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U Network Ver 04062021

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 3hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which IPv6 address type is indicated by the first four hex characters of an address ranging from 2000 to 3999?

a)

Globally routable unicast

b)

Anycast

c)

Link-local

d)

Multicast

2.

Identify the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) component that is a piece of software, which runs on a managed device (for example, a server, router, or a switch).

a)

MIB

b)

SNMP agent

c)

SNMP manager

d)

SNMP trap

3.

Which of the following features can fix mismatched Tx/Rx leads on an Ethernet switch?

a)

STP

b)

MDIX

c)

VTP

d)

LACP

4.

Which of the following are Layer 3 redundancy mechanisms?


Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

a)

CARP

b)

HSRP

c)

DSCP

d)

LFI

5.

Identify the quality of service (QoS) mechanism that can set a bandwidth limit on traffic and drop packets attempting to exceed that bandwidth limit.

a)

Policing

b)

cRTP

c)

LFI

d)

Traffic shaping

6.

What type of network allows interconnected devices to share their resources with one another but would have issues regarding scalability?

a)

Peer-to-peer

b)

Client-server

c)

Hub and spoke

d)

MPLS

7.

a)

Full mesh

b)

Bus

c)

Star

d)

Partial mesh

8.

What term defines a variation in the delay of packets in the network?

a)

Attenuation

b)

Crosstalk

c)

Latency

d)

Jitter

9.

Which options should be included in a bring-your-own-device policy? Choose 2

a)

Integration between it and the acceptable use policy

b)

Periodic review of DLP policy

c)

Identification of the most sensitive data in the organization

d)

Detailed presentation on the exit policies for employees

10.

Which of the following UNIX commands is primarily used to resolve a fully-qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IP address and can operate in an interactive mode (that is, you enter this command, receive a prompt, and can then give additional commands)?

a)

ifconfig

b)

dig

c)

man

d)

nslookup

11.

Which of the following approaches to wireless LAN (WLAN) security uses RC4 as its encryption algorithm?

a)

WPA

b)

WEP

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA Enterprise

12.

Which of the following network appliances performs the most processor-intensive tasks and is critical in IPSec environments?

a)

Proxy server

b)

Load balancer

c)

VPN concentrator

d)

Content filter

13.

A wireless LAN (WLAN) containing only one access point (AP) is known as what type of WLAN?

a)

ESS

b)

SSID

c)

IBSS

d)

BSS

14.

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.192.0, what is the corresponding prefix notation?

a)

/16

b)

/26

c)

/18

d)

/22

15.

What type of physical security utilizes a fingerprint or facial recognition to verify identity?

a)

Biometrics

b)

Bioidentification

c)

Smart cards

d)

SmartID

16.

What IP traffic type should you use if you want to send out a video stream to 23 of the systems in the marketing department? There are 50 total systems in this department.

a)

Unicast

b)

Multicast

c)

Directed broadcast

d)

Broadcast

17.

Which two of the following virtual private network (VPN) tunneling protocols can be used to provide security for HTTPS?

a)

PPTP

b)

TLS

c)

SSL

d)

L2TP

18.

Which MPLS element is the provider's router that connects to the customer?

a)

PE

b)

P

c)

CE

d)

LSR

19.

Which of the following standards specifies a type of coaxial cable typically used for short distance applications, such as carrying composite video between two nearby devices, and has a characteristic impedance of 75 Ohms?

a)

RG-59

b)

RG-6

c)

MMF

d)

RG-58

20.

What does RIP use for a metric?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Cost

c)

Hop Count

d)

Delay

21.

What is a routing protocol that is used for moving prefixes back and forth between different autonomous systems?

a)

BGP

b)

IS-IS

c)

RIP

d)

OSPF

22.

What is the best possible value for administrative distance?

a)

255

b)

170

c)

0

d)

1

e)

63

23.

What is the measure of a wireless signal's strength?

a)

Latency

b)

AP

c)

RSSI

d)

RFI

24.

Refer to the exhibit. What command produced the output shown on your Windows workstation?

a)

netstat -a

b)

nbtstat -a

c)

ping -a

d)

arp -a

25.

Which of the following protocols is used for transferring files with a remote host in a non-secure fashion and without requiring user credentials?

a)

SCP

b)

TFTP

c)

SSH

d)

SFTP

26.

