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A&P 1 - FINAL REVIEW

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If you were studying how the muscles shorten, you would be studying….

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

Anatomy and Physiology

2.

Two of these systems bear the major responsibility for ensuring homeostasis of the internal environment. Which two?

a)

Nervous System

b)

Digestive system

c)

Cardiovascular system

d)

Endocrine system

3.

Which of the following events is NOT the result of a negative feedback mechanism?

a)

sweating to help lower elevated body temperature

b)

blood clotting when the lining of a blood vessel is injured

c)

an increased respiratory rate when blood pH is elevated

d)

decreased urine production when the blood pressure drops

4.

Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection?

a)

Thoracic cavity

b)

Abdominal cavity

c)

Pelvic cavity

d)

Cranial cavity

5.

Which one of the following covers an organ?

a)

parietal pericardium

b)

parietal peritoneum

c)

parietal pleurae

d)

visceral pericardium

6.

Right after you eat a protein bar, which chemical reaction must occur in order to release the amino acids from the protein bar?

a)

Dehydration synthesis

b)

Hydrolysis

7.

If Sally has hypotonic blood cells, what solution would you want to give her to create an isotonic environment in the cell?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

8.

Which of the following types of epithelial tissue line the interior of blood vessels?

a)

Stratified Squamous

b)

Endothelium

c)

Mesothelium

d)

Transitional

9.

Which of the following is NOT a function of areolar connective tissue?

a)

Movement of body parts

b)

storing nutrients as fat

c)

defending the body against infection

d)

support and binding of other tissues

10.

What is the incorrect match?

a)

Sweat glands - Sudoriferous

b)

Axillary and genital areas of the body - Merocrine glands

c)

Acne - Sebaceous

11.

An injection is administered through the skin using a hypodermic needle. Identify the LAST integumentary structure through which the needle will pass.

a)

Hypodermis

b)

Reticular layer

c)

Papillary layer

d)

Epidermis

12.

What are the layers of the epidermis in the correct order (from deep to superficial)?

a)

Corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale.

b)

Basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum

c)

Corneum, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, basale.

d)

Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum, lucidum

13.

Hyperhidrosis is characterized by excessive sweating, especially at the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Which of the following could cause this disorder?

a)

An Increased sweat at the base of hair follicles

b)

Apocrine gland activation with puberty

c)

Higher density of holocrine glands

d)

Increased stimulation of merocrine glands

14.

Which are incorrectly matched?

a)

Humerus/ Long bone

b)

Vertebrae/ flat bone

c)

Phalanges/ short bone

d)

Ilium/ Irregular bone

15.

Kenzie fell down while playing soccer and the x-ray shows a fracture in the shaft of her tibia. Which part of the bone has been fractured?

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Cartilage

d)

Metaphysis

16.

T/F: Osteoclast are more active than osteoblasts in bone remodeling

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

What are the CNS parts?

a)

Spinal Nerves and Cranial Nerves

b)

Skull and Vertebral Column

c)

Spinal cord and brain

d)

Brain and Spinal nerves

18.

Which of the following defines integration?

a)

activating effector organs

b)

processing and interpretation of sensory input and determining what should be done at each moment in the body

c)

Increasing the level of one substance in response to a decrease in the level of another

d)

Monitoring changes both inside and outside the body

19.

All neurons are amitotic.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

What is the sequence of events in the generation of an action potential:

a)

Hyperpolarization < Depolarization < Repolarization < Threshold < RMP

b)

RMP < Threshold < Depolarization < Repolarization < Hyperpolarization

c)

Threshold < Repolarization < Hyperpolarization < Depolarization < RMP

d)

RMP < Depolarization < Repolarization < Hyperpolarization< RMP < Threshold

21.

Which of the following statements best describes the membrane situation in the resting state in the neuron?

a)

Only the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open.

b)

Only the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.

c)

All the voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed.

d)

Only the voltage-gated K+ channels are open.

e)

Only the voltage-gated K+ channels are closed.

22.

Excitable cells, like neurons, are more permeable to ___________ than to ___________.

a)

Na/ K

b)

Cl/Na

c)

K/Na

d)

K/Cl

23.

Which of the following events is NOT involved in the transfer of information across a chemical synapse?

a)

Ion channels open in the postsynaptic membrane.

b)

Calcium channels open in the presynaptic region.

c)

A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis.

d)

Ions flow directly from one neuron to the next.

e)

Neurotransmitters bind to the postsynaptic receptors.

24.

What is the basic functional role of the cerebellum?

a)

autonomic functions

b)

motor activity

c)

sensory activity

25.

What region of the diencephalon coordinates the sleeping/waking cycle?

a)

thalamus

b)

Epithalamus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Subthalamus

26.

Which part (s) of the brain is/are involved in temperature regulation?

a)

Pons

b)

Midbrain

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Cerebellum

e)

Hypothalamus

27.

T/F: Fascicle surrounds a muscle cell

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

What is the correct order (from the smallest structure to the largest)?

a)

Myofibril < Myofilament < Muscle Fiber < Fascicle < Entire Muscle

b)

Myofilament < Myofibril < Muscle Fiber < Fascicle < Entire muscle

c)

Myofilament < Myofibril < Fascicle < Muscle Fiber < Entire muscle

d)

Myofibril < Muscle Fiber < Myofilament < Fascicle < Entire Muscle

29.

T/F: During contraction, thin filaments (actin) becomes shorten

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

30.

Which of the following do NOT occur during skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

Myosin heads bind to actin

b)

Calcium binds to the myosin head

c)

The I band shorten and the H zone disappears

d)

ATP is hydrolyzed in ADP + Pi

e)

Calcium concentration in the sarcoplasm decreases

31.

