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econ midterm 2

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 22hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A ________ is the price at which a trading partner is indifferent between making the trade and not doing so.

a)

reservation value

b)

discounted value

c)

market value

d)

shadow value

2.

Consumer surplus is the ________.

a)

difference between the buyer's reservation value and the price he actually pays

b)

product of a buyer's reservation value and the price he actually pays

c)

ratio of a buyer's reservation value to the price he actually pays

d)

sum of a buyer's reservation value and the price he actually pays

3.

If a buyer's reservation value for a good is $15 and the price at which he purchases the good is $8, his consumer surplus is ________.

a)

$7

b)

$1.8

c)

$120

d)

−$7

4.

When buyers and sellers optimize in a perfectly competitive market, ________.

a)

social surplus is minimized

b)

social surplus is maximized

c)

only consumer surplus is maximized

d)

only consumer surplus is minimized

5.

For social surplus to be maximized, the ________ buyers are actually making a purchase and the ________ sellers are selling the products.

a)

highest-value; highest-cost

b)

lowest-value; highest-cost

c)

highest-value; lowest-cost

d)

lowest-value; lowest-value

6.

An outcome is Pareto efficient if ________.

a)

the benefits of the outcome are equally distributed among all participants

b)

the costs of the outcome are equally shared by all participants

c)

an individual can be made better off without making someone else worse off

d)

no individual can be made better off without making someone else worse off

7.

If firms in a competitive industry independently operate to maximize profits, the ________ are eventually equalized across the firms.

a)

marginal costs

b)

revenues

c)

total costs

d)

profits

8.

When two firms in a perfectly competitive market seek to maximize profit in the long run, they eventually end up ________.

a)

producing the same level of output

b)

producing at a suboptimal level

c)

earning the same level of profits

d)

minimizing the total cost of production

9.

If firms in a perfectly competitive industry are experiencing losses in the short run, we would expect firms to exit this industry and cause the market supply curve to ________.

a)

shift right until Price = Minimum average total cost

b)

shift left until Price = Minimum average variable cost

c)

shift right until Price = Minimum average variable cost

d)

shift left until Price = Minimum average total cost

10.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

In a competitive market, the invisible hand encourages the movement of resources from more productive uses to less productive uses.

b)

At the competitive equilibrium, production occurs at the point of maximum average total cost.

c)

Competitive equilibrium provides incentives for entrepreneurs to shift their resources from unprofitable industries to profitable ones.

d)

In a competitive market, firms in the long run tend to earn positive economic profits.

11.

When existing firms leave a perfectly competitive industry, ________.

a)

both the equilibrium price and quantity increase

b)

both the equilibrium price and quantity decrease

c)

both the equilibrium price and quantity decrease

d)

the equilibrium price increases, and the equilibrium quantity decreases

12.

Which of the following statements is true of market prices in a perfectly competitive market?

a)

Market prices are not stable and fluctuate widely.

b)

Market prices allow for the efficient allocation of scarce resources.

c)

Market prices are determined by the government.

d)

Market prices are determined by the government.

13.

If prices are held above the equilibrium price, ________.

a)

there will be a shortage in the market

b)

all firms will incur losses

c)

there will be a surplus in the market

d)

social surplus will be maximized

14.

The decrease in social surplus from a market distortion is referred to as ________.

a)

Pareto loss

b)

market loss

c)

deadweight loss

d)

revenue loss

15.

Efficiency is achieved in competitive markets because ________.

a)

social surplus is maximized (the economic pie is made as large as possible)

b)

deadweight loss is maximized

c)

producer surplus is maximized

d)

producer surplus is maximized

16.

________ relates to the distribution of resources across society.

a)

Utility

b)

Social surplus

c)

Equity

d)

Efficiency

17.

Which of the following best describes a production possibilities curve?

a)

The rate at which an economy can trade production of one good for another

b)

The total amount of goods an economy can produce

c)

A relationship showing the maximum production of one good for a given level of production of another good

d)

How much of one good an economy can produce if they forgo production of another good

18.

The following figure shows the production possibilities curve for a software engineer who has to divide her available time between producing computer programs and Web sites.


Refer to the figure above. Which of the following combinations is attainable as well as efficient?

a)

E

b)

C

c)

D

d)

B

19.