What technology is typically used in conjunction with DSL?

a)

Metro Ethernet

b)

HDLC

c)

PPP

d)

PPPoE

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the topology. What needs to be configured on router R1 in order for the DHCP client to successfully send a DHCPDISCOVER message to the DHCP server?

a)

DHCP relay agent

b)

Scope

c)

Reservation

d)

Lease

28.

If you are working on an isolated test network (that is, a test bed), what piece of equipment can you use to simulate a heavy network load?

a)

Cable certifier

b)

Toner probe

c)

Throughput tester

d)

Cable tester

29.

A system on an Ethernet network detects a collision. How does it respond?

a)

The device contacts the machine the collision occurred with.

b)

The device retransmits after waiting for a period dictated by the backoff timer.

c)

The device deletes the frame and creates another for sending.

d)

The device contacts a central mediator on the network.

30.

Which type of fiber optic connector contains two fiber strands in a single connector?

a)

LC

b)

MTRJ

c)

ST

d)

SC

31.

Internet Protocol (IP) resides at what layer of the OSI Model?


Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

a)

Layer 4

b)

Transport

c)

Layer 3

d)

Network

32.

Which two of the following are firewall inspection types?

a)

Hardware

b)

Packet filtering

c)

Stateful

d)

Software

33.

What variation of network address translation (NAT) allows you to statically configure the inside global address assigned to a specific device inside your network?

a)

SNAT

b)

Both DNAT and PAT

c)

DNAT

d)

PAT

34.

How big is the payload of an ATM cell?

a)

64 Bytes

b)

48 Bytes

c)

32 Bytes

d)

5 Bytes

35.

You are configuring a wireless access point (AP). You specify a wireless standard of 802.11n operating in the 2.4 GHz band. You also select an option to make it operate in a "backward compatible" mode. Therefore, what additional 802.11 standards are supported?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

a)

802.11g

b)

802.11b

c)

802.11a

d)

802.11ac

36.

What device is a Layer 2 device that uses MAC address learning to intelligently forward traffic?

a)

WAN link

b)

Switch

c)

Hub

d)

Router

37.

A T3 connection is an example of which WAN type?

a)

Packet switched

b)

Leased line

c)

Circuit switched

d)

Cell switched

38.

You are configuring a wireless LAN (WLAN) with three wireless access points having overlapping coverage areas. The wireless access points are using the 2.4 GHz frequency band and are located in the United States. What three non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band should you select?

a)

11

b)

6

c)

1

d)

14

e)

15

39.

Which two of the following are true regarding a client-to-site and site-to-site virtual private networks (VPN)?

a)

A site-to-site VPN interconnects two locations, as an alternative to a leased line, at a reduced cost.

b)

A client-to-site VPN interconnects two sites, as an alternative to a leased line, at a reduced cost.

c)

A client-to-site VPN (also known as a remote access VPN) interconnects a remote user with a site, as an alternative to dial-up or ISDN connectivity, at a reduced cost.

d)

A site-to-site VPN (also known as a remote access VPN) interconnects a remote user with a site, as an alternative to dial-up or ISDN connectivity, at a reduced cost.

40.

You have a Layer 2 switch. You have left all ports in the default VLAN. You connect five workstations. How many broadcast domains exist on this switch?

a)

5

b)

0

c)

1

d)

2

41.

A Cisco router has learned a network via three different routing protocols: OSPF, EIGRP, and RIP. Which route will the router believe (that is, inject into the router's IP routing table)?

a)

EIGRP

b)

RIP

c)

A route entry from each routing protocol will be injected into the router's IP routing table, and the router will load-balance across the three routes.

d)

OSPF

42.

If multiple wireless access points exist in a wireless LAN (WLAN), what percentage of coverage overlap should the access points have?

a)

75 percent

b)

10 to 15 percent

c)

20 to 30 percent

d)

Approximately 50 percent

43.

Which of the following is a vulnerability scanner product from Tenable Network Security®?

a)

Nessus

b)

Nmap

c)

Honeynet

d)

Honeypot

44.

What are the three levels of security associated with events appearing in Microsoft Windows® application logs?

a)

Warning

b)

Information

c)

Error

d)

Critical

45.