Which one of the following binds calcium ions in a smooth muscle, causing contraction?

a)

Troponin

b)

Myosin

c)

Actin

d)

Calmodulin

e)

Tropomyosin

32.

Which of the following is true of mechanoreceptors?

a)

Belongs to the motor (efferent) division of the PNS

b)

Responds to changes in temperature

c)

Responds to pain

d)

Responds to touch

33.

Which of the following receptors is considered a free dendritic ending?

a)

Tactile (Meissner's) corpuscles

b)

Golgi tendon organs

c)

Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles

d)

Tactile (Merkel) discs

e)

Ruffini's corpuscles

34.

The role of first-order sensory neurons is to:

a)

Conduct impulses from the receptor level to spinal reflexes

b)

Conduct impulses from spinal reflexes to the brain

c)

Transmit impulses to third-order neurons

d)

Conduct impulses from the thalamus to the somatosensory cortex

35.

Through which somatosensory pathway does our brain perceive the stimulus from when someone is gently massaging a baby?

a)

Spinocerebellar

b)

Spinothalamic

c)

Dorsal column

d)

Multineural

36.

Which of the following activity (ies) is/are associated with the sympathetic system?

a)

Emergency

b)

Digestion

c)

Sleeping

d)

Embarrassment

e)

Exercise

37.

Thoracolumbar origin, ganglia is located in trunk or collateral, extensive degree of branching of preganglionic fibers are characteristics of which division of ANS

a)

Sympathetic NS

b)

Parasympathetic NS

38.

T/F: Vasomotor tone is the constant state of partial constriction of blood vessels controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system innervates all structures of the body

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

The cranial part of the parasympathetic division serves the following organs, except:

a)

Stomach

b)

Esophagus

c)

Distal half of large intestine

d)

Gallbladder

41.

The sympathetic trunk is composed of:

a)

23 ganglia (7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal)

b)

23 ganglia (3 cervical, 11 thoracic, 4 lumbar, 4 sacral)

c)

23 ganglia (3 cervical, 11 thoracic, 4 lumbar, 4 sacral, 1 coccygeal)

d)

23 ganglia (7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral)

42.

The pathway that passes through the celiac ganglion is:

a)

Pathway to the head

b)

Pathway to the thorax

c)

Pathway to the pelvic viscera

d)

Pathway to the Adrenal medulla

43.

Sympathetic fibers that will innervate the blood vessels synapse in which part of sympathetic trunk:

a)

At the same level

b)

It does not in the sympathetic trunk but in the adrenal medulla

c)

At a higher or lower level

d)

It does not in the sympathetic trunk but in a collateral ganglia

44.

Mr. Sun went from his bright solar room to his super dark basement. What may have happened with his pupils?

a)

His pupil dilated, under sympathetic stimulation.

b)

His pupil constricted, under parasympathetic stimulation.

c)

His pupil dilated, under parasympathetic stimulation.

d)

His pupil constricted, under sympathetic stimulation.

45.

Norepinephrine is released by

a)

Adrenergic fibers of parasympathetic postganglionic axons

b)

Cholinergic fibers of ANS preganglionic axons

c)

Adrenergic fibers of sympathetic postganglionic axons

d)

Cholinergic fibers of sympathetic postganglionic axons

46.

A neuromodulator drug will

a)

Block neurotransmitters

b)

Increase or decrease the effectiveness of a neurotransmitter

c)

Mimic the action of a neurotransmitter, increasing its response

47.

Neurotransmitters released by parasympathetic postganglionic fibers going to the heart would cause __________.

a)

An increase in rate and force of contraction

b)

An increase in rate and decrease in force

c)

A decrease in rate and force

d)

A decrease in rate and increase in force

48.

Which of the following is not a part of the vascular layer of the eye?

a)

Choroid

b)

Sclera

c)

Ciliary body

d)

Iris

49.

Which part of the eye causes the pupil to constrict or dilate?

a)

Iris

b)

Retina

c)

Ciliary Body

d)

Cornea

50.

Which part of the eye functions as a vision receptor for high-resolution color vision?

a)

Cornea

b)

Rods

c)

Iris

d)

Cones

51.

Which of the following is the part of the eye that is considered to have the highest level of visual acuity?

a)

Macula lutea

b)

Fovea centralis

c)

Pupil

d)

Cornea

52.

Which humor of the eye is continuously formed throughout life and is located in the anterior segment of the eye?

a)

Aqueous

b)

Vitreous

53.

As you are walking down a trail, you notice a deer in the distance. How does the lens of the eye respond to allow you to see the deer?

a)

Flattens

b)

Bulges

54.

What state of matter must a substance be in for you to smell it?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

55.

The influx of what ion leads to olfactory adaptation, which is when a person cannot smell a certain odor after being exposed to it for an extended period of time?

a)

Na

b)

K

c)

Ca

d)

Cl

56.

The taste buds that are located on the side of the tongue are referred to as:

a)

Fungiform papillae

b)

Foliate papillae

c)

Vallate papillae

57.

The taste sensation of cheese or beef is referred to as:

a)

Salty

b)

Bitter

c)

Sweet

d)

Umami

58.

Sour taste is due to the influx of which ion?

a)

Na

b)

H

c)

Ca

d)

K

59.

Semicircular canal receptors of the vestibular apparatus monitor which type of equilibrium?

a)

Dynamic

b)

Static

60.

Sound waves within the hearing range must reach what structure to produce sound?

a)

Tympanic membrane

b)

Auditory ossicles

c)

Oval window

d)

Cochlear duct

61.

BONUS QUESTION

A result of homeostatic imbalance could be __________.

a)

Rate increasing as a result of exercise

b)

Shivering as a result of being cold

c)

Sweating as a result of being hot

d)

Breathing rate increasing as a result of exercise

e)

Illness

62.

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