The slope of a production possibility curve represents ________.

a)

the rate at which people in an economy would like to trade one good for another

b)

the opportunity cost of producing one more unit of a good in terms of the forgone production of the other good

c)

combinations of two goods that are not attainable with existing technology

d)

the total cost of producing a given level of output

20.

Which of the following statements best describes absolute advantage?

a)

The party who has the lower opportunity cost of producing the good

b)

The party who can produce more of the good

c)

The party who can produce less of the good

d)

The party who has the higher opportunity cost of producing the good

21.

In Lithasia, the opportunity cost of producing a chair is 2 tables and in Barylia, the opportunity cost of producing a chair is 1/2 table. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Barylia has a comparative advantage in producing chairs.

b)

Lithasia has a comparative advantage in producing chairs.

c)

Lithasia has a comparative disadvantage in producing tables.

d)

Barylia has a comparative advantage in producing tables.

22.

Specialization occurs when each individual, firm, or country ________.

a)

produces only those goods for which it has a higher opportunity cost of production than that for other nations

b)

produces only a few specific goods and relies on trade for the other goods and services it needs

c)

is self-sufficient and produces all goods and services it needs, without relying on imports

d)

produces only those goods which are in demand in the global market and allow for high rates of profitability

23.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Trade between two nations is most beneficial when neither has a comparative advantage in the production of any goods and services.

b)

Trade between two nations is possible only when the opportunity costs of producing goods and services in both nations are identical.

c)

When two nations specialize and trade, there is a loss of efficiency and both the nations are made worse off.

d)

Trade between nations allows each nation to specialize in the production of goods for which it has comparative advantage.

24.

Terms of trade refers to the ________.

a)

amount of money that has to be given up to import an additional quantity of a good

b)

exchange rate of goods for goods

c)

opportunity cost of producing the same good in two trading nations

d)

rules and regulations that govern trade between nations

25.

Two countries, A and B, produce Good X. Which of the following statements is true of the trading price of Good X?

a)

The trading price of Good X will always be equal to the opportunity cost of producing the good in Country A.

b)

The trading price of Good X will lie between the opportunity costs of producing the good in both nations.

c)

The trading price of Good X will be greater than the opportunity cost of producing the good in both nations.

d)

The trading price of Good X will be less than the opportunity cost of producing the good in both nations.

26.

A(n) ________ is any good that is produced domestically but sold abroad, and a(n) ________ is any good that is produced abroad but sold domestically.

a)

export; import

b)

public good; private good

c)

import; export

d)

private good; public good

27.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

If the domestic price of a good in a country is higher than the world price, the country will become an importer of the good.

b)

Whether a country becomes an importer or an exporter of a good depends only on the world price of the good and is independent of the domestic price of the good.

c)

If the domestic price of a good in a country is higher than the world price, the country will become an exporter of the good.

d)

Whether a country becomes an importer or an exporter of a good depends only on the domestic price of the good and is independent of the world price of the good.

28.

If a nation opens up to free trade and becomes an importer of goods, which of the following is then true?

a)

Sellers gain.

b)

Buyers gain.

c)

Buyers lose.

d)

The nation as a whole loses.

29.

Which of the following statements is not true of free trade?

a)

Free trade encourages countries to specialize in production

b)

Free trade maximizes world living standards.

c)

Free trade always makes each individual better off.

d)

Free trade leads to a maximization of world output.

30.

The use of government regulations and barriers to control trade is referred to as ________.

a)

liberalization

b)

protectionism

c)

actualization

d)

globalization

31.

Taxes levied on goods and services transported across political boundaries are referred to as ________.

a)

value added taxes

b)

service taxes

c)

tariffs

d)

transport taxes

32.

An externality occurs when ________.

a)

the quantity demanded of a good exceeds the quantity supplied

b)

the quantity supplied of a good exceeds the quantity demanded

c)

an economic activity affects third parties not engaged in the activity

d)

the government regulates production and consumption decisions

33.

Externalities essentially create ________.

a)

non-rivalry in consumption

b)

a divergence between private and social costs

c)

a free-rider problem

d)

non-excludability in consumption

34.

When the production of a good generates negative externalities, ________.

a)

the fixed cost of production is zero

b)

the variable cost of production is zero

c)

the social cost of production exceeds the private cost of production

d)

the private cost of production exceeds the social cost of production

35.

