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Milk Technology

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 3hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Milk shall contain not less than _________% of milk fat and __________% non-fat milk solids.

a)

3.25; 8.5

b)

3.25; 5.0

c)

3.5; 8.5

d)

3.5; 5.0

2.

To extend the shelf life of fresh milk, food manufacturer can ____________.

a)

apply heat treatment

b)

apply irradiation treatment

c)

add permitted preservative

d)

add permitted anti-microbial agent

3.

Which of the following has similar milk fat content as fresh milk?

a)

Skim milk

b)

Buttermilk

c)

Full cream milk

d)

Coconut milk

4.

What is the function of Phosphatase Test in dairy industry?

a)

Use as an indicator for freshness of the milk

b)

Use as an indicator that milk has been held at the correct temperature and for the correct time to be fully pasteurised.

c)

Use as an indicator that milk has been held at the correct temperature and for the correct time to be fully sterilised.

d)

Use as an indicator for safety of the milk

5.

Reductase Test is widely used in the milk industry. It is generally assumed that the ___________ the number of bacteria in milk, the ___________ will the oxygen be consumed, and in turn the __________ will the colour disappear.

a)

greater; quicker; sooner

b)

greater; slower; later

c)

greater; quicker; later

d)

greater; slower; sooner

6.

Which of the following milk product is NOT allowed to be homogenised?

a)

Pasteurised milk

b)

Sterilised milk

c)

Fresh milk

d)

Flavoured milk

7.

Skim milk shall be milk from which ____________ has been removed.

a)

lactose

b)

water

c)

casein

d)

milk fat

8.

Low-fat milk shall contain not more than _________ of milk fat.

a)

1.5 g/100 mL

b)

1.0 g/100 mL

c)

0.5 g/100 mL

d)

0.1 g/100 mL

9.

The condition used to sterilise milk render it commercially sterile. Choose the best definition for "commercially sterile".

a)

Any condition which is free of all types of microorganisms including spores.

b)

Any condition which is free of viable microorganisms including spores of public health significance and microorganisms capable of reproducing in the food under normal conditions of storage and distribution.

c)

Any condition which is free of viable microorganisms including spores of public health significance and microorganisms capable of reproducing in the food under low temperature storage.

d)

Any condition which is free of viable microorganisms of commercial interest.

10.

For pasteurised flavoured milk, permitted colouring and flavouring substances are usually added prior to pasteurisation. What is the condition required if these additives are to be added after pasteurisation?

a)

These additives are to be added immediately after pasteurisation before cooling.

b)

These additives are to be added immediately before the flavoured milk is packed into final containers.

c)

These additives must be sterilised and to be added immediately before the flavoured milk is packed into final containers.

d)

It is not possible to add these additives after pasteurisation.

11.

Skim milk powder shall not contain more than ________% of milk fat.

a)

1.5

b)

1.0

c)

0.5

d)

0.1

12.

To stabilise the emulsion of recombined milk, food manufacturers are allowed to use ___________ , which act as an emulsifier.

a)

lecithin

b)

sucralose

c)

whey protein

d)

calcium chloride

13.

______________ may be added to flavoured milk as permitted sweetening substance __________________________.

a)

Saccharin, not less than 0.5%

b)

Aspartame; not exceeding 10 ppm

c)

Sucralose; not exceeding 300 ppm

d)

Acesulfame potassium, according to GMP

14.

Reconstituted milk shall be the liquid product prepared by the addition of ___________ to ______________.

a)

water; skim milk

b)

water; full cream milk

c)

milk; skim milk

d)

water; low-fat milk

15.

_______________ shall be a product which is general composition, characteristic and intended use is similar to milk and in which the milk fat has been replaced wholly or partly by an equivalent amount of edible vegetable oil or/and edible fat.

a)

Coconut milk

b)

Soymilk

c)

Filled milk

d)

Filtered milk

16.

Lactose hydrolysed milk shall be the product made from milk treated with __________ to give a low lactose milk, containing ___________ and ____________.

a)

lactase; glucose; galactose

b)

lactase; glucose; maltose

c)

amylase; glucose; galactose

d)

lactase; glucose; fructose

17.

Besides using enzymatic approach, lactose in milk can also be removed using ___________________.

a)

ultrafiltration

b)

milk separator

c)

centrifugation

d)

dialysis

18.

Which of the following is NOT classified under dairy products in Food Regulations 1985.

a)

Infant formula

b)

Formulated milk powder for children

c)

Filled milk powder

d)

Cheese powder

19.

