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Breakout 1 Released Questions

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 4hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

a)

The cell cycle skips G0 phase and repeats G1 phase

b)

Mitotic division is skipped, and the cell cycle proceeds to cytokinesis

c)

Mitotic division stops in metaphase and cannot proceed to anaphase

d)

The cell cycle skips S phase and proceeds to G2 phase.

2.

Which table shows two steps of DNA Replication?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

The activities in the cell cycle occur during specific phases. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G1 Phase

c)

G2 Phase

d)

S phase

4.
a)

Arrow 1 represents prophase, and arrow 2 represents interphase

b)

Arrow 1 represents mitosis, and arrow 2 represents meiosis

c)

Arrow 1 represents interphase, and arrow 2 represents mitosis

d)

Arrow 1 represents meiosis, and arrow 2 represents prophase

5.

a)

Duplicates the DNA

b)

Completes cell division

c)

Maintains genetic homeostasis

d)

Synthesizes new molecules

6.

People who have leukemia, a cancer that affects white blood cells, are often given Cytarabine. This drug inhibits the synthesis of DNA. Which phase of the cell cycle is most affected by Cytarabine?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

7.
a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

8.

Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

So that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place

b)

So that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis

c)

So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells

d)

So that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing.

9.
a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

10.

Scientists can bioengineer skin in a laboratory to treat severe burns and other types of skin injuries. This bioengineered tissue is grown from living cells. The cellular process that enables the cells to grow and develop into tissue is-

a)

conjugation

b)

meiosis

c)

budding

d)

mitosis

11.
a)

The nuclear membrane disintegrates

b)

DNA replicates

c)

Centrioles form

d)

The nucleolus divides

12.

Telophase is a stage of a cellular process that begins after the chromosomes have moved to opposite poles of the cell. during which cellular process does telophase occur?

a)

Translation

b)

Interphase

c)

Transcription

d)

Mitosis

13.
a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

14.

Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?

a)

The DNA must be replicated

b)

The chromosomes must be joined

c)

The cytoplasm must be separated

d)

The cell membrane must be expanded

15.
a)

Because internal or external stimuli can trigger the activation of specific genes in the DNA of cells

b)

Because random mutations can occur in the DNA of cells during early embryonic development

c)

Because messenger RNA is converted to transfer RNA when cell differentiation begins

d)

Because chemical signals that are released during the cell cycle can result in the linking of similar genes

16.

What is the role of mRNA in expressing specialized structures?

a)

making energy available for cellular activities

b)

creating bonds to form biomolecules

c)

producing sugars that assist with replication

d)

providing information to form proteins

17.

From a single fertilized ovum undergoing a series of rapid cell divisions, a human infant develops. the embryonic cells become specialized for a variety of functions. Which of these statements best describes how different cell types develop?

a)

each cell type contains only the active parts of the DNA needed for that cell type

b)

Each cell type has only one chromosome containing the DNA needed for that cell type

c)

Each cell has an identical copy of DNA with enzymes controlling the expression of specific genes, leading to a variety of cells

d)

Each cell has multiple copies of DNA that are affected in different ways by the environment to change the function of the cell at regular intervals

18.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they

a)

contain a lipid bilayer

b)

can clump together

c)

metabolize sugars rapidly

d)

have specific genes activated

19.

Cell differentiation is critical during embryonic development. The process of cell differentiation results in the production of many types of cells, including germ, somatic, and stem cells. Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by-

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

lipids

d)

sugars

20.

When cells lose their ability to regulate the cell cycle, they can divide at an accelerated rate and form a mass of cells. This mass of cells is referred to as-

a)

a tumor

b)

an embryo

c)

a gland

d)

an organ

21.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumors?

a)

ATP production is inhibited

b)

cell division is unregulated

c)

somatic cell growth is inhibited

d)

antibody activity is unregulated

22.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell signaling pathways. turning off these genes can cause less mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

23.

Atherosclerosis is a disease that obstructs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen supply to target organs. A major component of atherosclerosis is the excessive reproduction of smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the potential to reverse or prevent the unregulated reproduction of the diseased blood vessel cells. Which of these processes is the most likely target of these drugs?

a)

cell division

b)

erythroblast differentiation

c)

DNA transcription

d)

cellular respiration

24.
a)

fail to complete S phase

b)

mutate during G1 phase

c)

repeat the cell cycle continuously

d)

die after completing mitosis

25.

a)

1,3,5, and 6 only

b)

3 and 5 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

3,4,7, and 8 only

26.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown.


