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Pathophysiology Week 3: Chapters 14–19 — Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is most likely to exhibit which early sign?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Widened pulse pressure

c)

Decreased level of consciousness

d)

Irregular respirations

2.

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 indicates:

a)

Mild brain injury

b)

Moderate brain injury

c)

Severe brain injury

d)

Normal neurological function

3.

Uncal herniation typically compresses which cranial nerve?

a)

CN II

b)

CN III

c)

CN V

d)

CN VII

4.

A patient with suspected meningitis shows a positive Brudzinski sign. What does this indicate?

a)

Cerebellar dysfunction

b)

Meningeal irritation

c)

Brainstem compression

d)

Increased ICP only

5.

Which finding is most characteristic of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

a)

Permanent deficits

b)

Symptoms lasting < 24 hours

c)

Severe hemorrhage

d)

Loss of consciousness

6.

A patient with bacterial meningitis requires which priority nursing action?

a)

Initiate seizure precautions

b)

Start droplet precautions

c)

Encourage oral fluids

d)

Place in a prone position

7.

A sudden “worst headache of my life” suggests:

a)

Ischemic stroke

b)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

c)

Brain tumor

d)

Encephalitis

8.

Status epilepticus lasting >5 minutes requires which medication first?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Levetiracetam

d)

Phenobarbital

9.

A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is most likely to report:

a)

Ascending paralysis

b)

Visual disturbances

c)

Cogwheel rigidity

d)

Resting tremors

10.

Guillain-Barré syndrome requires immediate monitoring for:

a)

Seizures

b)

Respiratory failure

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

Hypertension

11.

Parkinson’s disease is caused by:

a)

Loss of acetylcholine

b)

Excess serotonin

c)

Dopamine deficiency

d)

Excess norepinephrine

12.

Autonomic dysreflexia is most likely to occur in spinal cord injuries at or above:

a)

T12

b)

T6

c)

L1

d)

C8

13.

A patient reports seeing flashes of light and a “curtain” over their vision. This indicates:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Retinal detachment

d)

Macular degeneration

14.

Open-angle glaucoma is primarily treated with:

a)

Oral steroids

b)

Prostaglandin eye drops

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Mydriatic drops

15.

A patient with macular degeneration will have:

a)

Peripheral vision loss

b)

Central vision loss

c)

Total blindness

d)

Diplopia

16.

Which structure contains photoreceptors?

a)

Cornea

b)

Lens

c)

Retina

d)

Sclera

17.

A patient with conductive hearing loss will have:

a)

Sensorineural damage

b)

Abnormal Weber test lateralizing to the affected ear

c)

Vertigo

d)

Tinnitus only

18.

Ménière’s disease is characterized by:

a)

Ear pain

b)

Episodic vertigo and tinnitus

c)

Purulent drainage

d)

Hearing loss only

19.

A patient with Ménière’s disease should be instructed to follow which dietary recommendation?

a)

High-protein diet

b)

Low-sodium diet

c)

High-fiber diet

d)

Low-fat diet

20.

A patient with cataracts will report:

a)

Eye pain

b)

Halos and cloudy vision

c)

Sudden blindness

d)

Photophobia only

21.

Otitis media is most commonly associated with:

a)

Ear trauma

b)

Middle ear infection

c)

Cochlear damage

d)

Eustachian tube stenosis

22.

A stye is an infection of the:

a)

Cornea

b)

Meibomian gland

c)

Retina

d)

Optic nerve

23.

Keratitis is inflammation of the:

a)

Lens

b)

Cornea

c)

Retina

d)

Sclera

24.

A patient with angle-closure glaucoma may present with:

a)

Gradual vision loss

b)

Severe eye pain and nausea

c)

No symptoms

d)

Diplopia only

25.

The Rinne test compares:

a)

Air vs bone conduction

b)

Right vs left ear

c)

High vs low frequencies

d)

Tympanic vs cochlear function

26.

A pituitary adenoma commonly causes:

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Bitemporal hemianopsia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia

27.

A patient with diabetes insipidus will have:

a)

Low urine output

b)

High urine specific gravity

c)

Polyuria and polydipsia

d)

Fluid retention

28.

SIADH results in:

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Polyuria

d)

Dehydration

29.

A hallmark sign of Graves’ disease is:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Cold intolerance

c)

Exophthalmos

d)

Weight gain

30.

Hypothyroidism commonly presents with:

a)

Heat intolerance

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Weight gain

d)

Anxiety

31.

Addison’s disease causes:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Fluid retention

d)

Weight gain

32.

Cushing’s syndrome is associated with:

a)

Moon face and truncal obesity

b)

Weight loss

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Low cortisol

33.

Pheochromocytoma causes:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Severe hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia

34.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by:

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Autoimmune β-cell destruction

c)

Excess cortisol

d)

Excess glucagon

35.

A patient with DKA will most likely have:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Kussmaul respirations

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Low ketones

36.

HHNS is most associated with:

a)

Type 1 DM

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Addison’s disease

37.

Which macronutrient is the body’s primary energy source?

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Vitamins

38.

A patient with Crohn’s disease is most likely to have:

a)

High albumin

b)

Low prealbumin

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

High calcium

39.

PKU requires restriction of:

a)

Glucose

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

40.

A patient with iron-deficiency anemia will have:

a)

Macrocytic RBCs

b)

Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs

c)

High ferritin

d)

Low TIBC

41.

Celiac disease is triggered by:

a)

Lactose

b)

Gluten

c)

Fructose

d)

Casein

42.

