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ACCTG 26_SEMIFINAL EXAM

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a category of financial assets?

a)

Financial Assets at fair value through profit or loss

b)

Financial Assets at fair value through other comprehensive income

c)

Financial Assets at amortized cost

d)

Financial Assets Held for Sale

2.

All of the following financial assets shall be measured at fair value through profit or loss, except

a)

Financial assets held for trading

b)

Financial Assets designated on initial recognition as at fair value through profit or loss

c)

Investments in quoted equity instruments

d)

Financial Assets at amortized costs

3.

As a rule, transaction costs that are directly attributable to the acquisition of a financial asset shall be

a)

Capitalized as cost of the financial asset

b)

Expensed when incurred

c)

charged to retained earnings

d)

included as a component of other comprehensive income

4.

Depending on the business model for managing financial assets, an entity shall classify financial assets subsequent to initial recognition at

a)

Fair value

b)

Amortized cost

c)

Either fair value or amortized cost

d)

Neither fair value nor amortized cost

5.

Unrealized gains and losses on financial assets measured at amortized cost shall be included as a component of other comprehensive income

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

When an entity reclassifies a financial asset at amortized cost to the financial asset at fair value, the fair value is determined at the reclassification date, and the difference between the previous carrying amount and fair value

a)

is included in profit or loss

b)

is included in other comprehensive income

c)

is included in retained earnings

d)

is not recognized

7.

What is the " reclassification date" for purposes of reclassifying financial assets?

a)

end of the current reporting period

b)

First day of the next reporting period following the change in business model

c)

Dat when management decided to change the business model for managing financial assets

d)

no definition of reclassification date as this would depend on the judgment of management

8.

An entity purchased equity shares in another entity with the intention of holding this investment over the long term. what is the most appropriate classification of this equity investment?

a)

At fair value through profit or loss

b)

held for trading

c)

at fair value through other comprehensive income

d)

amortized cost

9.

The entity purchased government bonds. The entity's business model in managing financial assets is to collect contractual cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest on the principal amount outstanding. Which of the following is the most appropriate classification for the investment in bonds?

a)

held for trading

b)

at fair value through profit or loss

c)

at amortized cost

d)

at fair value through other comprehensive income

10.

An impairment loss is a difference between the carrying amount of the investment and the

a)

expected cash flows

b)

present value of the expected cash flows

c)

contractual cash flows

d)

present value of the contractual cash flows

11.

It is the date on which the stock and transfer book of the entity is closed for registration. Only those shareholders registered as of this date are entitled to received dividends.

a)

Date of declaration

b)

Date of record

c)

date of payment

d)

date of mailing and the dividend check

12.

Property dividend are recorded

a)

as dividend income at carrying amount of the property

b)

as dividend income at fair value of the property

c)

as a return of investment and therefore credited to the investment account

d)

by means of memorandum only

13.

Liquidating dividends are credited to

a)

Income

b)

Retained Earnings

c)

Investment account

d)

Share capital

14.

What is the effect of a stock dividend of the same class?

a)

Increase in the investment account and increase in cost per share

b)

Decrease in the investment account and decrease in cost per share

c)

No effect on investment account but a decrease in cost per share

d)

No effect on investment account but increase in cost per share

15.

Shares received in lieu of cash dividend are recorded as

a)

income at fair value of the shares received

b)

income at par value of the shares received

c)

income at the cash dividend that would have been received

d)

stock dividends

16.

Cash received in lieu of stock dividends is accounted for as

a)

dividend income

b)

return of investment

c)

partly dividend income and partly return of investment

d)

if the stock dividends are received and subsequently sold at the cash received and gain or loss is recognized

17.

What is the effect of a share split?

a)

increase in the number of shares and increase in cost per share

b)

decrease in the number of shares and decrease in cost per share

c)

decrease in the number of shares and increase in cost per share

d)

increase in the number of shares and decrease in cost per share

18.

It is an entity over which the investor has significant influence

a)

associate

b)

investee

c)

venture capital organization

d)

mutual fund

19.

Which of the following statements best describes the term "significant influence"

a)

The holding of a significant proportion of the share capital in another entity

b)

The contractually agreed sharing of control over an economic entity

c)

The power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of an entity

d)

The mutual sharing in the risks and benefits of a combined entity

20.

When the investor discontinues the use of the equity method because significant influence is lost, the investment in associate retained by the investor shall be measure at

a)

fair value

b)

carrying amount

c)

amortized cost

d)

original cost

21.

Under the equity method of accounting for investments, an investor recognizes its share of the earnings in the period in which the

a)

the investor sells the investment

b)

investee declares a dividend

c)

investee pays dividend

d)

earnings are reported by the investee in its financial statements

22.