Milk separator is a device that removes cream from whole milk. As a result, the whole milk is divided into a __________ and _________ after separation

a)

cream; skim milk

b)

milk fat; water

c)

milk fat; buttermilk

d)

milk fat; non-fat milk solids

20.

Which of the following is NOT a concern pathogenic microorganism in milk?

a)

Bacillus cereus

b)

Listeria monocytogenes

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Yersinia enterocolitica

21.

Which of the following would be classified as a “hard cheese”?

a)

Brick

b)

Monterey Jack

c)

Cheddar

d)

Brie

22.

An example of an extra hard cheese is ___________.

a)

Parmesan

b)

Muenster

c)

Ricotta

d)

Brie

23.

Which of the following is an example of "soft cheese"?

a)

Cheddar

b)

Swiss

c)

Brick

d)

Cottage

24.

Of the 14 cheese varieties, which has a tangy peppery flavour, is crumbly and pasty, has a white interior with veins of mould that are marbled or streaked?

a)

Muenster

b)

Edam/gouda

c)

Swiss

d)

Blue

25.

To add the mould to the blue cheese, it is mainly ________.

a)

injected into the cheese

b)

grown on the cheese

c)

mixed in the whey mixture

d)

none of the mentioned

26.

Blue Cheese mould is __________.

a)

Penicillium roqueforti

b)

Stachybotrys chartarum

c)

Aspergillus niger

d)

Penicillium camemberti

27.

Whey is the by-product in the manufacture of ______________.

a)

skimmed milk

b)

butter

c)

cheese

d)

yogurt

28.

What dairy product is made by heating milk along with a substance called rennet?

a)

Milk

b)

Curd

c)

Cheese

d)

Butter

29.

Which bacteria is responsible for ripening Emmenthal cheese?

a)

Lactobacillus helveticus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus

b)

Lactobacillus acidophilus

c)

Bifidobacteria

d)

Streptococcus diacetylactis

30.

Which bacteria are also known as “The cheese destroyer”?

a)

Propionic acid bacteria

b)

Coliform

c)

Lactic acid bacteria

d)

Butyric acid bacteria

31.

Which one is used as an emulsifying agent in process cheese blend?

a)

Paprika

b)

Pectin

c)

Glycerides

d)

Whey powder

32.

The “eyes” in swiss cheese are formed by the growth of which of the following microorganism?

a)

Leuconostoc

b)

Propionibacterium

c)

Streptococcus

d)

Lactobacillus

33.

Propionic acid bacteria (propionibacteria), notably Propionibacterium freudenreichii subsp. shermanii transform lactic acid into _______________ and ________________.

a)

water; carbon dioxide

b)

propionic acid; carbon dioxide

c)

lactose; water

d)

ethanol; carbon dioxide

34.

_________________ is the process of removal of microorganisms from milk using centrifugal force. It is a special form of separation of microorganisms, mainly spore formers (Bacilli/Clostridia) to enable milk to be sterilised at lower temperature-time combinations. This process is used mainly in cheese processing.

a)

Fumigation

b)

Bactofugation

c)

Filtration

d)

Mitigation

35.

Which of the followings is NOT principal types of culture used in cheesemaking?

a)

Mesophilic cultures

b)

Thermophilic cultures

c)

Psychrophilic cultures

d)

Adjunct cultures

36.

Which of the followings is NOT characteristic abilities of starter cultures of primary importance in cheesemaking?

a)

Produce carbon dioxide

b)

Produce lactic acid

c)

Break down protein

d)

Break down fat

37.

Except for fresh cheese types such as cottage cheese and quarg, in which the milk is clotted mainly by lactic acid, all cheese manufacture depends upon formation of curd by the action of ________________.

a)

rennet

b)

amylase

c)

lipase

d)

diastase

38.

_______________ is an important process during cheesemaking, whereby it defines the flavour and texture of the cheese, which differentiates the many varieties. The duration of this process is dependent on the type of cheese and the desired quality, and typically ranges from 3 weeks to 2 or more years.

a)

Curdling

b)

Storage

c)

Ripening

d)

Salting

39.

After renneting or coagulation, the coagulated curd mass (also known as _______________) was cut to initiates the moisture/whey loss from the soon-to-be cheese.

a)

lump

b)

cake

c)

agglomerate

d)

coagulum

40.

