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Worksheets

ELECS 19

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When a PN junction is forward biased, what happens to the depletion region?

a)

The depletion region decreases

b)

The depletion region increases

c)

The depletion region disappears

d)

The depletion region remains the same

2.

When the reverse bias on a varactor is increased, what happens to the effective capacitors?

a)

Capacitance increases

b)

Capacitance decreases

c)

Capacitance remains the same

d)

Temperature coefficient increases

3.

In a reverse biased PN-junction, which current carriers cause leakage current?

a)

The majority carriers

b)

The minority carriers

c)

The majority and minority carriers

d)

Either the majority or minority carriers

4.

The action of a PN-junction during breakdown can be explained by what two theories?

a)

Zener effect and avalanche effect

b)

Zener and flywheel effects

c)

Avalanche and flywheel effects

d)

Zener and miller effects

5.

Which breakdown theory explains the action that takes place in a heavily doped PN-junction with a reverse bias of less than 5 volts?

a)

Miller effect

b)

Zener effect

c)

Avalanche effect

d)

Flywheel effect

6.

In SCR, the anode current is made up of

a)

Electrons

b)

Holes

c)

Electrons and holes

d)

Positive ions

7.

What is the most popular oscillator configuration for audio application?

a)

Wien bridge oscillator

b)

Hartley oscillator

c)

Colpitt’s oscillator

d)

Tuned oscillator

8.

The suppressor grid is added to a tetrode to reduce what undesirable characteristic of tetrode operation?

a)

Primary emission

b)

Secondary emission

c)

Tertiary emission

d)

Quaternary emission

9.

What type of bias requires constant current flow through the cathode circuit of a triode?

a)

Anode biasing

b)

Cathode biasing

c)

Fixed biasing

d)

Self biasing

10.

How are computers classified?

a)

Technology

b)

Purpose

c)

Data they handle

d)

All of the choices

11.

Mechanical computers are considered to be of what type?

a)

Analog

b)

Special

c)

Digital

d)

General

12.

In a general-purpose computer, the ability to perform a wide variety of operations is achieved at the expense of what capabilities?

a)

Speed and accuracy

b)

Speed and memory capacity

c)

Speed and efficiency

d)

Speed and versatility

13.

All analog computers are what type of computers?

a)

Special-purpose

b)

Mechanical

c)

Electromechanical

d)

First generation

14.

What are analog computers deigned to measure?

a)

Electrical quantities

b)

Physical quantities

c)

Natural quantities

d)

Continuous electrical or physical conditions

15.

Early analog computers were what type of devices?

a)

Mechanical or electromechanical

b)

Sold state type

c)

Vacuum type

d)

Electrical

16.

What are computers called that combine the functions of both analog and digital computers?

a)

Versatile computers

b)

Hybrid computers

c)

Anadigi computers

d)

Mainframe computers

17.

Which on is the first generation of IC op-amps?

a)

Fair child 709

b)

Texas instrument 709

c)

Motorola 709

d)

National semiconductor 709

18.

What is the most basic type of filter?

a)

The capacitor filter

b)

Inductor filter

c)

LC filter

d)

Mechanical filter

19.

What is the range of values usually chosen for a choke?

a)

From 20 to 100 H

b)

From 1 to 20 H

c)

From 1 to 10 H

d)

From 10 to 20 H

20.

What is the ripple frequency of a full-wave rectifier with an input frequency of 60 Hz?

a)

120 Hz

b)

60 Hz

c)

240 Hz

d)

360 Hz

21.

A standard programming language of the U.S. defence department similar to Pascal.

a)

Ada

b)

C++

c)

BASIC

d)

RPG

22.

The electron tube replaces what component in an electron tube voltage regulator?

a)

ariable inductor

b)

Variable resistor

c)

Variable capacitor

d)

Transistor

23.

Which of the following is referred to as organized data?

a)

Source

b)

Input

c)

Information

d)

Output

24.

What is the common mode rejection ratio of an ideal differential amplifier?

a)

Infinity

b)

Less than unity

c)

Unity

d)

Zero

25.

The type of feedback used to improve the fidelity of an amplifier and to increase its frequency response.

a)

Fidelity feedback

b)

Positive feedback

c)

Unwanted feedback

d)

Negative feedback

26.

A negatively charge atom is sometimes called ______.

a)

Electron

b)

Anion

c)

Cation

d)

Ion

27.

