wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pearson Prep Test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process whereby the biota of ecosystems release energy necessary for functioning

a)

carbon neutrality

b)

carbon sequestration

c)

cellular respiration

d)

carbon flux from atmosphere to lithosphere

e)

fossil fuel combustion

2.

The main ecosystem service that permanently protected forests provide

a)

carbon neutrality

b)

carbon sequestration

c)

cellular respiration

d)

carbon flux from atmosphere to lithosphere

e)

fossil fuel combustion

3.

The main cause of a lowering of pH in marine environments

a)

carbon neutrality

b)

carbon sequestration

c)

cellular respiration

d)

carbon flux from atmosphere to lithosphere

e)

fossil fuel combustion

4.

The greatest amount of energy present in the above ecosystem is found at the level of

a)

red-tailed hawks.

b)

bobcats

c)

gray squirrels.

d)

white oak trees.

e)

decomposers

5.

In the above ecosystem, 250 kilograms would be required in order to live and grow.

a)

125 kg of gray squirrels

b)

250,000 kg of autotrophs

c)

2,500 kg of gray squirrels

d)

less than 2,500 kg of herbivores

e)

62.5 kg of white oak trees

6.

The specific tertiary consumers in this ecosystem are

a)

red-tailed hawks.

b)

bobcats

c)

gray squirrels.

d)

white oak trees.

e)

decomposers

7.

This ecosystem would most likely be found in the biome known as the

a)

savanna forest.

b)

boreal forest.

c)

taiga

d)

tropical rainforest.

e)

temperate deciduous forest.

8.

A city with a population of 10,000 is experiencing 20 deaths, 40 births, 10 emigrants, and 20 immigrants per year. What is the net annual percentage growth rate of this city?

a)

80%

b)

1%

c)

3%

d)

0.3%

e)

0.1%

9.

A country that is beginning to go through demographic transition becoming industrialized first experiences

a)

death rates rising as birth rates fall.

b)

birth rates rising.

c)

death rates rising.

d)

birth rates falling.

e)

high death rates until fully industrialized.

10.

A scientist does an experiment with Daphnia, a sensitive aquatic organism, to determine the potential toxicity of an herbicide. Eighty individuals were used, and the scientist finds 10 mg/L kills half the Daphnia. The scientist has now determined

a)

the TC-50.

b)

the ED-50.

c)

the potential lethality of this pesticide to humans.

d)

the LD-50.

e)

a dose-response curve that can be applied to humans.

11.

The main chemical causing the "dead zone" in the Gulf of Mexico is

a)

arsenic.

b)

mercury.

c)

oxygen.

d)

phosphorous.

e)

nitrogen.

12.

The main chemical responsible for acid deposition is

a)

carbon dioxide.

b)

sulfur dioxide.

c)

CFCs.

d)

mercury.

e)

smog.

13.

In terms of ecosystem services, a sustainably managed ecosystem would

a)

restore the original biodiversity of the ecosystem.

b)

be more expensive to initiate, but overall healthier in terms of biodiversity.

c)

provide more valuable services than converted ecosystems.

d)

provide enhanced and restored services over unaltered natural ecosystems.

e)

mitigate most air and water pollution problems.

14.

The most productive (g C/m²/yr) ecosystems in the world are

a)

temperate deciduous forests.

b)

swamps and marshes.

c)

the open ocean.

d)

temperate grasslands.

e)

northern coniferous forests.

15.

If a coral reef has an NPP of 5.25 kg C/m/yr and a GPP of 7.5 kg C/m²/year, how much carbon is being used during respiration by the autotrophs in this ecosystem?

a)

12.75 kg C/m/year

b)

2.25 kg C/m/year

c)

-2.25 kg C/m/year

d)

14.95 kg C/m²/year

e)

cannot be determined with the information given

16.

If a soil sample was determined to be composed of 40% sand, 20% silt, and 40% clay, the soil type would most closely resemble

a)

sandy clay loam.

b)

silt loam.

c)

silty clay loam.

d)

sandy clay.

e)

silty clay.