An investor uses the equity method to account for investment in ordinary shares. The purchase price implies a fair value of the investee's depreciable assets in excess of the investee's net asset carrying amount. The Investor's amortization of the excess

a)

decreases the investment account

b)

decreases the goodwill account

c)

increases the investment revenue account

d)

does not affect the investment account

23.

The contractual agreement between an investor and the bond issuer is contained in a formal document known as

a)

contract of debt

b)

bond indenture

c)

bond certificate

d)

bond agreement

24.

If a 5-year bond matures on October 1, 2020, and interest is payable semiannually, the interest dates are

a)

April 1 and October 1

b)

January 1 and July 1

c)

May 1 and November 1

d)

Not determinable

25.

The effective interest method of amortizing bond discount provides for

a)

increasing discount amortization and increasing interest income

b)

increasing discount amortization and decreasing interest income

c)

decreasing discount amortization and increasing interest income

d)

decreasing discount amortization and decreasing interest income

26.

Investment property includes all of the following, except

a)

land held for long-term capital appreciation

b)

land held for currently undetermined use

c)

building owned by the reporting entity or held by a finance lessee leased out under one or more operating leases

d)

Property held for sale in the ordinary course of business or in the process of construction of such sale

27.

Directly attributable expenditures related to investment property include

a)

professional fees for legal services, property transfer taxes, and other transaction costs

b)

start-up costs

c)

initial operating losses incurred before the investment property achieves the planned level of occupancy

d)

abnormal amounts of wasted material, labor and other resources incurred in constructing or developing the property

28.

When the entity uses the cost model, transfer between investment property, owner-occupied property and inventory shall be accounted for at

a)

fair value

b)

carrying amount

c)

cost

d)

assessed value

29.

Subsequent to initial recognition, the investment property shall be measured at

a)

fair value

b)

cost less any accumulated depreciation and any accumulated impairment losses

c)

revalued amount

d)

either fair value or cost less any accumulated depreciation and any accumulated impairment losses.

30.
Using the chart, calculate the ending inventory using FIFO.
a)
105.28
b)
111.33
c)
108.36
d)
102.58
31.
Using the chart, calculate the ending inventory using WAVCO.
a)
105.28
b)
111.33
c)
108.36
d)
109.59
32.
Why do you need to know how to estimate interim inventory valuations?
a)
In the event of a natural catastrophe to get reimbursed from your insurance company for the loss of inventory.
b)
In the event of theft to get reimbursed from your insurance company.
c)
To create interim financial statements.
d)
All of the above.
33.

Inventories include all of the following assets, except

a)

Held for sale in the ordinary course of business

b)

in the process of production for sale

c)

in the form of materials or supplies to be consumed in the production process or in the rendering of services

d)

held for use in the production or supply of goods or services

34.

The inventory of service prodiver business may simpy be described as

a)

work in progress

b)

unbilled services

c)

services inventory

d)

billed sservices

35.

PAS 2 Inventories encompasses all of the following, except

a)

Mechandise purchased by a retailer

b)

land and other propety not held for sale

c)

finished goods produced

d)

Materials and supplies awaiting use in the production process

36.

The cost of inventories does not include

a)

salaries of factory staff

b)

storage costs necessary in the production process before a futher production stage

c)

abnormal amounts of wasted materials and distribution costs

d)

irrecoverable purchase taxes

37.

Theoretically, cash discounts permitted on the purchased raw materials should be

a)

added to other income, whether taken or not

b)

added to other income, only if taken

c)

deducted from inventory, whether taken or not

d)

deducted from inventory, only if take

38.

The use of purchase discount account implies that the recorded cost of the purchased inventory item is

a)

invoice price

b)

invoice price plus any purchase dicount lost

c)

invioce price less the purchase discount allowable whether taken or not

d)

invoice price less the purchase discount take

39.

Which of the following is not an acceptable basis for valuation of inventory

a)

historical cost

b)

current replacement cost

c)

prime cost

d)

current selling price less cost of disposal

40.

A consignee paid the freight cost for the goods shipped from a consignor. The freight cost is to be deducted from the consignee's payment to the consginor when the consigned goods are sold. until the consignee sells the goods, the freight cost should be included in the consignee's

a)

cost of goods sold

b)

freight out

c)

distribution cost

d)

accounts receivable

41.

Goods on consignment shall be included in the inventory of

a)

The consignor but not the consignee

b)

The consignee but not the consignor

c)

Neither the consignor the consignee

d)

Both the consignor and the consignee

42.

