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EMS Operations, Extrication + Special Rescue - CH 19-21

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You carry a jump bag to:

a)

facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact.

b)

manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.

c)

carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.

d)

contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

2.

Transporting a patient to a hospital involves all the following, EXCEPT:

a)

a written report

b)

informing dispatch of arrival

c)

restocking supplies

d)

giving billing information to the clerk

3.

If the safest place for you to park on a scene happens to face in the direction of oncoming traffic, you should:

a)

quickly access the patient

b)

light a few flares near the scene

c)

turn off your headlights

d)

turn off all warning lights

4.

If someone is tailgating you while you're responding to an emergency call, you should:

a)

let the driver pass you

b)

speed up

c)

brake-check the driver

d)

stop and confront the driver

5.

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies?

a)

Oral glucose

b)

Vacuum splint

c)

DuoDote Auto-Injector

d)

Inhaled bronchodilator

6.

What's the least likely type of safety gear to be found on an ambulance?

a)

face shields

b)

hazmat gear

c)

goggles

d)

turnout gear

7.

When is it most likely that you use a police escort?

a)

The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out.

b)

you are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.

c)

you are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.

d)

The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.

8.

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is:

a)

gaining access to the patient(s).

b)

requesting additional resources.

c)

immediately beginning triage.

d)

surveying the area for hazards and making sure the scene is safe.

9.

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:

a)

is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

b)

should be performed by the most experienced EMT.

c)

is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.

d)

determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.

10.

In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should:

a)

request the fire department at all scenes.

b)

perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.

c)

use the information provided by dispatch.

d)

interview bystanders present at the scene.

11.

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then:

a)

begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.

b)

report to the incident commander for instructions.

12.

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________.

a)

search the vehicle for occupants

b)

disconnect the car battery

c)

apply retardant to the leaking fuel

d)

call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

13.

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________.

a)

assist in the search on foot

b)

direct other incoming EMS units

c)

assume medical command

d)

wait at the staging area until the patient is located

14.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient:

a)

only if the patient has experienced a major injury.

b)

after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables.

c)

after receiving approval from the incident commander.

d)

only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.

15.

Incident in which a trapped victim must be removed from a vehicle, structure, or machinery.

a)

Extrication

b)

Extraction

16.

Rescue tools may be used for: (Pick all that apply)

a)

Cutting

b)

Stabilizing

c)

Shifting

d)

Lifting

e)

Pulling

17.

Type of tool where a battery or generator is used.

a)

Pneumatic

b)

Hydraulic

c)

Electric

d)

Manual

18.

Type of tool where compressed air is used.

a)

Hydraulic

b)

Pneumatic

c)

Electric

d)

Manual

19.

This is an example of which type of tool?

a)

Combination tool

b)

Hydraulic spreader

c)

Hydraulic cutter

d)

Hydraulic ram

20.

Which of the following tools would be used to remove the dash off a patient's trapped legs?

a)

Spreader

b)

Rams

c)

Cutters

d)

Chains

21.

These are examples of which of the following?

a)

Chocks

b)

Cribbing

c)

Boot

d)

Stud

22.

Identify the following extrication tool.

a)

Spreader

b)

Combination

c)

(Shears) Cutter

d)

Ram

23.

Type of tool powered by fluid, usually by a pump.

a)

Hydraulic

b)

Pneumatic

c)

Electric

d)

Manual

24.

Identify this tool.

a)

Hydraulic Spreader

b)

Hydraulic Cutter

c)

Combination Tool

d)

Hydraulic Ram

25.

What is the primary hazard at this accident?

a)

Gasoline

b)

Traffic

c)

Broken glass

d)

Airbags

26.

Rescue tools can be classified based on what two criteria? (Pick the two that apply)

a)

Power source

b)

Type of tool

c)

Manufacturer

d)

Type of use

27.

Wheel chocks can be used to keep vehicles from moving while parked?

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Identify from the picture what these are called.

a)

Chocks

b)

Blocks

c)

Studs

d)

Cribbing

29.

Identify the following, usually not able to cut with extrication tool.

a)

Sear Pin

b)

Noble Pin

c)

Dater Pin

d)

Nader Pin

30.