17.

The soil sample that would have the largest runoff after a rainfall event would be

a)

sandy clay loam.

b)

silt loam.

c)

silty clay loam.

d)

sandy clay.

e)

silty clay.

18.

The best soil type for most agriculture would be composed of

a)

80% sand, 40% silt, 10% clay.

b)

40% sand, 40% silt, 20% clay.

c)

20% sand, 60% silt, 20% clay.

d)

35% sand, 35% silt, 30% clay.

e)

33.3% sand, 33.3% silt, 33.3% clay

19.

This initial decline has been attributed primarily to

a)

foreign fishing fleets in Canadian waters.

b)

international fishing fleets using bottom-trawling nets.

c)

large by-catch harvesting.

d)

drift-net fishing by Japanese tuna fisherman.

e)

inadequate population estimates made by the Canadian government.

20.

The change in the cod harvested from the Grand Banks between 1960 and 1980 has been a

a)

200% decline.

b)

100% decline.

c)

40% decline.

d)

20% decline.

e)

10% decline.

21.

The current rate of cod harvesting is primarily explained by

a)

the ability of cod to rebound after the moratorium.

b)

the overharvesting of by-catch.

c)

the overharvesting of keystone species on the Grand Banks.

d)

the inability of all to agree on the requirements of the moratorium.

e)

the collapse of the cod population on the Grand Banks.

22.

The source that is converted directly into electricity by PV cells

a)

Biofuels

b)

Wind

c)

Shale deposits

d)

Hydropower

e)

Sunlight

23.

The source whose use is potentially in direct competition with the global food supply

a)

Biofuels

b)

Wind

c)

Shale deposits

d)

Hydropower

e)

Sunlight

24.

Hydraulic fracturing is the methodology used to harvest the energy reserves from this source

a)

Biofuels

b)

Wind

c)

Shale deposits

d)

Hydropower

e)

Sunlight

25.

In terms of efficiency, this energy source has the highest EROI

a)

Biofuels

b)

Wind

c)

Shale deposits

d)

Hydropower

e)

Sunlight

26.

The annual fluctuation of the CO₂ concentration is explained by

a)

annual absorption of CO₂ by the oceans.

b)

the ozone layer mitigating the annual increase in CO

c)

seasonal photosynthetic activity of autotrophs.

d)

annual El Niño events.

e)

annual respiration rates by global biota.

27.

The data in the graph can be evidence for global climate change when they are combined with

a)

fossil fuel consumption by the United States.

b)

the global ecological footprint.

c)

annual cycles of flooding and drought.

d)

annual CFC production.

e)

mean global temperatures.

28.

The change in CO, concentration between 1965 and 2013 is approximately

a)

80%.

b)

70%.

c)

35%.

d)

25%.

e)

10%.

29.

Which of the following is true of nitrogen as it cycles in nature?

a)

The largest sink of nitrogen is in the atmosphere.

b)

Nitrogen compounds rarely exist in the gaseous state.

c)

Nitrogen fixation occurs regularly in ecosystems, producing a nitrogen compound that can be used by primary consumers.

d)

Denitrifying bacteria live in mutualistic relationships with most consumers.

e)

Nitrogen compounds are considered the least problematic to the environment and the most essential to all animal life on Earth.

30.

Integrated pest management programs are primarily

a)

organic agricultural approaches.

b)

methods to completely eliminate agricultural pests.

c)

a monoculture approach to agriculture.

d)

a broad-spectrum pesticide approach to eliminating pests.

e)

a variety of biological and chemical approaches to reduce crop damage to an economically tolerable level.

31.

The energy returned on investment, or EROI value, is the lowest for

a)

nuclear power.

b)

biofuels.

c)

coal.

d)

hydropower.

e)

PV technology.

32.

Which of the following greenhouse gases has the highest heat trapping ability per molecule in our atmosphere?

a)

NO

b)

CO

c)

CO₂

d)

CO

e)

SO

33.

