replaced

b)

adults are always dehydrated