Which of the following should be included in inventory at the end of the reporting period

a)

Goods in transit that were purchased FOB shipping point

b)

Goods in transit that were purchased FOB destination

c)

Goods received from another entity on consignment

d)

Goods in transit to a customer whichwere sold to the customer FOB shipping point

43.

Freight and other handling charges incurred in the trasfer of goods from the congsinor to consignee are

a)

expense on the part of the consgnor

b)

expense on the part of the consingee

c)

inventoriable by the consignor

d)

inventoraible by the consignee

44.

What is the method of accumulating for inventory in which the cost of goods sold is recorded each time a sale is made?

a)

Professional inventory system

b)

Periodic Inventory system

c)

Perpetual inventory system

d)

Planned inventory system

45.

An entry debiting inventory and crediting cost of goods sold would be made when

a)

merchadise is sold and the periodic inventory method is used

b)

merchandise is sold and the perpertual inventory method is used

c)

mechandise is returned and the perpetual inventory method is used

d)

merchandise is returned and the periodic inventory method is used

46.

A discount given to customer for a purchasing a large volume of merchandise is typically referred to as

a)

Trade discount

b)

Quantity dicount

c)

Size dicount

d)

cash discount

47.

When the current's year ending inventory is overstated

a)

the current year's cost of goods sold is overstated

b)

the current year's total asseets are understated

c)

The current year's net income is overstated

d)

The next year's income is overstated

48.

Inventories shall be measured at

a)

cost

b)

net realizable value

c)

lower of cost and net realizable value

d)

higher of cost and net realizable value

49.

Which inventory cost flow assumption would cosistently result in the highest income in a period of sustained inflation?

a)

FIFO

b)

LIFO

c)

Weighted average

d)

Specific identification

50.

An example of an inventory accounting policy that should be discolsed is

a)

Effect of inventory profit caused by inflation

b)

classfication of inventory into raw materials, work in process, and finished goods

c)

indentification of major suppliers

d)

method used for inventory costing

51.

Investment property are

a)

Identifiable non-monetary assets without physical substance

b)

Properties held to earn rentals or for capital appreciation or both

c)

Assets held for sale in the ordinary courses of business

d)

Tangible items that are held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, for rental to others, or for administrative purposes; and are expected to be used during more than one period

52.

Which statement is incorrect regarding the use fair value model?

a)

After initial recognition, an entity shall be measure all of its investment property at fair value

b)

A gain or loss from a change in the fair value of investment property shall be recognized in profit or loss for the period in which it arises.

c)

There is a rebuttable presumption that an entity can reliably measure the fair value of an investment property on a continuing basis

d)

A change from the fair value model to the cost model likely results in a more relevant presentation

53.

In accordance with PFRS 9, an entity may reclassify

a)

Financial assets designated at FVTPL

b)

Investments in equity instruments designated at FVTOCI

c)

Derivatives

d)

None of the above

54.

Investment in debt securities classified as FA@FVTOCI recognizes which of the following in OCI?

a)

Changes in fair value

b)

Impairment gains and losses

c)

Interest calculated using effective interest method

d)

All of the above

55.

(3PTS)The Conehead Company purchased an investment property on January 1, 2016 at a cost of P 220,000. The property had a useful life of 40 years and at December 31, 2018 had a fair value of P 300,000. On January 2019 the property was sold for net proceeds of P 290,000. Conehead uses the cost model to account for investment properties. What is the gain or loss to be recognized in profit or loss for the year ended December 31, 2019 regarding the disposal of the property?

a)

P 86,500 gain

b)

P 81, 000 gain

c)

P 10,000 loss

d)

P 92,000 gain

56.

It is an entity over which the investor has significant influence?

a)

Associate

b)

Investee

c)

Venture capital organization

d)

Mutual fund

57.

Which of the following statements best describes the term "significant influence"?

a)

The holding of a significant proportion of the share capital in another entity

b)

The contractually agreed sharing of control over an economic entity

c)

The power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of an entity

d)

The mutual sharing in the risks and benefits of a combined entity

58.

When an investor uses the cost method to account for the investment in ordinary shares, cash dividends received by the investor from the investee should be recorded as

a)

Deduction from the investment account

b)

Dividend income

c)

Addition to the investor's share of the investee's profit

d)

Deduction from the investor's share of the investee's profit

59.

An investor shall discontinue the use of equity method when

a)

The investor ceases to have significant influence over the associate

b)

The associate operates under severe long term restrictions

c)

The investor ceases to have control over the associate

d)

The business activities of the investor and associate is dissimilar

60.

The interest income for the year would be higher if the bond was purchased at

a)

par

b)

face amount

c)

a discount

d)

a premium