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Worksheets

Microeconomics

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When the price of a complementary good increases, the demand for the good in question

a)

increases

b)

decreases

2.

The LRAS curve corresponds to

a)

PPC

b)

Laffer Curve

c)

LRPC

d)

AD

e)

rGDP

3.

A PPC that is bowed out entails

a)

resources used for goods involved are very different

b)

resources used for goods involved are interchangeable

c)

resources used for goods involved are very similar

d)

resources used for goods involved are very interdependent

4.

A PPC that is a straight line entails

a)

the same resources are used to produce the goods

b)

different resources are used to produce the goods

c)

similar resources are used to produce the goods

5.

A PPC that is bowed out entails

a)

increasing opportunity costs

b)

constant opportunity costs

c)

decreasing opportunity costs

6.

A PPC that is bowed in entails

a)

increasing opportunity costs

b)

constant opportunity costs

c)

decreasing opportunity costs

7.

A PPC that is a straight line entails

a)

increasing opportunity costs

b)

constant opportunity costs

c)

decreasing opportunity costs

8.

Luxuries have an elasticity

a)

> 1

b)

< 1

c)

0

d)

1

e)

= 1

9.

Necessities have an elasticity

a)

> 1

b)

< 1

c)

0

d)

1

e)

= 1

10.

Inferior goods have an elasticity

a)

> 1

b)

< 1

c)

0

d)

1

e)

< 0

11.

Normal goods have an elasticity

a)

0

b)

< 0

c)

> 0

d)

= 1

12.

Goods that are unit elastic have an elasticity

a)

= 0

b)

= 1

c)

> 1

d)

> 0

e)

< 0

13.

A perfectly competitive firm's demand curve is

a)

horizontal

b)

vertical

c)

downward sloping

d)

upward sloping

14.

The demand curve for an individual firm

a)

> equilibrium market price

b)

= equilibrium market price

c)

< equilibrium market price

15.

Firms with losses will continue to produce in the short run if revenues

a)

> VC

b)

< VC

c)

= VC

16.

Private goods are

a)

rivalrous and excludable

b)

rivalrous and non-excludable

c)

non-rivalrous and non-excludable

d)

non-rivalrous and excludable

17.

Common goods are

a)

rivalrous and excludable

b)

rivalrous and non-excludable

c)

non-rivalrous and non-excludable

d)

non-rivalrous and excludable

18.

Club goods are

a)

rivalrous and excludable

b)

rivalrous and non-excludable

c)

non-rivalrous and non-excludable

d)

non-rivalrous and excludable

19.

Public goods are

a)

rivalrous and excludable

b)

rivalrous and non-excludable

c)

non-rivalrous and non-excludable

d)

non-rivalrous and excludable

20.

Occam's razor states the optimum amount of assumptions to perform analysis is

a)

the minimum

b)

the equilibrium

c)

indeterminate

d)

the maximum

21.

The payment firms make to households in exchange for their labor

a)

wages

b)

rent

c)

interest

d)

profit

22.

The payment firms make to households in exchange for land

a)

wages

b)

rent

c)

interest

d)

profit

23.

The payment firms make to households in exchange for capital

a)

wages

b)

rent

c)

interest

d)

profit

24.

The payment to entrepreneurs who start or own a business

a)

wages

b)

rent

c)

interest

d)

profit

25.

When a tax is introduced in a market with an inelastic supply, hurts

a)

producers

b)

consumers

26.

In a market where both the demand and supply are very elastic, the imposition of an excise tax generates

a)

low revenue

b)

high revenue

27.

An excise tax on a good for which supply is more elastic than demand hurts

a)

consumers

b)

producers

28.

If the cross price elasticity is positive, the goods are

a)

substitutes

b)

normal

c)

inferior

d)

complements

29.

If the cross price elasticity is negative, the goods are

a)

substitutes

b)

normal

c)

inferior

d)

complements

30.

A positive XED coefficient means goods are

a)

substitutes

b)

normal

c)

inferior

d)

complements

31.

a positive YED coefficient means the good is

a)

substitutes

b)

normal

c)

inferior

d)

complements

32.

In the short-term, a firm's total costs =

a)

fixed costs + variable costs

b)

fixed costs - variable costs

c)

variable costs - fixed costs

d)

fixed costs x variable costs

33.

The economies of scale curve is a

a)

short-run average cost

b)

long-run average cost

c)

long-run total cost

d)

short-run total cost

34.

Economies of scale refer to a situation where, as the level of output increases,

a)

the average cost decreases

b)

variable costs decreases

c)

the total cost decreases

d)

fixed costs decrease

35.

Profit =

a)

total revenue − total cost

b)

total revenue − average cost

c)

total revenue − variable costs

d)

Price x Quantity

36.

Total Revenue =

a)

Price x Quantity

b)

Price ÷ Quantity

c)

Profit − Total Cost

d)

Profit − Fixed Costs

37.

Wages that a firm pays its employees or rent that a firm pays for its office are

a)

explicit costs

b)

implicit costs

38.

In a perfectly competitive market, price is equal to

a)

the marginal cost of production

b)

the total cost of production

c)

the average cost of production

d)

the sum of variable and fixed costs of production

39.

Allocative efficiency is when

a)

P = MC

b)

P > MC

c)

P < MC

d)

P = ATC

40.

The socially-preferred point on the PPC is known as

a)

allocative efficiency

b)

productive efficiency

41.

When goods are being produced and sold at the lowest possible average cost there is

a)

allocative efficiency

b)

productive efficiency

42.

When the price of a substitute good increases, the demand for the good in question

a)

increases

b)

decreases

43.