3' AGGTCAGGT 5'


Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5' AGGTCAGGT 3'

b)

5' ACCUGAGGU 3'

c)

5' TGGACTGGA 3'

d)

5' TCCAGTCCA 3'

27.
a)

sample 1

b)

sample 2

c)

sample 3

d)

sample 4

28.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

the number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

the sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule

d)

The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand

29.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in-

a)

the location of sugar groups in DNA

b)

the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

c)

the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA

d)

the molecules attached to the phosphate in DNA

30.
a)

The model is inaccurate because the base pairs are incorrect

b)

the model is accurate because it contains correctly paired bases

c)

the model is accurate because it shows each base splitting to form a double helix

d)

the model is inaccurate because some typical bases in DNA are missing

31.

Nitrogenous bases are located in both strands of the DNA double helix. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?

a)

the number of adenines and cytosines determines the type of RNA that will be produced

b)

the order of nitrogenous bases determines the order of amino acids in the proteins synthesized

c)

the amount of thymine and guanine in the DNA molecules determines the length o the genes.

d)

the type of hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases determines which amino acid will be added to the peptide chain

32.

Each strand of DNA molecule contains nitrogenous bases that pair with other nitrogenous bases in very specific ways. A diagram of a section of DNA is shown. Which DNA strand is complementary to the one shown above?

a)
b)
c)
d)
33.

How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

as a sequence of nucleotides

b)

in the double helix shape of the condensed chromosome

c)

in the ratio of adenines to thymines

d)

as a pattern of phosphates and sugars

34.

Which of these models of a DNA strand shows bases that are complementary to the ones on the student's DNA model?

a)
b)
c)
d)
35.

The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA varies widely. The sequence of the bases in DNA is most important for which of the following?

a)

Providing the instructions for the traits of an organism

b)

preventing mutations from occurring during DNA replication

c)

allowing the DNA to have the shape necessary for replication

d)

helping form the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA molecules

36.

By studying this photograph, scientists gain knowledge about the-

a)

role of DNA in protein synthesis

b)

mutation of nucleotide sequences in DNA

c)

sequence of DNA that makes up the human genome

d)

double helix structure of DNA

37.

The arrow indicates-

a)

the bond between adjacent phosphate and deoxyribose molecules

b)

the junction of introns and exons in the sense strand of DNA

c)

the hydrogen bond between complementary nucleotides

d)

the junction of a codon and a DNA triplet

38.

Characteristics such as a widow's peak or attached earlobes are determined by the genetic code. Which components of DNA are referred to as the genetic code?

a)

phosphate groups

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

deoxybribose sugars

d)

hydrogen bonds

39.

How does DNA in cells determine an organism's complex traits?

a)

DNA contains codes for proteins, which are necessary for the growth and functioning of an organism.

b)

DNA separates into long single strands that make up each part of an organism

c)

DNA produces the energy an organism needs in order to grow

d)

DNA folds into the nucleus of each of the cells of an organsim

40.

Which of these components are found in the cells of all living organisms?

a)

estrogen and testosterone

b)

hemoglobin and lymphocytes

c)

cytosine and guanine

d)

cellulose and chlorophyll

41.

scientists use zebra fish to study human genetic diseases because zebra fish and humans share many of the same genetic disease. Which statement describes why zebra fish experience similar genetic diseases as humans?

a)

zebra fish have an omnivorous diet similar to tha tof humans

b)

zebra fish have nucleotide sequences similar to those of humans

c)

zebra fish go through embryonic stages similar to those of humans

d)

zebra fish produce gametes through a process tha tis similar to tha tof humans.

42.

In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormones. which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?

a)

human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli cells are prokaryotic

b)

all living organisms share the same genome

c)

the genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks

d)

the human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. coli

43.

Organisms can be classified based on homology, which is shared characteristics inherited from a common ancestor. In the past, homologies were based on studies of anatomical structures and patterns of embryonic development. In more recent years, the use of molecular biology techniques has allowed homologies to be compared at the level of nucleotide sequences. Nucleotide sequence comparisons are possible because all organisms share which of the following?

a)

DNA bases

b)

cellular organelles

c)

division of the nuclear chromosomes

d)

types of proteins needed for cellular functions

44.