Assuming that the human population of Earth is growing at an annual rate of 1.2%, how many years will it take for the world population to double?

a)

2.4 years

b)

4.8 years

c)

58 years

d)

100 years

e)

140 years

34.

When comparing nuclear and coal-fired power plants, a nuclear power plant generates more

a)

NO₂.

b)

radon.

c)

CO₂.

d)

thermal pollution.

e)

fly ash.

35.

Characteristics that contribute to the vulnerability of a species becoming endangered include which of the following?


I. having low genetic diversity

II. having a generalist habitat

III. being a keystone species

IV. being r-selected

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

III and IV only

e)

I and IV only

36.

The international agreement that is widely considered the most important environmental victory for a sustainable planet is

a)

the Kyoto Protocol.

b)

the Montreal Protocol.

c)

the Clean Air Act of 1972.

d)

NAFTA.

e)

the Green Revolution

37.

The primary characteristics of sewage treatment plant effluent are

a)

moderate oxygen, low coliform, low BOD.

b)

high oxygen, high coliform, low BOD.

c)

low oxygen, low coliform, high BOD.

d)

high nitrates, high phosphates, low BOD.

e)

low nitrates, low phosphates, high BOD.

38.

When the I= PAT model is applied to the United States, the most important factor in determining the environmental effects of the U.S. population is

a)

the value of P.

b)

the value of A.

c)

the value of T.

d)

the value of P and T.

e)

the value of TFR.

39.

Most species have particular roles or characteristics that make them important and unique in their native ecosystem. Species that are the most affected by biomagnification issues is/are


I. amphibians

II. bald eagles

III. sea otters

IV. giant pandas

a)

I only.

b)

II only.

c)

III only.

d)

I, II, and III.

e)

III and IV only.

40.

Most species have particular roles or characteristics that make them important and unique in their native ecosystem. The best example(s) of an indicator species is/are

I. amphibians

II. bald eagles

III. sea otters

IV. giant pandas

a)

I only.

b)

II only.

c)

III only.

d)

I, II, and III.

e)

III and IV only.

41.

Most species have particular roles or characteristics that make them important and unique in their native ecosystem. The best representation of keystone species is/are

I. amphibians

II. bald eagles

III. sea otters

IV. giant pandas

a)

I only.

b)

II only.

c)

III only.

d)

I, II, and III.

e)

III and IV only.

42.

All of the following are examples of GMOs except

a)

golden rice.

b)

Bt corn.

c)

Roundup-Ready alfalfa.

d)

Monsanto meat.

e)

Bt canola oil.

43.

The reindeer's population growth between the years 1920 and 1940 best exemplifies

a)

logistic growth.

b)

demographic transition.

c)

doubling time.

d)

K-selection.

e)

logarithmic growth.

44.

When examining the entire period between 1910 and 1950, the data most likely show that

a)

the reindeer's environment provided unlimited resources.

b)

there were other species competing for food resources.

c)

introduced species arrived in 1930.

d)

the reindeer's carrying capacity was reached around 1938.

e)

limiting factors are not influencing reindeer from 1940-1950.

45.

A classroom uses eight 60-watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. Approximately how many kilowatt-hours of electricity are used per by the classroom's light bulbs?

a)

24

b)

48

c)

480

d)

600

e)

4,800

46.

In developing countries, the greatest use of energy for domestic use comes from

a)

hydropower.

b)

windpower.

c)

biofuels.

d)

biomass.

e)

coal.

47.

When a CAFO (concentrated animal feeding operation) is located in watershed, a likely effect on the local stream is

a)

increased oligotrophic conditions.

b)

increased thermal pollution.

c)

decreased coliform levels.

d)

decreased sedimentation.

e)

increased eutrophic conditions.

48.

The heavy metal produced when coal is burned is

a)

mercury.

b)

radon.

c)

lead.

d)

iron.

e)

cadmium.

49.

The pollutant now commonly detected in many domestic water wells surrounding hydraulic fracturing operations is

a)

lead.

b)

methane.

c)

natural gas.

d)

mercury.

e)

atrazine.