If the magnitude of the potential difference is generated by a single conductor passing through a magnetic field, which of the following statements is false?

a)

The potential difference depends on the speed with which the conductor cuts the magnetic field

b)

The potential difference depends on the length of the conductor that cuts the magnetic field

c)

The potential difference depends on the magnetic field density that is present

d)

The potential difference depends on the diameter of the conductor that cuts the magnetic field

28.

LEDs normally work on a voltage from

a)

1 to 2 V

b)

10 to 20 V

c)

2 to 5 V

d)

3 to 6 V

29.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

An ideal current source cannot be in parallel with a short circuit

b)

An ideal voltage source can be in parallel with an open circuit

c)

An ideal current source can be in series with an open circuit

d)

An ideal voltage source cannot be in series with an ideal current source

30.

What is the average power dissipated by an electric heater with resistance of 50 Ω drawing a current of 20sin (30t) A?

a)

0 kW

b)

14.14 kW

c)

10 kW

d)

20 kW

31.

What measurements are required to determine the phase angle of a single-phase circuit?

a)

The power in watts consumed by the circuit

b)

The frequency, capacitance and inductance

c)

The power in watts, voltage and current

d)

The resistance, current and voltage

32.

The conductance and inductive susceptance of a circuit have the same magnitude. What is the power factor of the circuit?

a)

1

b)

0.5

c)

0.707

d)

0.866

33.

A circuit has a resonant frequency of 455 kHz and a bandwidth of 57.2 kHz. Find the Q of the circuit.

a)

795

b)

0.795

c)

79.5

d)

7.95

34.

A semiconductor logic output which pulls neither to a high nor a low voltage state.

a)

Logic 1

b)

Logic 0

c)

Floating state

d)

Limbo

35.

An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes?

a)

Doping process

b)

Thermal energy

c)

Ionization

d)

Radiant flux

36.

Refers to a field surrounding electrons and protons at stationary period indicating a stored energy.

a)

Magnetic field

b)

Electron field

c)

Electrostatic field

d)

Electrodynamic field

37.

The time required to complete one cycle of a waveform.

a)

Wavetime

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

38.

Lines of flux that do not follow the intended path

a)

Flux loss

b)

Inductance leakage

c)

Leakage flux

d)

Hysteresis loss

39.

What consist of elements inseparably associated and formed on a single substrate?

a)

Micro-circuit

b)

Module

c)

Integrated circuit

d)

PCB

40.

What determines whether a substance is an insulator or a conductor?

a)

Number of protons

b)

Number of photons

c)

Number of valence electrons

d)

Number of neutrons

41.

What do you call the space between and around charged bodies?

a)

Magnetic field

b)

Electromagnetic field

c)

Electromotive field

d)

Electrostatic field

42.

What electrical quantity is measured by a watt-hour meter?

a)

Current

b)

Voltage

c)

Energy

d)

Power

43.

What do you call the process of converting chemical energy into electrical energy in a cell?

a)

Electron flow

b)

Polarization

c)

Electrolysis

d)

Electrochemical action

44.

A transformer has 500 turns in the primary and 1500 in the secondary, assuming no losses, if 45 V is applied to the primary, what is the voltage developed in the secondary?

a)

13.5 V

b)

135 V

c)

180 V

d)

90 V

45.

What do you call the maintenance of oscillation in a circuit in the intervals between pulses of excitation energy?

a)

Auto-oscillation

b)

Flywheel effect

c)

Damping

d)

Feedback

46.

Which one of the following can be used to generate a pulse whenever triggered?

a)

Flip flop

b)

Monostable multivibrator

c)

Stable multivibrator

d)

Schmitt trigger

47.

What is energy of motion called?

a)

Potential energy

b)

Pneumatics

c)

Kinematics

d)

Kinetic energy

48.

A fully charged lead-acid battery will indicate a specific gravity reading between ___.

a)

1.175 to 1.200

b)

1.225 to 1.250

c)

1.200 to 1.225

d)

1.275 to 1.300

49.

An effect about microwave oscillation that occurs in a small block of N-type gallium arsenide when a constant DC voltage above a critical value is applied to contact on opposite faces.

a)

Gunn effect

b)

Edison effect

c)

Mossbauer effect

d)

Miller effect

50.

What is the most influential factor in the switching speed of saturated bipolar transistor?

a)

Charge storage

b)

hte

c)

Collector current

d)

hie