Which of the following are recommendations for developing a password policy?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

a)

Ensure uniqueness from previous passwords.

b)

Ensure that passwords do not expire.

c)

Always allow proper names.

d)

Do not allow words to be spelled out completely.

46.

Which QoS mechanism does not reorder packets and simply uses first-in, first-out logic?

a)

Uncontrolled services

b)

Best effort

c)

Integrated services

d)

Differentiated services

47.

What command produced the output shown on your Windows workstation?

a)

ipconfig /all

b)

ipconfig

c)

ipconfig /renew

d)

ipconfig /release

48.

Which of the following security attacks leverages the PORT command?

a)

Smurf attack

b)

FTP bounce attack

c)

DDoS attack

d)

DoS attack

49.

When an organization is developing a site redundancy solution, which option offers recovery but is the most time consuming upon main site failure?

a)

Cold site

b)

Hot site

c)

Beta site

d)

Alpha site

50.

In the topology shown, what is the most likely type of network appliance labeled as "Network Appliance X?"

a)

VPN concentrator

b)

Load balancer

c)

Proxy server

d)

Content engine

51.

Which of the following security threats is a program that appears to be for one purpose (for example, a game), but secretly performs another task (for example, collecting a list of contacts from an end-user's e-mail program)?

a)

Keylogger

b)

Trojan horse

c)

Worm

d)

Virus

52.

What is the name of the protocol used with IPv6 to learn the Layer 2 addresses that exist on the same local network?

a)

DHCP

b)

NAT

c)

ARP

d)

NDP

53.

What command produced the output shown on your Windows workstation?

a)

nbtstat

b)

nslookup

c)

ipconfig

d)

ping

54.

What device is a Layer 3 device that is used to make forwarding decisions based on a Layer 3 address?

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

Switch

d)

WAN link

55.

Which type of twisted pair cable has an insulator that is fire retardant and minimizes the emission of dangerous fumes in the event of fire?

a)

UTP

b)

Plenum

c)

HVAC

d)

STP

56.

A corporate e-mail service would be classified as belonging to what Layer of the OSI Model?

a)

Application

b)

Network

c)

Physical

d)

Presentation

57.

While more than one of the following Microsoft Windows® commands can be used to resolve a fully-qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IP address, identify the command whose primary purpose is to resolve a FQDN to an IP address (for example, to determine if a Domain Name System (DNS) record is correct).

a)

nslookup

b)

ping

c)

route

d)

tracert

58.

Which of the following can often be categorized as an encryption device (that is, a device capable of participating in an encrypted session)?


Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

VPN concentrator

d)

Firewall

59.

You have a Layer 2 switch. You have left all ports in the default VLAN. You connect five workstations. How many collision domains exist on this switch?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

5

d)

2

e)

3

60.

Which of the following copper connector types is most commonly used for cable TV connections?

a)

BNC

b)

RJ-45

c)

DB-9

d)

RJ-11

e)

F-connector

61.

What protocol is used to bundle links together in order to improve bandwidth availability and redundancy?

a)

VTP

b)

HDLC

c)

LACP

d)

ARP

62.

An Ethernet switch resides at which layer of the OSI Model?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

7

63.

Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link Layer (that is, Layer 2) of the OSI Model?


Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

a)

LAPD

b)

LLC

c)

MAC

d)

PPP

64.

Which issue is commonly related to a network device becoming a black hole for traffic?

a)

Incorrect DNS configuration

b)

Duplicate IP addresses

c)

Exhausted DHCP scope

d)

Mismatched MTU

65.

What command produced the output shown on your Windows workstation?

a)

nslookup

b)

nbtstat

c)

ping

d)

ipconfig

66.

Which layer of the OSI Model is concerned with how bits are represented on the medium?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Presentation

67.

What is the bandwidth of a T1 digital circuit?

a)

44.7 Mbps

b)

34.4 Mbps

c)

1.544 Mbps

d)

2.048 Mbps

68.

Which of the following requires two types of authentication (but no more) from a user seeking admission to a network?

a)

SSO

b)

Multifactor authentication

c)

TFA

d)

EAP

69.