The presence of external benefits associated with production implies that ________.

a)

private output corresponds to the socially optimal output

b)

private output exceeds the socially optimal output

c)

private output is less than the socially optimal output

d)

any of the above, depending on the relative magnitude of social and private benefits

36.

The presence of a positive externality in a market leads to a(n) ________.

a)

underproduction of a good

b)

gain in producer surplus

c)

overproduction of a good

d)

fall in consumer surplus

37.

The increasing popularity of hot dogs in a food joint has pushed up their prices, making it unaffordable for many students living in the surrounding areas. This is an example of a ________.

a)

pecuniary externality

b)

positive externality

c)

negative externality

d)

free-rider problem

38.

An economic agent ________ when he accounts for the full costs and benefits of his actions.

a)

maximizes his profit

b)

is called a free rider

c)

internalizes an externality

d)

is called a rent seeker

39.

Which of the following is the best description of the Coase Theorem?

a)

Public goods are over-provided by the private market.

b)

Tariffs can improve economic efficiency.

c)

Bargaining between private parties to an economic exchange results in an efficient allocation of resources.

d)

Only the government can force private parties to internalize externalities.

40.

Private solutions to externalities are most effective if ________.

a)

the transaction costs associated with bargaining are high

b)

the transaction costs associated with bargaining are low

c)

a large number of people are affected by the externalities

d)

property rights are not defined clearly

41.

The Coase Theorem relies on internalizing externalities through ________.

a)

the imposition of corrective taxes

b)

the provision of corrective subsidies

c)

social enforcement mechanisms

d)

negotiations between the parties involved

42.

Government invention is required to solve externality problems if ________.

a)

property rights are clearly defined

b)

transaction costs associated with private negotiations are low

c)

the number of people affected by the externality is large

d)

the number of people affected by the externality is small

43.

A government regulation that bans the use of a certain polluting technology in the production of a good is an example of a ________ used to solve an externality.

a)

social enforcement mechanism

b)

command-and-control approach

c)

Coasian approach

d)

market-based approach

44.

A Pigouvian tax is a tax designed to ________.

a)

induce the consumers of a good to reduce their consumption of the good

b)

induce the producers generating positive externalities to reduce production

c)

induce the producers generating negative externalities to reduce production

d)

force the producers to stop the production of a good in the short run

45.

A vaccination against a disease helps prevent the spread of the disease. Which of the following can help increase the number of people vaccinated to the socially optimal level?

a)

A health tax

b)

An insurance policy

c)

An income tax

d)

A corrective subsidy

46.

In practice, assessing the benefits and costs of a proposed government program is difficult because ________.

a)

some costs and benefits are difficult, perhaps impossible to quantify

b)

the effects of the program may be difficult to determine

c)

many benefits and costs occur in the distant future

d)

all of the above

47.

A good is non-rival in consumption if ________.

a)

the demand for the good increases with an increase in the consumer's income

b)

people cannot be prevented from using it

c)

one person's use of the good does not preclude consumption by others

d)

the government can regulate its production

48.

________ are non-excludable in consumption.

a)

Private goods and club goods

b)

Public goods and private goods

c)

Club goods and common pool resource goods

d)

Public goods and common pool resource goods

49.

A congested street is ________ in consumption.

a)

non-excludable but rival

b)

excludable but non-rival

c)

excludable and rival

d)

non-excludable and non-rival

50.

A free rider is a person who ________.

a)

purchases products available for discounts

b)

receives the benefit of a good without paying for it

c)

can produce a good at a very low cost

d)

only consumes products provided by the government

51.

The government should provide an additional unit of a public good if ________.

a)

the marginal cost of providing the additional unit of the good equals the social cost of providing the additional unit

b)

the marginal cost of providing the additional unit of the good exceeds the marginal benefit

c)

the marginal cost of providing the additional unit of the good exceeds the average cost of providing the additional unit

d)

the marginal benefit exceeds the marginal cost of providing the additional unit of the good

52.

Which of the following can result in the tragedy of the commons?

a)

A high rate of taxation on common pool resources

b)

The use of common pool resources above the socially optimal level

c)

A low level of satisfaction derived from the use of common pool resources

d)

The tendency of consumers to use common pool resources without paying for them

53.

