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AP Biology Diagnostic Practice Exam

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

UNIT 1: Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

2.

UNIT 1: What is the molecule illustrated in the figure below?

a)

a trans polyunsaturated triacylglyceride

b)

a steroid similar to cholesterol

c)

a saturated fatty acid

d)

an unsaturated fatty acid

3.

UNIT 1: This is a picture of a?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Polysaccharide

4.

UNIT 1: What element is found in proteins and nucleic acids but not carbs nor lipids?

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

5.

UNIT 1: Which of the 4 major macromolecules provides a quick burst of energy?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

6.

UNIT 1: The structure of proteins can be changed by environmental factors such as temperature or pH.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

UNIT 2: Which statement is correct about diffusion?

a)

It's very rapid over long distances.

b)

It's a passive process which molecules move from a region of higher to lower concentration.

c)

It requires an energy expenditure by the cell.

d)

It's an active process where molecules move from a region of lower to higher concentration.

8.

UNIT 2: Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?

a)

central vacuole

b)

chloroplast

c)

wall made of cellulose

d)

mitochondrion

9.

UNIT 2: A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water-equal to the volume of blood lost-is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?

a)

The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid has become hypertonic compared to the cells.

b)

The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells.

c)

It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria.

d)

The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells.

10.

UNIT 2: Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?

a)

phosphorylated tyrosine kinase dimer

b)

ligand-gated ion channel

c)

receptor tyrosine kinase

d)

G protein-coupled receptor

11.

UNIT 2: All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

a)

a plasma membrane

b)

DNA

c)

an endoplasmic reticulum

d)

ribosomes

12.

UNIT 2: White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?

a)

pinocytosis

b)

osmosis

c)

phagocytosis

d)

exocytosis

13.

UNIT 3: Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

C-terminus

d)

N-terminus

14.

UNIT 3: Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Fermentation

15.

UNIT 3: Where does the electron transport chain take place?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

prokaryotic plasma membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

all of the choices

16.

UNIT 3: What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP & NADH

b)

CO2 & H2O

c)

NADPH & ATP

d)

Organic Compounds & O2

17.

UNIT 3: Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.

a)

noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site

b)

competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site

c)

competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding

d)

noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding

18.

UNIT 3: Enzymes ___________________ activation energy to speed up chemical reactions.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

19.

UNIT 3: How does the active site of an enzyme determine the substrate for that enzyme?

a)

The active site has the right polarity to interact with the substrate.

b)

The active site is hydrophobic and interacts with other hydrophobic amino acids on the substrate

c)

The active site has a specific shape that fits the shape of the substrate

d)

The active site uses energy to form covalent bonds with the substrate

20.

UNIT 3: What are the products of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

Pyruvate, water, ATP, NADH

b)

Acetyl CoA, NADH

c)

NADH, FADH2, carbon dioxide, ATP

d)

ATP, glucose

21.

UNIT 3: What powers the ATP synthase enzymes in mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a)

The energy absorbed during the light reactions.

b)

The electronegativity of oxygen

c)

Energy released by breaking the chemical bonds in glucose

d)

The diffusion of hydrogen

22.

UNIT 4: This diagram shows transduction of a signal. How is the signal being transduced to its target location in the cell?

a)

A hormone is binding to an intracellular protein receptor

b)

Transport vesicles are passing neurotransmitters to neighboring cells

c)

Enzymes are passing phosphate groups down a series of proteins

d)

cAMP is formed activating a desired response

23.

UNIT 4: What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

24.

UNIT 4: Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?

a)

cell growth

b)

gene expression

c)

secretion of molecules

d)

all of the above are responses

25.

UNIT 4: Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

26.

UNIT 4: Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

27.

UNIT 4: Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

28.

UNIT 5: Which of the following does NOT increase variation in gamete formation?

a)

crossing over

b)

fertilization of gametes

c)

random assortment of chromosomes

d)

condensation of chromatin

29.

UNIT 5: Which of the following does NOT support the concept of common ancestry for all organisms?

a)

DNA/RNA (genetic code) are shared by all living systems

b)

Ribosomes are found in all forms of life

c)

Glycolysis takes place in all organisms

d)

All organisms undergo sexual reproduction

30.

UNIT 5: Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

31.

UNIT 5: Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree.

a)

Sex-Linked

b)

Mitochondrial

c)

Autosomal

d)

Random

32.

UNIT 5: Which of the following is a predicted ratio of a dihybrid cross?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:3:4

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1:1:1

33.

UNIT 5: When does the process of crossing over take place?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

telophase I

34.

UNIT 6:Which of the following describes chromatin?

a)

DNA nucleosomes wrapped around histone proteins

b)

Condensed DNA prepared for cell division

c)

Complimentary RNA coding of primary DNA

d)

Unpackaged DNA that is loose and always accessible

35.

UNIT 6:Which of the following describe the structure of mature RNA?

a)

Contains Uracil

b)

Contains introns and exons

c)

Has a poly-A tail and 5' cap

d)

Single stranded

e)

Circular strand

36.

UNIT 6:Which of the following would be transcribed from the following DNA sequence? 3' ATC GAA TTA CGA 5'

a)

5' UAG CUU AAU GCU 3'

b)

5' AUC GAA UUA CGA 3'

c)

3' UCG UAA UUC UAG 5'

d)

3' TAG CTT AAT GCT 5'

e)

5' TAG CTT AAT GCT 3'

37.

UNIT 6: Which of the following is true of DNA Replication?

a)

DNA is semi conservative because it creates two new strands of old nucleotide.

b)

New DNA strands are being synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction

c)

DNA is being synthesized in the 3' to 5' directions from a template strand

d)

RNA is being synthesized by RNA polymerase in the 5' to 3' direction

e)

A sense strand is created from a nonsense strand of DNA using RNA polymerase

38.