Cottage cheese is a soft, unripened cheese with approximately _____% moisture content.

a)

20

b)

50

c)

80

d)

90

41.

“Cultured” in front of the name of a milk product indicates _________.

a)

product is older and more mature

b)

product is highly refined

c)

product has appropriate bacteria added to it

d)

marketing gimmick

42.

__________ is a dairy product resulting from the culturing of a mixture of milk and cream products, with lactic acid producing bacteria.

a)

Ice cream

b)

Yogurt

c)

Gelato

d)

Cream

43.

Yogurt is manufactured from fresh, whole, low fat or skim milk that is heated before fermentation. However, Food Regulations 1985 require yogurt to have a minimum of _____ acidity.

a)

0.4%

b)

0.5%

c)

0.6%

d)

1.0%

44.

Low-fat yogurt must have a minimum of _______ fat and a maximum of ________fat.

a)

0.15%, 1.5%

b)

0.15%, 3.0%

c)

0.16%, 1.5%

d)

0.16%, 3.0%

45.

Yogurt is made from ________.

a)

Lactobacillus bulgaricus

b)

Streptococcus thermophilus

c)

Streptococcus cremoris

d)

Mixed culture of Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus

46.

What is the typical incubation temperature used for yogurt making?

a)

4 – 8 ℃

b)

28 – 33 ℃

c)

40 – 45 ℃

d)

45 – 50 ℃

47.

Yogurt producers cease incubation once a specific pH level is reached. Most producers have a set point between pH __________ in which fermentation is arrested by rapid cooling.

a)

3.5 and 4.0

b)

4.0 and 4.6

c)

4.5 and 5.0

d)

5.0 and 5.6

48.

As the pH of the milk base drops 4·6, the net negative charge on the casein micelles ____________, the rate of solubilised colloidal calcium phosphate ____________ leading to the removal of the ‘hairy’ layer of k-casein.

a)

decreases, increases

b)

decreases, decreases

c)

increases, increases

d)

increases, decreases

49.

During incubation, bacterial cultures convert ___________ in milk to ____________.

a)

glucose, lactic acid

b)

lactose, lactic acid

c)

lactose, malic acid

d)

maltose, malic acid

50.

What is the predominant culture found in yogurt after incubation completes?

a)

Streptococcus thermophilus

b)

Lactobacillus bulgaricus

c)

Both Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus

d)

There is no culture in yogurt after incubation

51.

Denature protein contributes to an improvement in the quality of which of the following products?

a)

Cultured milk product

b)

Milk

c)

Ice cream

d)

Cream

52.

During yogurt making, pasteurisation aids in the initiation of gelation. How?

a)

Whey protein denaturation

b)

Complexation between whey proteins

c)

Complexation between whey protein and casein micelles

d)

All of the above

53.

Standardisation of the milk solids-non-fat (MSNF) during yogurt making can be achieve using the following methods


I. Concentration process

II. Membrane process

III. Addition of dairy ingredients

a)

III only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I, II, and III

54.

The objective of standardisation of the milk solids-non-fat (MSNF) during yogurt making is to standardise ______________ content.

a)

protein

b)

minerals

c)

lactose

d)

carbohydrate

55.

Which of the dairy ingredients are NOT used during standardisation of the milk solids-non-fat (MSNF) of yogurt?

a)

skim milk powder

b)

whey proteins

c)

caseins / caseinates

d)

cream

56.

Set yogurt is formed during incubation in ______________.

a)

vat pasteuriser

b)

fermentation tank

c)

retail cup

d)

mixing tank

57.

Stirred yogurt is formed during incubation in ______________.

a)

vat pasteuriser

b)

fermentation tank

c)

retail cup

d)

mixing tank

58.

_______________ is yogurt that has been strained to remove most of its whey, resulting in a thicker consistency than unstrained yogurt, while preserving yogurt's distinctive sour taste.

a)

Stirred yogurt

b)

Set yogurt

c)

Greek yogurt

d)

Yogurt drink

59.

Yogurt textural characteristics are affected by


I. temperature and time of heat treatment

II. type and amount of starter bacteria

III. temperature of fermentation

IV. storage conditions

V. protein composition of the milk base

a)

I, II, and III

b)

I, III, and IV

c)

II and V

d)

All of the above

60.

Which of the followings are considered physical defects of yogurt?


I. Pale colour

II. Poor gel firmness

III. Syneresis

IV. Bubble formation

V. Low protein content

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I, II, and III

d)

II, III, and V

61.

