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Bi 234 Exam 2 Review Fall 2022

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Microbes that use light as an energy source and obtain carbon from organic compounds are called

(a)  

2.

All of the following are toxic forms of oxygen except:

a)

Peroxide Anion

b)

Hydroxyl Radical

c)

Superoxide Radicals

d)

Diatomic Oxygen

e)

Singlet Oxygen

3.

Due to their oxygen requirements, facultative anaerobes are found more abundantly at the top of this growth medium than at the bottom:

(a)  

4.

Most human pathogens are categorized as

a)

Hyperthermophiles

b)

Thermophiles

c)

Mesophiles

d)

Psychrophiles

e)

Alkalinophiles

5.

Microbes that live best in soil and water with a basic pH are called

(a)  

6.

For serial dilutions and viable plate counts, which range is considered countable?

a)

20-200

b)

30-300

c)

15-55

d)

10-150

e)

40-400

7.

Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotic cells have a single copy of each chromosome making them

(a)  

8.

Which of the following are examples of extranuclear DNA in eukaryotes?

a)

Mitochondrial DNA

b)

Chloroplast DNA

c)

Plasmids

d)

Nucleoid

9.

Prokaryotic DNA methylation plays a role in all of the following except:

a)

Initiation of DNA replication

b)

Control of genetic expression

c)

DNA repair

d)

Conjugation

e)

Protection from viral infection

10.

The lactose operon is always off unless glucose is unavailable and lactose becomes available to the cell. This is an example of a(n) (a)   operon.

11.

In gene regulation, where is the regulatory gene typically located on the template DNA strand?

a)

Upstream of the operon

b)

Downstream of the operon

c)

Embedded within the operon between the promoter and operator sites

d)

Embedded within the operon between the operator and structural genes

12.

In the lac operon, when the repressor protein is not bound to allolactose it is

a)

Actively bound to the operator site and blocking RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter site.

b)

Actively bound to the promoter site and competitively inhibiting RNA polymerase from binding.

c)

Not bound to the DNA template strand, allowing RNA polymerase to bind to the operator site and initiate transcription.

d)

Not bound to the DNA template strand, allowing RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter site and initiate transcription.

e)

A substrate for the Catabolic Activator Protein.

13.

In prokaryotic gene regulation, RNA polymerase binds to this site of the DNA template strand to initiate transcription:

(a)  

14.

Which of the following are true of the Trp operon?

a)

The repressor protein is activated when tryptophan binds to it.

b)

It is an inducible operon.

c)

It is always "on" unless tryptophan becomes available in the environment.

d)

When cAMP binds to the catabolic activator protein, it positively enhances the trp operon.

e)

It is involved in an anabolic pathway.

15.

Which of the following genetic mutations has the potential to cause the most change to the genetic sequence?

a)

Silent mutation at the beginning of the sequence.

b)

Missense mutation in the middle of the sequence.

c)

Nonsense mutation at the end of the sequence.

d)

Frameshift insertion at the beginning of the sequence.

e)

Frameshift deletion in the middle of the sequence.

16.

These chemical mutagens mimic DNA or RNA monomers, fooling cellular enzymes and disrupting nucleic acid replication:

(a)  

17.

All of the following are prokaryotic DNA repair mechanisms except:

a)

Dark repair

b)

Mismatch repair

c)

Transduction repair

d)

Base excision repair

e)

Light repair

18.

List the three types of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria:

(a)  

19.

Select ALL of the components of the body's first line of defense:

a)

Epidermis

b)

Basophils

c)

Sebum

d)

Perspiration

e)

Phagocytosis

20.

The lacrimal apparatus produces the enzyme (a)   which targets and destroys the peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.

21.

Vomiting is considered part of the body's _____ line of defense and _______ immunity.

a)

1st; innate

b)

2nd; innate

c)

3rd; innate

d)

3rd; adaptive

22.

Which of the following are categorized as granulocytes?

a)

Basophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Monocytes

23.

Put the six stages for phagocytosis in order:

A. Ingestion

B. Adherence

C. Maturation

D. Killing

E. Chemotaxis

F. Elimination

(a)  

24.

These cytosolic proteins bind to PAMPS, triggering inflammation and apoptosis:

(a)  

25.

Which of the following are proteins released by a host cell to nonspecifically inhibit the spread of viral infections?

a)

TLRs

b)

Serum proteins of the complement cascade

c)

Interferons

d)

NOD proteins

e)

Histamines

26.

Which of the following are considered pyrogens? (Check ALL that apply.)

a)

Bacterial toxins

b)

Cytoplasmic contents of lysed bacteria

c)

Opsonins

d)

Lysozyme

e)

Antibody-antigen complexes

27.

Which of the following is true of antigens? (Select ALL that apply.)

a)

Large foreign macromolecules make the best antigens.

b)

Antigens are recognized by their epitopes.

c)

They are typically secreted by activated B cells known as plasma cells.

d)

They hold and positive epitopes for T cells.

e)

They are molecules that body recognizes as foreign and worth of attack.

28.

These glycoproteins unique to APCs hold and position epitopes for presentation to T cells:

(a)  

29.

All B cells require the release of cytokines by helper T cells to initiation activation of an antibody immune response.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Put the steps involved in cytotoxic T cell activation in order:

A. Helper T cell differentiation

B. Clonal expansion

C. Antigen-presentation

D. Self-stimulation

(a)  

31.

If a virus has invaded your respiratory epithelium, which glycoprotein will your cells use to display the viral epitopes to help trigger an immune response?

(a)  

32.

Clonal deletion of T cells involves all of the following except:

a)

Preventing cytotoxic T cells from targeting autoantigens.

b)

Helping the body eliminate self-reactive T cells.

c)

Making some T cells that recognize the MHC-autoantigen complex into regulatory T cells.

d)

Allowing some T cells with faulty TCRs to generate a different TCR in order to avoid apoptosis.

33.

CD4 glycoproteins are found on which one of the following cells?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Cytotoxic T cells

d)

Plasma cells

e)

All nucleated cells

34.

The process of reducing virulence is known as:

(a)  

35.

The administration of antigens so patient actively mounts an adaptive immune response is known as

(a)  

36.

This type of vaccine contains antigenic fragments of microbes:

(a)  

37.

Which of the following is true of inactivated vaccines? (Select ALL that apply.)

a)

They use pathogens with reduced virulence.

b)

They often require multiple doses to achieve full immunity.

c)

They contain chemically or thermally modified toxins used to stimulate active immunity.

d)

They can provide contact immunity beyond the vaccinated individual.

e)

They often contain adjuvants to increase their efficacy.

38.

Monoclonal antibodies provide lifelong immunity against the pathogen for which they were created.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

When creating monoclonal antibodies, a (a)   is formed by mixing and fusing plasma cells and myeloma cells.