UNIT 6: Which enzyme is used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Restriction enzymes

d)

DNA primase

e)

Topoisomerase

39.

UNIT 6: What polypeptide chain would be created from the following DNA sequence: 5' TAC GGC CGA AGT CGT 3'

a)

Met Pro Ala Ser Ala

b)

Met Pro Ala Cyt Ala

c)

Met Pro Ala Stop Ala

d)

Tyr Gly Arg Iso Arg

e)

Tyr Pro Ala Stop

40.

UNIT 6: Where does RNA polymerase bind to DNA?

a)

at an activator site

b)

on the coding gene sequence

c)

at a promoter region

d)

downstream of the coding sequence

e)

Where the RNA primer is placed

41.

UNIT 6:Which of the following enzymes are used in the process of transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA primase

d)

Spliceosomes

e)

Activator proteins

42.

UNIT 6: How do amino acids know where to orient during protein synthesis?

a)

anticodons match complementary codons

b)

codons connect with the mRNA

c)

amino acids only bind in a specific order

d)

rRNA brings the appropriate amino acids to the EPA site

e)

tRNA carries amino acids to the nucleus

43.

UNIT 7: What factors would increase the frequency of a genotype in a population over time?

a)

Increased reproduction rates in a population

b)

Selective pressures that make the trait favorable

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Mutations in the population

44.

UNIT 7: What is artificial selection?

a)

When humans selectively breed organisms together to select for traits most desirable to us

b)

When a new species has formed

c)

When new organisms migrate into an area and introduce new genes

d)

When organisms are separated from other members of their population due to new geographic barriers

45.

UNIT 7: What is the founder effect?

a)

When survivors of a natural disaster repopulate the environment

b)

When a small population breaks off of an existing population

c)

Changes in the genetic makeup of a population over time

d)

The migration of organisms between two similar populations

46.

UNIT 7: According to this cladogram, which animal has the closest common ancestor to a crocodile?

a)

Mammals

b)

Lizards and Snakes

c)

Turtles

d)

Birds

47.

What are homologous structures?

a)

Structures that are morphologically different but serve the same function

b)

Similar shared structures that may serve different functions

48.

UNIT 7: Which species on this cladogram have four walking legs?

a)

Lancelet

b)

Leopards only

c)

All of the species have this trait

d)

Salamander, turtle, leopards

49.

UNIT 7: The graphs below show the changes in crab color at one beach.


Which of the following is most likely to have caused the change in the distribution?

a)

A new predator arrived that preferred dark-tan crabs.

b)

A new predator arrived that preferred light-tan crabs.

c)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the least visible to predators.

d)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the most visible to predators.

50.

UNIT 7: In mice brown fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b). Scientists observed a population of 2000 mice, and found the frequency of the B allele to be 0.7. 10 years later the scientists revisited the population and found the frequency of the B allele to be 0.4.


In the original study, what percentage of the mice would have white fur?

a)

70%

b)

49%

c)

9%

d)

30%

51.

UNIT 7: If 36% of a population shows the recessive trait, what percentage of the population would be expected to be heterozygous?

a)

60%

b)

16%

c)

48%

d)

40%

52.

UNIT 8: A cheetah urinates on a tree. Which of the following types of signals is the cheetah using?

a)

visual

b)

audible

c)

tactile

d)

chemical

53.

UNIT 8: Which of the following best describes the body temperature regulation for an alligator?

a)

ectotherm that maintains body temperature through metabolism

b)

ectotherm that maintains body temperature through behaviors

c)

endotherm that maintains body temperature through metabolism

d)

endotherm that maintains body temperature through behaviors

54.

UNIT 8: Which of the following best describes the relationship between metabolic rate per unit body mass and the size of multicellular organisms?

a)

the smaller the organism, the higher the metabolic rate

b)

the larger the organism, the higher the metabolic rate

c)

the higher the surface area to volume ratio of the cells, the higher the metabolic rate

d)

the lower the surface area to volume ratio of the cells, the higher the metabolic rate

55.

UNIT 8: In a population of 100 individuals, 20 individuals are born and there are 5 deaths. What is the r value?


Recall: r = per capita growth rate of population

a)

.05

b)

.15

c)

.20

d)

.25

56.

UNIT 8: Which of the following describes the relationship of the mistletoe that gains resources and harms the mesquite tree that it grows on?

a)

parasitism

b)

commensalism

c)

mutualism

d)

predator/prey

57.

UNIT 8: Which of the following describes the disadvantage of little species diversity in a community?

a)

less likely to have immigration

b)

more likely to be consumed by predators

c)

more likely to have mutations

d)

less resilient to changes in the environment

58.

UNIT 8: Which of the following is an organism that is disproportionate relative to their abundance and when removed from the ecosystem causes it to collapse?

a)

dominant species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

primary consumer

59.

UNIT 8: A group of bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following describes HOW the bacteria became resistant?

a)

the bacterial population got changed by the antibiotic in the environment

b)

the bacterial population had random mutations making them favorable in the presence of the antibiotic

c)

the bacterial population consumed the antibiotic providing a food source

d)

the bacterial population uses the antibiotic for reproduction

60.

UNIT 8: Which of the following best describes the changes to the trophic structure with a decrease in plant population?

a)

increase in primary and secondary consumers

b)

decrease in primary and secondary consumers

c)

decrease in secondary consumer, increase in primary consumer

d)

increase in secondary consumer, decrease in primary consumer