Which characteristic is shared by all four ells?

a)

a mechanism for transforming sunlight into energy

b)

self locomotion

c)

membrane bound organelles that transport substances

d)

genetic material composed of DNA

45.

the fact that a strain of yeast with a certain defective gene can cause the human version of the gene to repair itself is evidence that yeast and humans-

a)

depend on the same food supply

b)

share a genetic code

c)

both have eukaryotic cells

d)

have identical genomes

46.

students are modeling mRNA during the process of protein synthesis. Which answer choice correctly describes the model of the mRNA strand being transcribed?

a)

the mRNA strand is complementary to the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of adenine is paired with thymine

b)

the mRNA strand is complementary to the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of thymine is pared with adenine

c)

the mRNA strand is an exact copy of the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of adenine is paired with thymine

d)

the mRNA strand is an exact copy of the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of thymine is paired with adenine.

47.
a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

a)

to replcate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

to assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template

c)

to synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code

d)

to translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

49.

a)

process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

process: translation; product: protein

c)

process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

process: recombination; product: polymerase

50.

a)

preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence.

51.

a)

val, lys, phe, gly,ser

b)

met, asp, phe, ala, arg

c)

met, val, lys, arg, gln, ser

d)

Iie, gin, lys, asp, gly , leu, ser

52.

Which of these best explains why the hair that grew back where the ice pack was placed was black and not white?

a)

the genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures

b)

the white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit's body temperature decreased

c)

the coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit

d)

white hair only grows during certain times of the year.

53.
a)

the alleles for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older

b)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by latitude

c)

the arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth

d)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature

54.

at birth himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. But when parts of the bodies reach temperatures below 35C, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

poor blood circulation

b)

infection caused by cold temperatures

c)

gene expression that is regulated by temperature

d)

a trait that is both sex linked and hormone dependent

55.
a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

substitution

d)

translocation

56.

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

duplication

d)

substitution

57.

which of these is the direct result of an error in the transcription of a DNA nucleotide

a)

the nuclear membrane is ruptured

b)

amino acids do not bond to tRNA

c)

a codon sequence is incorrect

d)

transportation of mRNA does not occur

58.
a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

frameshift

59.

a mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to which of the following?

a)

the siblings of the organism

b)

the offspring of the organism

c)

the other organisms living nearby

d)

the mating partner of the organism

60.
a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

4/16

d)

9/16

61.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and Be alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes

a)

O only

b)

A or B

c)

A, B, or O only

d)

A, AB, or O

62.
a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

63.

In Holstein cattle the allele for black hair color (B) is dominant over the allele for red hair color (b), and the allele for polled (P), or lacking horns, is dominant over the allele for having horns (p). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring of a BbPp X BbPp cross if these alleles sort independently?

a)

16 black/polled: 0black/horned : 0 red/polled: 0 red/horned

b)

12 black/polled : 0 black/horned: 0 red/polled : 4 red/horned

c)

4 black/polled : 4 black/horned : 4 red/polled : 4 red/horned

d)

9 black/polled : 3 black/horned : 3 red/polled : 1 red/horned

64.

facial dimples and free earlobes are both considered dominant human traits. What are the expected phenotypes of the offspring of a female with dimples and free earlobes (DDFf) and a male with no dimples and attached earlobes (ddff)?

a)

50% with dimples and free earlobes and 50% with dimples and attached earlobes

b)

50% with dimples and free earlobes and 50% with no dimples and attached earlobes

c)

75% with dimples and free earlobes and 25% with no dimples and attached earlobes

d)

75% with dimples and attached earlobes and 25% with no dimples and free earlobes

65.

if several pea plants with the genotype TTYy are crossed with pea plants with the genotype Ttyy, what percentage of the offspring will be expected to have TTYy allele combination?

a)

25%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

75%

66.

Gametes produced by an organism contain a combination of genes from that organism. In every gamete, this combination is -

a)

the same because it is created from the same DNA

b)

the same because chromosomes are copied prior to meiosis

c)

different due to DNA replication prior to mitosis

d)

different due to independent assortment during meiosis

67.

Which diagram demonstrates how crossing over contributes to genetic variety during meiosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

during meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This exchange of genetic material-

a)

increase the genetic variation

b)

reduces the diploid number to the haploid number

c)

increase the haploid number to the diploid number

d)

reduces the probability of mutations

69.

sexual reproduction in animals depends on the production of gametes. which of these processes produces gametes in animals?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

binary fission

70.

crossing over between nonsister chromatids during meiosis is significant in heredity. This process most likely leads to an increase in which of the following?

a)

the expression of dominant traits

b)

number of gametes

c)

the occurrence of polyploidy

d)

genetic variation