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Biology Benchmark Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT included in the Cell Theory?

a)

All living things are composed of cells.

b)

Cells come from preexisting cells.

c)

Viruses require a host cell to reproduce.

d)

Cells are the basic unit of structure and function.

2.

Which of the following is a point mutation? Select all that apply.

a)

inversion

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

translocation

e)

substitution

3.

Identify the pioneer species.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

4.

Which of the following would cause a decline in the deer population?

a)

reproduction rate is stabilized

b)

competition for resources increased

c)

predator populations decreased

d)

new food sources became available

5.

Which of the following is most responsible for the increased surface temperature on Earth?

a)

solar radiation reflected from the moon

b)

many volcanic eruptions near the Ring of Fire

c)

the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere

d)

plankton distribution in the shallow ocean waters

6.

The arrows indicate?

a)

the transfer of energy

b)

the transfer of water

c)

the transfer of oxygen

d)

the transfer of carbon dioxide

7.

A Turner syndrome karyotype reveals that the mutation is a result of _____________? Select all that apply.

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

a nondisjunction

d)

a translocation

8.

Peppered moths have two variations: light and dark. Over a 10-year period, scientists notice a decline in the light moths and an increase in the dark moths. Which is the BEST conclusion to make about the changes in the moth population?

a)

A disease affected only the light-winged moths.

b)

Wing color has nothing to do with the decline of one variation over the other.

c)

A new food source has become available to the dark-winged moths.

d)

Light-winged peppered moths are being selected against due to environmental pressures.

9.

Which of the following would MOST likely occur if the number of nitrogen-fixing bacteria were reduced within an ecosystem?

a)

Plants would have more nitrates to take up.

b)

Plants and animals would decompose faster.

c)

High levels of ammonia would accumulate in the soil.

d)

The level of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere would increase.

10.

How does oxygen cycle between autotrophs and heterotrophs?

a)

Heterotrophs release oxygen, which is used by autotrophs.

b)

Autotrophs release oxygen, which is used by both autotrophs and heterotrophs.

c)

Autotrophs release oxygen, which is used only by heterotrophs.

d)

Heterotrophs release oxygen, which is trapped in the ozone layer.

11.

How does carbon dioxide cycle between autotrophs and heterotrophs?

a)

Heterotrophs release carbon dioxide, which is used by autotrophs.

b)

Autotrophs release carbon dioxide, which is used by both autotrophs and heterotrophs.

c)

Autotrophs release carbon dioxide, which is used only by heterotrophs.

d)

Heterotrophs release carbon dioxide, which is trapped in the stratosphere.

12.

Identify the biotic factors.

a)

water salinity

b)

tidal pattern

c)

temperature

d)

cordgrass

e)

great blue heron

13.

Identify the abiotic factors.

a)

water salinity

b)

tidal pattern

c)

temperature

d)

cordgrass

e)

great blue heron

14.

Which of the following is MOST likely the person that committed the crime?

a)

Suspect #1

b)

Suspect #2

c)

Suspect #3

d)

None of these

15.

Organisms living in an estuary (the tidal mouth of a large river, where the tide meets the stream) would MOST likely have to adjust to which of the following environmental changes?

a)

salinity

b)

sunlight

c)

wave action

d)

precipitation

16.

Darwin's finches have adapted and changed to their specific food source on each individual island in the Galapagos. What type of beak would be suited for eating very small insects trapped in rock crevices?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

17.

Which of the following is the best way to determine if one extinct species is a recent common ancestor of a extant species?

a)

Examine the anatomical structures of each, and identify similarities.

b)

Determine the reproductive methods of both species.

c)

Analyze the nucleotide sequences and determine the percent of shared bases.

d)

Determine if the location of the fossils is currently the habitat of the modern species.

18.

Which of the following describes a duplication?

a)

A piece of the chromosome is lost forever.

b)

A piece of the chromosome is copied.

c)

A piece of a chromosome is reversed end to end.

d)

A piece of a chromosome breaks off and reattaches to a non-homologous chromosome.

19.
a)

autosomal recessive

b)

autosomal dominant

c)

sex-linked recessive

d)

sex-linked dominant

20.
a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

21.

What are the subunits (monomers) of proteins?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

22.

What are the subunits (monomers) of carbohydrates?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

23.

What are the subunits (monomers) of lipids?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

24.

What are the subunits (monomers) of nucleic acids?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

25.

Which of the following codes for an amino acid?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

the sequence of proteins on the polypeptide chain

d)

the sequence of monosaccharides in the polysaccharide

26.

Determine the percentage of offspring that will have the Type O allele from a homozygous Type A parent and a heterozygous Type A parent.

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

27.