On a graph, Fixed Costs are

a)

horizontal

b)

vertical

c)

upward sloping

d)

downward sloping

44.

Labor, electricity, and raw materials are all examples of

a)

Variable Costs

b)

Fixed Costs

c)

Marginal Costs

45.

Average Fixed Costs continually

a)

increase

b)

decrease

46.

Average Variable Cost curve continually

a)

decreases until it intersects Average Variable Costs

b)

decreases until it intersects Marginal Costs

c)

increases until it intersects Fixed Costs

d)

increases until it intersects Average Total Costs

47.

Diminishing marginal returns causes marginal costs to

a)

increase at higher quantities

b)

decrease at higher quantities

c)

increase at lower quantities

d)

decrease at lower quantities

48.

As long as the cost of producing one more unit of output is higher than the current average, the average will

a)

increase

b)

decrease

49.

When the long-run average total cost curve is downward sloping, higher quantities have a

a)

higher average cost

b)

lower average cost

50.

When a firm can increase resources used by a small amount while increasing output much more

a)

increasing returns to scale

b)

decreasing returns to scale

c)

constant returns to scale

d)

diseconomy of scale

51.

When firms can increase output at the same rate as they increase resources

a)

increasing returns to scale

b)

decreasing returns to scale

c)

constant returns to scale

d)

diseconomy of scale

52.

When firms can increase output at a smaller rate as they increase resources

a)

increasing returns to scale

b)

decreasing returns to scale

c)

constant returns to scale

d)

diseconomy of scale

53.

Lump sum taxes or subsidies, rent payments, and insurance payments are examples of

a)

Variable Costs

b)

Fixed Costs

c)

Marginal Costs

54.

Changing a Fixed Cost will cause a shift in

a)

ATC

b)

AVC

c)

ATC and AVC

d)

ATC, AVC, and MC

e)

MC

55.

Changing a Variable Cost will cause a shift in

a)

ATC

b)

AVC

c)

ATC and AVC

d)

ATC, AVC, and MC

e)

MC

56.

Productive Efficiency is producing the quantity where

a)

ATC is at a minimum

b)

AVC is at a minimum

c)

MC is at a minimum

d)

AFC is at a minimum

57.

Profit-maximizing firms will continue to produce as long as

a)

MR = MC

b)

MR > MC

c)

MR < MC

d)

MR ≤ MC

e)

MR ≥ MC

58.

Accounting Profit is always

a)

higher than Economic Profit

b)

lower than Economic Profit

c)

equal to Economic Profit

59.

Monopolies price

a)

above MC

b)

below MC

c)

at MC

60.

Monopolies are

a)

allocatively efficient, but not productively efficient

b)

productively efficient, but not allocatively efficient

c)

allocatively and productively efficient

d)

neither allocatively nor productively efficient

61.

A perfectly competitive firm's total revenue rises at

a)

an increasing rate

b)

a decreasing rate

c)

a constant rate

62.

Precious metals are an example of

a)

increasing cost industries

b)

decreasing cost industries

c)

constant cost industries

63.

Microchips are an example of

a)

increasing cost industries

b)

decreasing cost industries

c)

constant cost industries

64.

A country with a completely equal distribution of income (socialism) would have a coefficient

a)

= 0

b)

> 0

c)

< 0

d)

= 1

65.

A country with a completely unequal distribution of income (one person earns all of the income and everyone else owns nothing) will have a gini coefficient

a)

= 0

b)

> 0

c)

< 0

d)

= 1

66.

Why are Demand Curves downward sloping?

a)

income effect

b)

substitution effect

c)

diminishing marginal utility

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

67.

A change in consumers' incomes causes

a)

a shift in demand

b)

a change in quantity demanded

c)

a shift in supply

d)

a change in quantity supplied

68.

Taxes and subsidies cause a

a)

a shift in demand

b)

a change in quantity demanded

c)

a shift in supply

d)

a change in quantity supplied

69.

A change in prices causes

a)

a shift in demand

b)

a change in quantity demanded

c)

a shift in supply

d)

a change in quantity supplied

70.

A subsidy causes a

a)

an increase in supply

b)

an increase in demand

c)

an increase in quantity supplied

d)

an increase in quantity demanded

e)

a decrease in supply

71.

A tax causes

a)

a decrease in supply

b)

a decrease in quantity supplied

c)

a decrease in demand

d)

a decrease in quantity demanded

e)

an increase in supply

72.

If a product has no externalities, a tax will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

73.

If a product has positive externalities, a per-unit tax will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

74.

If a product has negative externalities, a per-unit tax will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

75.

If a product has no externalities, a subsidy will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

76.

If a product has no externalities, a subsidy will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

77.

If the product produces a positive externality, a per-unit subsidy will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

78.

If the product produces a negative externality, a per-unit subsidy will

a)

create deadweight loss

b)

reduce deadweight loss

c)

increase deadweight loss

79.

The factor market is driven by

a)

demand in the goods and services market

b)

supply in the good and services market

80.

In the factor market...

a)

households are sellers and businesses are buyers

b)

businesses are sellers and households are buyers

81.

In the goods and services market...

a)

households are sellers and businesses are buyers

b)

businesses are sellers and households are buyers

82.

Income inequality is shown on

a)

PPC

b)

Laffer Curve

c)

LRPC

d)

AD-AS Model

e)

Lorenz Curve

83.

A per-unit subsidy

a)

decreases ATC

b)

decreases MC

c)

decreases ATC and MC

84.

A per-unit tax

a)

increases MC and ATC

b)

increases ATC

c)

increases MC