Identify which post is being shown in the illustration.

a)

A Post

b)

B post

c)

C Post

d)

D Post

31.

Which type of tool is commonly used to break a window and gain access.

a)

Hole punch

b)

Center punch

c)

Pry bar

d)

Center piece

32.

Normally a stronger type of glass designed so that it will not shatter on impact.

a)

Tempered glass

b)

Mirrored glass

c)

Stained glass

d)

Filtered glass

33.

Identify the post beside the driver's head.

a)

A post

b)

B post

c)

C post

d)

D post

34.

What's a safe way to try and disable the airbag if it has not already deployed?

a)

Cut the positive battery cable

b)

Cut the negative battery cable

c)

Manually deploy airbag

d)

Do nothing

35.

What's a safe way to try and disable the airbag if it has not already deployed?

a)

Cut the positive battery cable

b)

Cut the negative battery cable

c)

Manually deploy airbag

d)

Do nothing

36.

Identify this type of extrication tool.

a)

Hydraulic spreader

b)

Hydraulic cutter

c)

Combination tool

d)

Hydraulic ram

37.

Which post is being cut by the fire fighter in this illustration?

a)

A post

b)

B post

c)

C post

38.

What's the first step at any extrication scene?

a)

Patient assessment

b)

Determine resources

c)

Scene size-up

d)

Triage of patients

39.

What are the four types of rescue tools?

a)

Spreaders, cutters, lifters, stabilizers

b)

Spreaders, cutters, combination, rams

c)

Lifters, stabilizers, rams, cutters

d)

Cutters, rams, pullers, combination

40.

During stabilization efforts a hydraulic jack is used for heavy lifting?

a)

True

b)

False

41.

As an Emergency Medical Responder, your first consideration at any emergency should be

a)

providing immediate patient care.

b)

notifying the communications center of your status.

c)

ensuring your own safety.

d)

ensuring the patient's safety.

42.

All of the following should be done at any emergency scene EXCEPT

a)

do whatever it takes to rescue the patient.

b)

wear protective gear.

c)

evaluate the scene.

d)

call dispatch for appropriate resources.

43.

Which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States?

a)

Water Rescue

b)

Hazardous materials response

c)

Vehicle rescue

d)

Farm rescue

44.

Which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass?

a)

Battery

b)

Catalytic converter

c)

Mobile radio

d)

Leaking coolant

45.

Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process?

a)

To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians

b)

To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process

c)

To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors

d)

All of the above

46.

You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first?

a)

Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources.

b)

Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.

c)

Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle.

d)

Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient.

47.

Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT?

a)

At night

b)

On cloudy days

c)

On sunny days

d)

All of the above

48.

You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the air bags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work?

a)

Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

b)

Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed air bag.

c)

Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.

d)

Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

49.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious, but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance?

a)

Pickup truck driver

b)

Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed

c)

Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat

d)

Tractor trailer driver

50.

An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient?

a)

Rapid take-down

b)

Quick extraction

c)

Rapid extrication technique

d)

Scoop stretcher

51.

Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew?

a)

Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window.

b)

Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch.

c)

Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.

d)

Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient.

52.

Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments?

a)

Leaded glass

b)

Alloy glass

c)

Plexiglas

d)

Tempered glass

53.

Your team needs to extricate a large patient from the water who is unconscious. No spinal injury is suspected. What is one safe modification to the standard rapid extrication procedure that could be considered?

a)

Keep the patient in the water until professional rescuers arrive to safely extricate the patient

b)

Strap the patient onto the backboard and use full spinal precautions in the water before extrication

c)

Completely strap the patient to the board so that CPR can begin prior to rapid extrication

d)

Carefully and quickly fasten one strap around the patient's chest to secure him to the backboard prior to extrication

54.

The automated external defibrillator (AED) can be used to treat:

a)

A normal sinus rhythm

b)

No pulse, which may be caused by ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia

c)

A heart rate that will eventually lead to unconsciousness

d)

patients who are suffering from respiratory distress

55.

Once an unconscious patient is extricated, what care do you begin on land?

a)

Pull the patient six feet away from the water’s edge (or as far from the water as possible), put on BSI precautions, and check pulse for up to 10s

b)

Pull the patient two feet away from the water’s edge, put on BSI precautions, and check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds

c)

Pull the patient out of the water, roll the guest off the backboard, put on BSI precautions, and check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds

d)

Pull the patient six feet away from the water’s edge (or as far from the water as possible), and check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds

56.