Overfishing leading to a rapid depletion of the stock of fish is an example of the ________.

a)

tragedy of the commons

b)

prisoners' dilemma

c)

paradox of thrift

d)

free-rider problem

54.

A green pasture has turned barren due to overgrazing. This has happened because the pasture was ________.

a)

excludable and rival

b)

excludable but non-rival

c)

non-excludable but rival

d)

non-excludable and non-rival

55.

The congestion charge is an example of ________ to the negative externality associated with common pool resources.

a)

a social norm solution

b)

a command-and-control government solution

c)

a market-based government solution

d)

a private bargaining solution

56.

A marginal tax rate is the ________.

a)

tax rate on the first dollar of income earned

b)

tax rate on the last dollar of income earned

c)

total amount of taxes paid divided by taxable income

d)

total amount of taxes paid

57.

Transfer payments refer to payments from the government to ________.

a)

the employees who work at various public departments

b)

certain individuals or groups such as the elderly or the unemployed

c)

private contractors who undertake infrastructure projects

d)

individual states

58.

The average tax rate faced by an individual is the ________.

a)

total revenue received by the government divided by the number of taxpayers

b)

total tax paid by her divided by the total income earned

c)

difference between the highest tax rate and the lowest tax rate

d)

percentage of the last dollar earned that a household pays as a tax

59.

A ________ tax system is one in which tax rates increase with taxable base incomes.

a)

regressive

b)

progressive

c)

proportional

d)

supplementary

60.

In a regressive tax system, ________.

a)

low-income households pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes

b)

all households pay the same amount of taxes irrespective of their income

c)

high-income households pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes

d)

all households pay the same percentage of their income in taxes

61.

The term ________ refers to how the burden of the tax is distributed across various agents in the economy.

a)

tax discrimination

b)

tax haven

c)

tax funding

d)

tax incidence

62.

If a tax is imposed per unit of a good sold, ________.

a)

the supply curve for the good shifts to the left

b)

the demand curve for the good shifts to the left

c)

the demand curve for the good shifts to the right

d)

the supply curve for the good shifts to the right

63.

If a tax is imposed on a good, ________.

a)

producer surplus increases

b)

the equilibrium quantity of the good in the market falls

c)

the quantity of the good traded in the market increases

d)

consumer surplus increases

64.

If the market supply curve of a commodity is more elastic than its market demand curve, tax incidence is likely to fall ________.

a)

entirely on producers

b)

more on producers than on consumers

c)

more on consumers than on producers

d)

entirely on consumers

65.

The deadweight loss of taxation on a good is higher if ________.

a)

a low rate of tax is imposed on the sale of the good

b)

the demand for or the supply of the good is relatively price elastic

c)

there is only one seller in the market

d)

a progressive tax system is practiced

66.

A price ceiling refers to ________.

a)

the upper limit on the price of a good

b)

the lower limit on the price of a good

c)

the lowest price that a producer is willing to accept for a good

d)

the highest price that a consumer is willing to pay for a good

67.

A price floor set above the equilibrium price leads to a(n) ________.

a)

excess supply of goods in the market

b)

increase in social well-being

c)

excess demand for goods in the market

d)

positive externality

68.

Price controls ________.

a)

redistribute surplus within the side of the market that is a net beneficiary of the price control from those who are queued out of the market to those who can still buy/sell

b)

result in deadweight loss if they cause a change in the market quantity

c)

redistribute surplus from one side of the market to another (e.g. from producers to consumers or vice versa)

d)

all of the above

69.

An example of government failure is ________.

a)

political corruption

b)

the slowness of bureaucracies

c)

bureaucratic inefficiency

d)

all of the above

70.

Which of the following is not an example of the welfare state?

a)

Unemployment insurance benefits

b)

Supplemental nutrition assistance programs (vouchers given to low-income individuals to purchase food)

c)

Government laws establishing property rights

d)

Government-financed healthcare

71.

Approximately 80 percent of mothers of infants in the United States use infant formula. Infant formula has an extremely low price elasticity of demand. As a result, the government could raise substantial revenues by placing high excise taxes on infant formula, and these high taxes would generate relatively modest deadweight losses. What is the likely reason that the government does not increase the tax on infant formula? Explain your answer.

a)

The government cares exclusively about equity.

b)

The deadweight loss would be too large.

c)

The government cares exclusively about efficiency.

d)

The government trades off efficiency to promote equity.