What form of milk is made by the churning of whipping cream?

a)

Cream

b)

Ghee

c)

Curd

d)

Butter

62.

Buttermilk is a fluid product resulting from the manufacture of ______________.

a)

Cheese

b)

Yogurt

c)

Ice cream

d)

Butter

63.

Buttermilk is the product resulting from ___________.

a)

an addition of extra fat to raw fluid milk

b)

removal of the butter (fat particles) form raw fluid milk

c)

heating of both butter and milk to facilitate the blending of them together

d)

artificial product produced using non-saturated vegetable oil

64.

Legal butter must contain at least what percentage of fat?

a)

70%

b)

80%

c)

90%

d)

95%

65.

At refrigerated temperatures, the butter will begin to lose some of its natural flavour after how long?

a)

Within 2 months

b)

Within 6 months

c)

Within 1 year

d)

Butter will not lose its natural flavour when stored properly

66.

Changing whole milk to butter is a process of transforming a ____________ emulsion (milk) to a _______________ emulsion (butter).

a)

water-in-fat; fat-in-water

b)

fat-in-water; water-in-fat

c)

fat-in-water; Air-in-fat-in-water

d)

water-in-fat; Air-in-fat

67.

What is a milk fat product with fat content between 62 and 80%?

a)

Butter

b)

Dairy spread

c)

Fat spread

d)

Blended spread

68.

What is a product with fat content similar to butter, but made mainly from edible fat or edible oil?

a)

Margarine

b)

Ghee

c)

Fat spread

d)

Vanaspati

69.

Yellow colour of butter can be attributed to which of the following?

a)

Carotene

b)

Anthocyanin

c)

Sunset yellow

d)

Chlorophyll

70.

Butter made of cream from buffalo milk is ___________, as buffalo milk ________________.

a)

green, contains chlorophyll

b)

yellow, contains carotenoids

c)

pale pink, contains anthocyanin

d)

white, does not contain carotenoids

71.

Ripening tanks of butter cream come under which of the following categories?

a)

Process tank

b)

Mixing tank

c)

Balance tank

d)

Storage tank

72.

Churning physically agitates the cream until it ruptures the fragile membranes surrounding the milk fat. Once broken, the fat droplets can ________________.

a)

dissolve carotene and turn butter into yellow colour

b)

separate and form a layer at the top

c)

join with each other and form clumps of fat

d)

surround air and form bubbles

73.

Working takes place when the buttermilk has been drained off. The butter grains are pressed and squeezed to remove the ______________ between them.

a)

air

b)

cream

c)

carotenoids

d)

moisture

74.

_____________ is butter with almost all of its water and milk solids removed, leaving almost-pure butterfat.

a)

Clarified butter

b)

Ghee

c)

Vanaspati

d)

Dairy spread

75.

_________________ is clarified butter that has been heated to around 120 °C after the water evaporated, turning the milk solids brown.

a)

Vanaspati

b)

Dairy spread

c)

Ghee

d)

Margarine

76.

The wrapping material for butter must be _______________.

a)

impervious to light

b)

impervious to flavouring and aromatic substances

c)

impermeable to moisture

d)

All of the above

77.

Butter is usually wrapped in _________________.

a)

paper

b)

aluminium foil

c)

high-density polyethylene (HDPE)

d)

polyethylene terephthalate (PET)

78.

Which of the followings are the role of salt in butter?


I. Impart salty taste to the butter

II. Stabilise the water-in-fat emulsion

III. Prolong shelf life of the butter

IV. Improve the yellow colour of butter by reacting with carotene

a)

II and IV

b)

I and III

c)

II, III, and IV

d)

All of the above

79.

What is the additional step required in the making of butter when milk is used as raw material?

a)

Homogenisation

b)

Separation

c)

Pasteurisation

d)

Filtration

80.

Prevention of the development of psychrotrophic bacteria in milk is critical for butter. This is achieve by chilling the raw material to 2 – 4 °C immediately on arrival at the dairy and store it at that temperature until it is pasteurised. Why?

a)

Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains produce spores which can survive pasteurisation

b)

Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains will survive pasteurisation and cause spoilage to the butter during storage

c)

Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains produce lipolytic enzymes which can break down the fat

d)

Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains produce pigment that will cause discolouration to the butter

81.

The major component in milk is _______.

a)

water

b)

protein

c)

fat

d)

lactose

82.

As it comes from a cow, the solids portion of milk contains approximately 3.7% fat and ____% solids-not-fat.