Kwashiorkor is caused by:

a)

Total calorie deprivation

b)

Protein deficiency

c)

Excess fat intake

d)

Vitamin toxicity

43.

A patient with anorexia nervosa requires:

a)

Rapid refeeding

b)

Psychotherapy and monitored nutrition

c)

High-fat diet

d)

Insulin therapy

44.

Steatorrhea indicates:

a)

High protein intake

b)

Fat malabsorption

c)

High fiber intake

d)

Excess bile production

45.

A patient with Crohn’s disease should follow which diet?

a)

High-fiber

b)

Low-residue, high-calorie

c)

Low-protein

d)

High-fat

46.

Marasmus is characterized by:

a)

Protein deficiency only

b)

Total calorie deficiency

c)

Vitamin toxicity

d)

Excess carbohydrate intake

47.

A patient with obesity is at increased risk for:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Diabetes and cardiovascular disease

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

48.

A positive guaiac test indicates:

a)

Fat malabsorption

b)

Hidden blood in stool

c)

High bilirubin

d)

Excess mucus

49.

The functional unit of the kidney is:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Nephron

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Loop of Henle

50.

A patient with oliguria produces:

a)

>3 L/day>3 \, \text{L/day}

b)

<400 mL/day<400 \, \text{mL/day}

c)

No urine

d)

Cloudy urine

51.

A high specific gravity indicates:

a)

Dilute urine

b)

Concentrated urine

c)

Normal hydration

d)

Kidney failure

52.

Urolithiasis commonly presents with:

a)

Dull abdominal pain

b)

Colicky flank pain

c)

Painless hematuria

d)

Fever only

53.

Stress incontinence is caused by:

a)

Detrusor overactivity

b)

Pelvic floor weakness

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Cognitive impairment

54.

Overflow incontinence results from:

a)

Overactive bladder

b)

Underactive detrusor

c)

Infection

d)

High fluid intake

55.

Polycystic kidney disease leads to:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Low urine output only

d)

Hypercalcemia

56.

A patient with a kidney stone should increase:

a)

Sodium

b)

Fluids

c)

Protein

d)

Calcium

57.

A GFR < 90 mL/min indicates:

a)

Normal function

b)

Impaired kidney function

c)

Dehydration only

d)

Excess filtration

58.

A patient with urinary retention is at risk for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Infection

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypertension

59.

Diverticulitis typically presents with:

a)

RUQ pain

b)

LLQ pain and fever

c)

Epigastric pain

d)

Painless bleeding

60.

Encopresis is defined as:

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Involuntary stool passage at or above age 4

c)

Chronic diarrhea

d)

Fecal impaction

61.

BPH causes:

a)

Painful urination

b)

Urinary retention and weak stream

c)

Hematuria only

d)

Testicular swelling

62.

PID is mainly caused by:

a)

HSV

b)

Candida

c)

Chlamydia/Gonorrhea

d)

HPV

63.

A patient with PCOS is most likely to exhibit which clinical feature?

a)

Heat intolerance

b)

Hirsutism and irregular menses

c)

Painful vesicular lesions

d)

Painless genital ulcer

64.

A woman with endometriosis commonly reports:

a)

Painless bleeding

b)

Cyclic pelvic pain

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Hot flashes

65.

Which symptom is most concerning for endometrial cancer?

a)

Dysmenorrhea

b)

Postmenopausal bleeding

c)

Heavy menses in adolescence

d)

Vaginal discharge

66.

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is most likely to report:

a)

Burning with urination

b)

Weak urinary stream and hesitancy

c)

Scrotal swelling

d)

Penile discharge

67.

Which condition is characterized by a painless testicular mass?

a)

Epididymitis

b)

Testicular torsion

c)

Testicular cancer

d)

Hydrocele

68.

A patient with primary dysmenorrhea should be instructed to use:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Anticoagulants

d)

Steroids

69.

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is at increased risk for:

a)

Ovarian torsion

b)

Infertility

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Breast cancer

70.

Which STI is characterized by a painless chancre in the primary stage?

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Syphilis

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

HSV-2

71.

A nurse assesses a painless genital ulcer in a patient. This finding is most consistent with which stage of syphilis?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Latent

72.

A patient presents with a diffuse rash on the palms and soles. Which stage of syphilis should the nurse suspect?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Latent

73.

Which statement best describes gummas associated with syphilis?

a)

Acute infectious ulcers

b)

Viral skin lesions

c)

Chronic inflammatory granulomas

d)

Benign cysts

74.

A nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with chlamydia about the complications of untreated infection. Which condition is the most significant risk?

a)

Cervical dysplasia

b)

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

c)

Vesicular lesions

d)

Genital warts

75.

The nurse is providing HPV education to a group of college students. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“The HPV vaccine can protect against certain strains that cause cervical cancer.”

b)

“Condom use can reduce, but not eliminate, the risk of HPV transmission.”

c)

“HPV infection always causes visible genital warts.”

d)

“Cryotherapy can be used to treat genital warts.”

76.

A nurse is caring for a client with gonorrhea. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

a)

Administer ceftriaxone intramuscularly

b)

Provide education on condom use

c)

Reassure the client that sexual partners do not need treatment

d)

Anticipate dual therapy with azithromycin

e)

Encourage the client to discontinue antibiotics if symptoms resolve

77.

A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with genital herpes (HSV-2). Which statements should be included in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

a)

“Antiviral medications help reduce recurrences.”

b)

“Lesions are usually painful vesicles.”

c)

“This infection increases the risk of HIV transmission.”

d)

“You are cured once the vesicles resolve.”

e)

“The virus can remain dormant and reactivate.”

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