50.

The fossil fuel that is in the largest supply globally is

a)

oil.

b)

natural gas.

c)

coal.

d)

biomass.

e)

biofuels.

51.

Cultural eutrophication is caused primarily by

a)

nitrogen.

b)

phosphorous.

c)

calcium.

d)

carbon.

e)

sulfur.

52.

The growing concern surrounding ocean acidification focuses on the main causative agent of

a)

decreasing calcium in oceans.

b)

increasing pH in oceans.

c)

increasing CO₂ in oceans.

d)

global overfishing.

e)

decreasing carbonic acid in oceans.

53.

A major conclusion that can be made from the evidence comparing organic and conventional farming is

a)

conventional farming has a proven history.

b)

organic farming produces more greenhouse gases.

c)

conventional farming is more economic yet more environmentally problematic.

d)

organic farming methods should be more widely considered because of numerous, proven benefits.

e)

organic farming methods are more challenging to institute; however, energy inputs are greater.

54.

Environmentally, the most significant data provided by the graph, demonstrating the disadvantages of conventional farming, are in the category of

a)

yields.

b)

profit.

c)

energy input.

d)

greenhouse gases.

e)

internal costs.

55.

A primary reason for the differences in energy inputs between conventional and organic farming is that

a)

IPM approaches and animal manure are being regularly employed by organic farms.

b)

no-till farming practices are the main energy-saving practices used by conventional farms.

c)

pesticides, herbicides, and inorganic fertilizers are used widely in both conventional and organic farming approaches.

d)

organic farming routinely uses animals rather than tractors.

e)

conventional farming saves energy by employing monoculture approaches.

56.

The terms below refer to important environmental legislation. Requires cradle-to-grave tracking of hazardous wastes

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation Act (CERCLA)

d)

National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)

e)

Safe Drinking Water Act

57.

The terms below refer to important environmental legislation. Requires an environmental impact statement and study prior to federal projects that might affect environmental quality

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation Act (CERCLA)

d)

National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)

e)

Safe Drinking Water Act

58.

The terms below refer to important environmental legislation. Establishes basic coliform levels accepted for human health extraction process is

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation Act (CERCLA)

d)

National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)

e)

Safe Drinking Water Act

59.

An example of a secondary extraction process is

a)

mountaintop removal for coal.

b)

ocean drilling for oil.

c)

mining for uranium.

d)

combustion of biomass waste products.

e)

hydraulic fracturing of shale..

60.

A cap-and-trade system

a)

specifies a certain limit on industrial pollutants that can be negotiated with other nations.

b)

allows nations to negotiate whether or not they will contribute to pollution.

c)

permits industries that pollute under federal limits to sell credits industries that pollute over federal limits.

d)

has recently been repealed by Congress as useless in diminishing pollution.

e)

allows industries to set their own levels for pollution so that trading can continue.

61.

Environmentally, the main criticism of cost-benefit analyses for p projects is that they rarely include

a)

the internal costs.

b)

the external costs.

c)

the profits involved.

d)

all benefits involved.

e)

the GDP.

62.

A "tragedy of the commons" scenario is best exemplified by

a)

the U.S. agribusiness in the Midwest.

b)

the extirpation of cheetahs in Africa.

c)

the extinction of the Great Auk.

d)

overgrazing sheep in a private park.

e)

acid precipitation falling throughout the northeastern United States

63.

Structures given a LEED platinum ranking are

a)

constructed sustainably without electricity from fossil fuels.

b)

free of asbestos, lead, and radon and therefore made of "green" construction materials.

c)

especially high in heavy metal content.

d)

inefficient and need to be renovated in order to meet "green".standards.

e)

exemplary in sustainable design, especially energy efficiency

64.

A trophic cascade is best described as the effect of ___ on ____

a)

top predators; top carnivores

b)

top predators; abundance of lower consumers

c)

herbivores; carnivores

d)

autotrophs; herbivores

e)

top carnivores; one another

65.