In order to properly perform a rapid extrication procedure, rescuers must:

a)

Quickly remove the conscious and active patient using a backboard to avoid panic

b)

Remember that use of the backboard is optional – get the patient out any way you can

c)

Safely remove the unconscious patient from the water with a backboard, using at least two rescuers

d)

Perform at least two minutes of rescue breathing before pulling the patient out of the water

57.

What steps should be taken by the primary rescuer when dealing with an unconscious patient in the water?

a)

Put the patient in an open airway position, immediately begin rescue breathing while moving to the extrication point

b)

Put the patient in an open airway position, check for spontaneous breathing, in none, begin rescue breathing while moving to the extrication point

c)

Put the patient on the rescue tube and begin moving toward a backboard and the extrication point

d)

Glove up, put the patient in open airway position, check spontaneous breathing, if none, do rescue breaths and move to the extrication point

58.

When checking for a pulse on a patient:

a)

Locate the carotid artery in the neck for all age groups. The pulse should be checked for up to 10 seconds

b)

Locate the brachial artery in the arm for all age groups. The pulse should be checked for up to 10 seconds

c)

Try the carotid artery for 10 seconds, if no pulse is found check the brachial artery for an additional 10 seconds, just to be sure

d)

Locate the carotid artery in the neck for adults and children. Locate the brachial artery in the arm for infants. Check pulse for up to 10 seconds

59.

A patient is found partially submerged. The patient appears rigid and exhibits jerking motions. During the rescue you notice the patient's skin is blue and froth is coming from the mouth. The patient is most likely in which stage of drowning?

a)

Hypoxic convulsions stage

b)

Seizure

c)

Involuntary breath-holding stage

d)

Cardiac Arrest

60.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Drowning is the 2nd most common cause of death from unintentional injury in children ages 1-14.

b)

Drownings are less frequent in warm-weather states.

c)

Females drown four times more often than males.

d)

Children most often drown in canals and drainage ditches.

61.

A person in the water who is in a face-down position, not breathing and not moving his or her arms and legs is showing behaviors of a:

a)

Swimmer

b)

Distressed swimmer.

c)

Drowning victim who is struggling.

d)

Drowning victim who is passive.

62.

If you find yourself without a life-jacket in the water unexpectedly, you should:

a)

Take your clothes off and survival float.

b)

Take your shirt off and inflate it.

c)

Leave your clothes on and attempt to inflate your shirt.

d)

Swim rapidly for shore.

63.

If you fall through the ice, you should:

a)

Immediately begin survival floating.

b)

Use a breaststroke kick to move onto the ice and then roll away from the break area.

c)

Push yourself up onto the ice using a strong kick, stand and return to shore.

d)

Place your hands on the edge of the ice and pull yourself up, then forward roll away from the broken ice.

64.

To assist someone who is having a seizure in the water, you should:

a)

Try to hold the person still.

b)

Place a spoon between the person's teeth.

c)

Support the victim to keep the head and face above the water.

d)

Immediately remove the victim from the water.

65.

When using the head splint in water with currents or waves, how should the victim be positioned?

a)

Head upstream.

b)

Feet upstream.

c)

Head underwater.

d)

Body perpendicular to the current or waves.

66.

What are the six phases of rescuing an entrapped patient(s) from a vehicle?

a)

Risk assessment and scene safety. Stabalisation. Initial access. Glass management. Space Creation and Full Access. Extrication and Immobilisation.

b)

Scene safety and Risk Assessment. Stabalisation and Initial Access. Glass management. Space creation Full access Extrication and Immobilisation.

c)

Scene safety and Stabalisation. Initial Access. Glass management. Space creation. Full access. Extrication and Immobilisation.

d)

Scene safety and Dynamic Risk Assessment. Stabalisation. Glass management. Space creation. Full access. Extrication and Immobilisation.

67.