Which of the following reflect the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation combination of 10BASE5 Ethernet?

a)

Coax/10 Mbps/185 m

b)

Cat 3 UTP/10 Mbps/100 m

c)

Cat 5 UTP/100 Mbps/100 m

d)

Coax/10 Mbps/500 m

70.

You are troubleshooting an issue where a PC cannot reach a web server (with a DNS name of pearsonitcertification.com) on the Internet. From the PC you can Ping the IP addresses of devices on your local subnet. You cannot Ping the DNS name of the web server. However, you have previously noted the IP address of the web server's IP address, and you notice that you can Ping the IP address of the web server. Of the following potential troubleshooting issues, what is most likely causing the problem?

a)

Incorrect gateway configuration on the PC

b)

Incorrect subnet mask on the PC

c)

Incorrect (or missing) routes in a router's routing table

d)

Incorrect DNS configuration on the PC

71.

What is the name of the wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation?

a)

IR

b)

Z-Wave

c)

Ant+

d)

Bluetooth

72.

Which IoT technology is commonly used in remote controls to transmit information using a form of light?

a)

NFC

b)

Ant+

c)

IR

d)

Z-Wave

73.

What is the name of the document that outlines the confidential material, knowledge, or information that agreeing parties cannot communicate to others?

a)

SLC

b)

BYOD

c)

LRK

d)

NDA

74.

Identify the quality of service (QoS) function that alters bits in a frame, cell, or packet.

a)

Marking

b)

Classification

c)

Congestion avoidance

d)

Congestion management

75.

Consider the fully-qualified domain name (FQDN) host1.pearsonitcertification.com; what is the top-level domain in the FQDN?

a)

pearsonitcertification

b)

com

c)

http

d)

host1

76.

Which of the following best defines an IDS sensor?

a)

An IDS sensor defines a set of rules dictating which types of traffic are permitted or denied as that traffic enters or exits a firewall interface.

b)

An IDS sensor scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress.

c)

An IDS sensor enables external clients to access data on private systems without compromising the security of the internal network as a whole.

d)

An IDS sensor secures communication between two sites over an untrusted network.

77.

What is the distance limitation of 100GBASE-ER4?

a)

25 km

b)

10 km

c)

300 m

d)

40 km

78.

Which of the following is a Microsoft Windows® command that displays what Layer 2 MAC address corresponds to a Layer 3 IP address?

a)

netstat

b)

arp

c)

ipconfig

d)

nbtstat

79.

A network administrator can use which of the following to locate a break in a fiber optic cable?

a)

Multimeter

b)

OTDR

c)

TDR

d)

Environmental monitor

80.

Which phase of an incident response plan focuses on the protection of resources and determining operational status?

a)

Contain

b)

Control

c)

Analysis

d)

Prepare

81.

What is the common TCP port (that is, "well-known" port) used by SMTP?

a)

21

b)

22

c)

34

d)

25

e)

13

82.

Consider the network topology. Which (if any) device in the topology has an incorrect IP address? (Assume that if two devices belong to one subnet, and another device belongs to a different subnet, that device (belonging to a different subnet than the other two devices) has an incorrect IP address.)

a)

Client A

b)

All devices have valid IP addresses.

c)

R1

d)

Server 1

83.

The IEEE 802.11n wireless standard has which of the following frequency band / maximum bandwidth parameters?

a)

2.4 GHz or 5 GHz / > 300 Mbps

b)

2.4 GHz / 54 Mbps

c)

2.4 GHz / 11 Mbps

d)

5 GHz / 54 Mbps

84.

What can you add to a network to mitigate a power failure that might otherwise make an Ethernet switch unusable?

a)

MDIX

b)

GBIC

c)

UPS

d)

STP

85.

What technology is an IETF version of HSRP?

a)

PAT

b)

GLBP

c)

NAT

d)

VRRP

86.

In the modern LAN, what type of device is typically used at the center of a star topology?

a)

Firewall

b)

Switch

c)

Hub

d)

Router

87.

Which of the following remote access security technologies is a client-server authentication protocol and uses the concept of a trusted third party (that is, a Key Distribution Center) that hands out tickets that are used instead of a username and password combination?

a)

RADIUS

b)

TACACS+

c)

CHAP

d)

Kerberos