Determine the percentage of offspring that will have the Type O allele from a homozygous Type A parent and a heterozygous Type A parent.

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

28.

What are the subunits (monomers) of carbohydrates?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

29.

Daughter cells that have the exact amount and type of genetic material as the parent cell have gone through which of the following processes?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Interphase

30.

Hybrid organisms produced by breeding organisms of different species are often sterile because chromosomes cannot successfully pair during Prophase 1. Which of the following hybrids would MOST likely produce fertile offspring?

a)

Mule (Donkey - 62, Horse - 64) Total: 63

b)

Zedonk (Zebra - 46, Donkey - 62) Total: 54

c)

Wolf-dog (Wolf - 78, Dog - 78) Total: 78

d)

Triticale (Wheat - 42, Rye - 14) Total: 56

31.

This reaction benefits plants because it?

a)

results in a net increase in the mass of the atoms.

b)

produces chemical building blocks for proteins.

c)

keeps UV light from damaging their cells.

d)

provides chemical energy to the cells.

32.

Which of the following are produced from meiosis?

a)

nerve cell

b)

egg cell

c)

skin cell

d)

sperm cell

33.

Which of the following are produced from mitosis?

a)

nerve cell

b)

egg cell

c)

skin cell

d)

sperm cell

34.

Which of the following correctly describes the differentiation of cells?

a)

Certain genes are added to cells to produce proteins that enable specific functions.

b)

Certain genes are activated to produce certain proteins that enable specific functions.

c)

Differentiated cells produce all proteins but destroy the proteins they do not use.

d)

Differentiated cells release unused proteins into the blood for other cells to use.

35.

During active transport?

a)

molecules move down a concentration gradient

b)

water moves down a concentration gradient

c)

molecules move against a concentration gradient

d)

water moves against a concentration gradient

36.

Organs

a)

groups of cells functioning together

b)

groups of tissues functioning together

c)

groups of organelles functioning together

d)

groups of systems functioning together

37.

Viruses

a)

do not have hereditary material.

b)

are not separated from their environments.

c)

lack an independent metabolism.

d)

have traits that do not evolve.

38.

Viruses

a)

lack the genes necessary for transcription.

b)

need a host cell to provide nutrients.

c)

need a host cell to break down cellular membranes.

d)

lack ribosomes necessary to produce their own proteins.

39.

Select all organelles that can be found in a plant cell and animal cell.

a)

vacuole

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

cell wall

e)

ER

40.

Which of the following would allow a student to conclude that a cell was eukaryotic?

a)

protein

b)

RNA

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

41.
a)

nucleus

b)

cellular membrane

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

mitochondria

42.

Which of the following is responsible for producing ATP?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

ER

d)

Golgi apparatus

43.

Identify the enzyme.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

44.

How does the body obtain amino acids to build new structures?

a)

The body converts other amino acids to leucine.

b)

The body stores carbohydrates containing leucine.

c)

The body breaks down fatty acids to obtain leucine.

d)

The body digests protein in food to obtain leucine.

45.

What do an amoeba and a human have in common?

a)

a heart

b)

a spine

c)

lungs

d)

cells

46.
How do viruses reproduce?
a)
They copy their own genetic material inside a protein coat.
b)
They kill a cell and reproduce inside it.
c)
They invade a living cell and use the cell's functions to replicate their genetic material.
d)
They do not reproduce because they are not technically living things.
47.

What are the three main parts of a nucleotide?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base

c)

phosphate, sulfate, and nitrate

d)

adenine, thymine, and uracil

48.

In DNA, adenine pairs with _______, while guanine pairs with _______.

a)

uracil / cytosine

b)

thymine / uracil

c)

thymine / cytosine

d)

adenine / guanine

49.

What is the name of the sugar in DNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

c)

glucose

d)

galactose

50.

What is the name of the sugar in RNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

c)

glucose

d)

maltose

51.
Which is the only structure you would expect to see when examining a prokaryotic cell with a compound microscope?
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
cell membrane
d)
mitochondria
52.
What is the capsid of a virus?
a)
the disease it causes
b)
the receptors to which it binds
c)
the genetic material
d)
its protein coat
53.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
54.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication 
55.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
56.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
57.

What is the funtion of tRNA?

a)

contains codons and carries an amino acid to the ribosome

b)

carries a sugar to the ribosome

c)

contains anticodons and carries an amino acid to the ribosome

d)

carries an amino acid to the nucleus

58.

Use the chart to find to amino acid that corresponds to the codon GGA:

a)

Alanine

b)

Glutamic Acid

c)

Lysine

d)

Glycine

59.

What type of mutation is shown in the diagram?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

no change

60.

What is the process shown in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

mutation

d)

transformation