Identify the safety considerations when risk assessing a hybrid vehicle.

a)
  1. High voltage electrical system.
  2. Larger than expected battery packs in various locations.
  3. Silent running.
  4. Automatic stop/ start.
b)
  1. High voltage electrical system.
  2. Larger than expected battery packs at the rear of the vehicle.
  3. Silent running.
  4. Keyless ignition
c)
  1. Requires an idiot to drive.
  2. Battery packs have an aluminium liner that's wrapped radially and tangentially in a carbon fibre weave and covered in an epoxy resin.
  3. Silent running therefore easy to hit and run.
  4. Engines has a clapper on/ off switch.
d)
  1. Automatic engine start and stop.
  2. Gas Struts.
  3. Silent running.
  4. Made by Toyota
68.

Name two types of glass

a)

Laminated and Hardened (Tempered).

b)

Laminated and Tinted

c)

Tinted and Tempered

d)

Tinie Tempahed glass

69.

The Emergency Medical Responder should always remember that unnecessarily moving a seriously unwell or injured casualty could result in increased pain or blood loss that can lead to increased shock.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Head, neck or spinal injuries are caused by high-impact/high risk activities. Identify all the examples of high-impact/high risk activities in an aquatic environment.

a)

entering head - first into shallow water

b)

receiving a blow to the head

c)

striking a submerged or floating object

d)

Being pulled out of the water by a backboard

71.

Backboards are a standard piece of rescue equipment used at aquatic facilities for immobilizing and removing the victim from the water. Backboards work best when they are equipped with:

a)

straps and a head immobilizer

b)

runners and are made of wood

c)

head immobilizer and are made of plastic

d)

a lifeguard tube and runners

72.

The following statements describe appropriate rescue techniques for a victim with a suspected spinal injury, EXCEPT

a)

If the victim is in shallow water, you do not need to use a rescue tube to support yourself

b)

If the victim is submerged, you should not use the rescue tube when submerging and bringing the victim to the surface

c)

If the victim is small and is in shallow water, you do not need to use a backboard to extricate the victim.

d)

If the victim is at the surface in deep water, you may need a rescue tube to support yourself and the victim

73.

Special considerations for spinal injuries at a facility with a beach or other zero-depth entry may include

a)

injury from board diving and extrication from deep water onto a pier high above the water

b)

injury from exiting a slide and dealing with current in a catch pool

c)

Injury from plunging during a running entry, in-line stabilization and extrication from extremely shallow water

d)

Injury from fall from play structure, dealing with victim's life jacket during stabilization and extrication

74.

A concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). It can occur after an impact to your head or after a whiplash-type injury that causes your head and brain to shake quickly back and forth. A concussion results in an altered mental state that may include becoming unconscious.


Traumatic brain injury is usually caused by a blow or other traumatic injury to the head or body. The degree of damage can depend on several factors, including the nature of the injury and the force of impact.


Symptoms of concussion may include headache, dizziness, confusion, fatigue, nausea, slurred speech, ringing in the ears, temporary loss of consciousness, and amnesia about events leading up to the injury.


What are the signs and symptoms of a head injury?

a)

Headaches

b)

Nausea

c)

Dizziness

d)

All of the above

75.

CTE =

a)

Brain cancer

b)

Stroke

c)

multiple head injuries

d)

Mandible fracture

76.

Sinking vehicles are considered occupied until proven otherwise.

a)

False

b)

True

77.

All electrocution patients are assumed to be in cardiac arrest until breathing is verified.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

The landing zone for a helicopter is

a)

200 x 100

b)

50 x 50

c)

100 x 100

d)

150 x 150

79.

When approaching a helicopter, always move from the _______________ of the aircraft.

a)

back (rear) side

b)

front or side

c)

downhill slope rear

d)

uphill slope rear

80.

Body heat is lost most through

a)

the armpits

b)

the head and neck

c)

arms and legs

d)

mouth

81.
The #1 Threat to landing EMS helicopter is?
a)
People
b)
Wires
c)
Trees
d)
Cars
82.
Wires may be obvious from the ground...But Invisible to the Helicopter Crew.
*Especially at Night*
a)
True
b)
False
83.
Is it important to describe the LZ, including size, shape, slope, and surface
a)
True
b)
False
84.
The Landing surface should be flat and clear of people, vehicles, brush, fences, etc.
a)
True
b)
False