Global climate change could be best thought of as a(n) population's size.

a)

logistical growth factor

b)

endemic limiting factor

c)

density-dependent factor

d)

density-independent factor

e)

exponential growth factor

66.

The largest reservoir of carbon in the carbon cycle is

a)

the oceans.

b)

freshwater systems.

c)

plant life.

d)

sedimentary rock and fossil fuels.

e)

located in the atmosphere.

67.

If the global population has a CDR of 11 and a CBR of 17, this would result in a growth rate of ___%.

a)

0.06

b)

0.6

c)

6.0

d)

28

e)

60

68.

Forests supply us with many vital ecosystem services. The one receiving the most attention currently because of global climate change is

a)

the photosynthetic contribution of oxygen from the world's forests.

b)

cap-and-trade potential for global forests.

c)

the influence of El Niño effects by global forest distribution.

d)

moderation of precipitation and climate patterns.

e)

carbon sequestration potential of the world's forests.

69.

Sustainable forest certification (SFC) involves

a)

making significant conservation concessions.

b)

a chain of custody following for all harvested materials.

c)

protecting all primary growth forests.

d)

a shelterwood approach to forest management.

e)

controlled burns on a regular basis.

70.

From an environmental waste perspective, which approach is the most effective and desirable for a sustainable future?

a)

Compost

b)

Reduce

c)

Reuse

d)

Recycle

e)

Incinerate

71.

Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical used in

a)

pesticides; a carcinogen and has the effect of

b)

herbicides; a neurotoxin

c)

plastics; an endocrine disruptor

d)

food additives; a teratogen

e)

synthetic fuels: a carcinogen

72.

Which of the following is not an environmental benefit of smart growth?

a)

decreased open space

b)

decreased impervious surfaces

c)

decreased fossil fuel consumption

d)

decreased water pollution

e)

increased use of urban growth boundaries

73.

Humans use freshwater primarily for

a)

electrical production.

b)

mining and industrial processes.

c)

agricultural irrigation.

d)

residential heating, cooking, and plumbing.

e)

global nuclear power energy production.

74.

Which of the following is not yet regulated by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency?

a)

CO

b)

O3

c)

CO2

d)

particulates

e)

Pb

75.

The greenhouse effect involves warming Earth's surface and the

a)

ionosphere.

b)

thermosphere.

c)

mesosphere.

d)

troposphere.

e)

stratosphere.

76.

"Peak oil" is an environmental topic referring to

a)

the amount of oil reserves remaining as compared to nuclear

b)

the amount of oil reserves that have already been consumed.

c)

the point at which world oil production will reach a maximum, coinciding with the point at which we will run out of oil,

d)

the point at which half the total known oil supply is used up.

e)

the point at which the "technically recoverable" coincides with "economically recoverable" oil reserve estimates.

77.

The Marcellus Shale deposits of Pennsylvania represent known energy reserves of

a)

oil.

b)

coal.

c)

tar sands.

d)

natural gas.

e)

biofuels.

78.

One's ecological footprint can best be defined as

a)

the environmental impact on global air and water.

b)

the effects of the current human population.

c)

the total amount of waste generated from the human population.

d)

the area of land and water required to support needs and to absorb the wastes produced.

e)

the approach of leaving only footprints when visiting national parks, forests, and wildlife refuges..

79.

Given that a specific radioactive isotope has a half-life of 30 days, how many days will it take for a 16 kg sample to decay to less than 1 kg?

a)

60 days

b)

120 days

c)

150 days

d)

15 days

e)

7.5 days

80.

Quagga and zebra mussels are best known as

a)

endangered species.

b)

keystone species.

c)

umbrella species.

d)

invasive species.

e)

indicator species.

81.

As of 2017, the world human population is approximately

a)

6.5 billion.

b)

7.4 billion.

c)

10.3 billion.

d)

300 million.

e)

20 billion.

82.

Transgenic organisms are primarily

a)

endemic species.

b)

species that live in border regions between two countries.

c)

extirpated species.

d)

genetic species that are protected.

e)

genetically engineered organisms.