72.

The view that consumers do not always know what is best for them, and that the government should encourage them to modify their behavior, is known as ________.

a)

equity-efficiency trade-off

b)

paternalism

c)

the welfare state

d)

consumer sovereignty

73.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Firms are the demanders in the market for labor as well as in the market for consumer goods.

b)

Firms are the demanders in the market for labor, whereas they are the suppliers in the market for consumer goods.

c)

Firms are the suppliers in the market for labor, whereas they are the demanders in the market for consumer goods.

d)

Firms are the suppliers in the market for labor as well as in the market for consumer goods.

74.

A factor of production refers to any good or service that is ________.

a)

produced in a competitive market

b)

produced by the government

c)

used to produce other goods and services

d)

produced using scarce economic resources

75.

The value of the marginal product of labor is the ________.

a)

contribution of an additional unit of labor to a firm's revenue

b)

extra output that is produced by hiring an additional unit of labor

c)

amount of output produced by the first unit of labor hired by a firm

d)

value of the output produced by all the workers in a firm

76.

The decision rule for a profit-maximizing firm operating in a competitive market to hire an additional worker is that the value of the ________.

a)

marginal product of the worker should be equal to or less than the wage rate

b)

average product of the worker being hired should be less than the wage rate

c)

average product of the worker being hired should be equal to the wage rate

d)

marginal product of the worker should be equal to or greater than the wage rate

77.

In the case of leisure, the substitution effect implies that ________.

a)

when the price of leisure increases, people will work more

b)

if people tend to work more and relax less, the price of leisure increases

c)

if people tend to work more and relax less, the price of leisure decreases

d)

when the price of leisure increases, people will work less and relax more

78.

Other things remaining the same, which of the following is likely to happen if the price of flour products decreases?

a)

The wage rate will decrease and the employment level will increase in the flour industry.

b)

Both the wage rate and the employment level in the flour industry will decrease.

c)

The wage rate will increase and the employment level will decrease in the flour industry.

d)

Both the wage rate and the employment level in the flour industry will increase.

79.

Other things remaining the same, which of the following is likely to happen if an industry introduces labor-complementary technology in production?

a)

There will be a fall in the wage rate and a rise in the employment level in the industry.

b)

There will be a rise in the wage rate and a fall in the employment level in the industry.

c)

There will be a fall in both the wage rate and the employment level in the industry.

d)

There will be a rise in both the wage rate and the employment level in the industry.

80.

Which of the following does NOT cause a shift in the supply curve of labor in an industry?

a)

The population of the concerned region

b)

Workers' tastes and preferences

c)

Opportunity costs faced by the workers

d)

The price of the final good that labor produces

81.

A person's stock of skills to produce economic value is referred to as ________.

a)

human capital

b)

personal wealth

c)

personal capital

d)

fixed capital

82.

A compensating wage differential is a wage premium paid to ________.

a)

attract workers to otherwise undesirable occupations

b)

attract workers who have a family to support

c)

improve the goodwill of a firm hiring workers

d)

recognize a more efficient employee

83.

If a firm pays married women less than other individuals with the same human capital (e.g., the same productivity), this is an example of ________.

a)

taste-based discrimination

b)

statistical discrimination

c)

compensating wage differential

d)

none of the above

84.

Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between taste-based discrimination and statistical discrimination?

a)

Employers engaging in taste-based discrimination are willing to forgo profits, whereas employers engaging in statistical discrimination are trying to enhance profits.

b)

Employers engaging in statistical discrimination are willing to forgo profits, whereas employers engaging in taste-based discrimination are trying to enhance profits.

c)

Taste-based discrimination is observed in the service sector, whereas statistical discrimination is observed in the manufacturing sector.

d)

Taste-based discrimination is observed in the manufacturing sector, whereas statistical discrimination is observed in the service sector.

85.

Technological changes that increase the productivity of skilled workers relative to that of unskilled workers are referred to as ________ technological changes.

a)

labor-complementary

b)

labor-saving

c)

unskilled-biased

d)

skill-biased

86.

If the rental price of physical capital falls, the firm's ________.

a)

demand for physical capital will increase

b)

quantity demanded of physical capital will increase

c)

quantity demanded of physical capital will fall

d)

demand for physical capital will fall


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