83.

The world's leader in producing and using the most solar power currently

a)

the United States.

b)

France.

c)

Germany.

d)

the U.K.

e)

Japan

84.

The nation obtaining the highest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power is

a)

Sweden.

b)

France.

c)

Germany.

d)

Russia.

e)

Japan.

85.

Paleoclimatology data used to study global climate change can be obtained from

a)

lichens.

b)

redwood trees.

c)

amphibians.

d)

Antarctic ice cores.

e)

Greenland glaciers.

86.

Current sea-level rise has been estimated to be closest to

a)

0.5 mm/yr.

b)

1.0 mm/yr.

c)

3.0 mm/yr.

d)

10 mm/yr.

e)

20 mm/yt.

87.

Biodiversity "hotspots" are

a)

global areas currently experiencing the most global climate change.

b)

sites in the U.S. where hazardous wastes have been located.

c)

priority areas for habitat preservation because they contain many endemic species.

d)

tropical rainforest areas where there is the greatest species richness.

e)

areas containing the most endangered species.

88.

The above climatograph shows data characteristic of the

a)

desert

b)

savanna

c)

tundra

d)

temperate deciduous

e)

taiga

89.

The average annual temperature in this biome is

a)

above freezing.

b)

below freezing.

c)

at freezing.

d)

cannot be determined.

e)

approximately 5° C.

90.

One of the most distinctive characteristics of this biome is the presence of

a)

coniferous trees.

b)

saguaro cactus

c)

rocky/sandy terrain.

d)

permafrost.

e)

rattlesnakes.

91.

Campus sustainability efforts are diverse in the United States; however, by far the most frequently adapted have been those using

a)

renewable energy generation.

b)

LEED certification.

c)

discounted mass transit.

d)

water efficiency upgrades.

e)

recycling and composting.

92.

The best example of an external cost resulting from hydraulic fracturing energy projects is

a)

the land costs to the energy companies involved.

b)

infrastructure costs of the energy extraction processes.

c)

contamination of drinking water by methane.

d)

costs of nuclear energy investment for initially establishing the project.

e)

endangered species resulting from habitat destruction.

93.

When considering sustainable development, the triple bottom line refers to combining

a)

environmental, social standing, and economic goals.

b)

economic advancement, environmental protection, and social equity.

c)

protecting endangered species, habitat, and genetic diversity.

d)

air, water, and land protection.

e)

legislation, sustainability, and LEED structures.

94.

Deepwater Horizon and Exxon Valdez refer to

a)

U.S. energy exploration projects.

b)

the international habitat protection initiative.

c)

marine oil spills in U.S. waters.

d)

Alaskan oil drilling projects.

e)

Gulf of Mexico marine habitat protection projects.

95.

Country "X" has the above age distribution. These data indicate that country "X"

a)

is a developing country.

b)

has 80% of its population over age 50.

c)

is experiencing rapid growth.

d)

is experiencing slow or no population growth.

e)

is experiencing a high crude birth rate.

96.

Country "X" is most likely

a)

China

b)

Mexico

c)

Nigeria

d)

Kenya

e)

Canada

97.

From these data, this country's growth rate is most likely

a)

0.4%.

b)

1.0%.

c)

3.0%.

d)

6.0%.

e)

10%.

98.

If a country's population is 315 million in January and is growing at a rate of 1%, its population will be at the end of December.

a)

3,150,000

b)

31,500,000

c)

3.18x108

d)

3.15 x 108

e)

3.15 x 1010

99.

"Enriched" uranium refers to

a)

the nuclear fuel that has a higher proportion of U-235 nuclei than normal.

b)

the uranium ore that is mined in the U.S. Southwest.

c)

pure uranium, with no other elements present.

d)

the nuclear fuel that has had plutonium added to it.

e)

pure U-238.

100.

As a result of the ESA legislation, the following endangered species has been stabilized and protected:

a)

California condor

b)

Greater prairie chicken

c)

African elephant

d)

Black rhino

e)

Costa Rican golden toad