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

83.

Milk contains 87% water and the rest is solids and fats. Which of the following is not included as milk solid?

a)

Protein

b)

Water

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Milk fat

84.

Cow’s milk contains _____ lactose.

a)

3%

b)

4%

c)

5%

d)

6%

85.

Which of the following has the largest particle size in milk?

a)

Lactose

b)

Casein micelles

c)

Fat globule

d)

Minerals

86.

The primary milk carbohydrate is ____________.

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Lactose

87.

Lactose has water solubility of __________.

a)

100 g/mL

b)

50 g/mL

c)

20 g/mL

d)

5 g/mL

88.

The primary protein in milk is ____________.

a)

Casein

b)

Myosin

c)

Lysine

d)

Albumin

89.

Casein cannot be classified as _________.

a)

α-casein

b)

β-casein

c)

κ-casein

d)

𝛿-casein

90.

The two main proteins in milk are ____ and ____.

a)

casein, melamin

b)

casein, lactalbumin

c)

casein, albumin

d)

casein, gluten

91.

The whey proteins in milk constitute about _____% of the protein found in milk.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

18

d)

20

92.

Milk is a good source of all water-soluble vitamins except for _____.

a)

Cyanocobalamin (Vit. B12)

b)

Riboflavin (Vit. B2)

c)

Thiamine (Vit. B1)

d)

Ascorbic acid (Vit. C)

93.

Yellowish tinge in milk can be attributed to which of the following?

a)

Carotene

b)

Riboflavin

c)

Metalin

d)

Sunset yellow

94.

pH of normal milk is _____ at 25℃.

a)

4.0

b)

4.3

c)

6.6

d)

9.0

95.

The first milk the cow produces after calving is called __________.

a)

lactate

b)

cream

c)

colostrum

d)

skim milk

96.

Colostrum has a higher percentage of what nutrients than normal milk?

a)

Protein

b)

Vitamin A and energy

c)

Minerals

d)

All of the above

97.

What is the freezing point of milk?

a)

0 °C

b)

-0.55 °C

c)

-1 °C

d)

-1.55 °C

98.

Freezing point helps to check which of the following adulteration in milk?

a)

Sugar adulteration

b)

Water adulteration

c)

Gas adulteration

d)

Colour adulteration

99.

Milk from a cow with mastitis will have__________.

a)

abnormal freezing point

b)

a high somatic cell count

c)

both abnormal freezing point and a high somatic cell count

d)

none of the above

100.

The leading cause of high bacteria counts in raw milk is _________.

a)

younger cows

b)

older cows

c)

poor sanitation

d)

bovine somatotropin (BST)

101.

Which of the following is NOT the reason for the concentration of food liquids?

a)

Reduce the cost of drying

b)

Induce crystallization

c)

Reduce costs for storage and transportation

d)

Increase water activity in order to increase microbiological and chemical

102.

Evaporation in dairy industry is a preliminary step to which of the following process?

a)

Drying

b)

Standardisation

c)

Homogenisation

d)

Pasteurisation

103.

Evaporation in dairy industry is done under __________.

a)

vacuum

b)

heater

c)

dryer

d)

pasteuriser

104.

_________________ is the usual evaporator used to produce evaporated/condensed milk.

a)

Agitated thin film evaporator

b)

Forced circulation evaporator

c)

Rising film evaporator

d)

Multistage falling-film evaporator

105.

Evaporators in the dairy industry do NOT concentrate which of the following?

a)

Whole and skimmed milk

b)

Whey

c)

Condensed milk

d)

Cheese

106.

Evaporated milk is a shelf-stable canned cow's milk product where about _________% of the water has been removed from fresh milk.

a)

50

b)

60

c)

70

d)

80

107.

Evaporated milk is concentrated to approximately what times the solid of normal whole milk?

a)

1.5 times

b)

2.3 times

c)

3.4 times

d)

4.5 times

108.

Sterilisation evaporated milk is performed at temperature between 110 – 120 °C for 15 – 20 min. This results in a light brown colouration, because of chemical reactions between the __________ and the ____________ (Maillard reaction or browning reaction).

a)

protein; lactose

b)

protein; sucrose

c)

milk fat; lactose

d)

milk fat; sucrose

109.

The major difference that sets condensed milk and evaporated milk apart is ____________ content.

a)

water

b)

protein

c)

fat

d)

sugar

110.

Sweetened condensed milk requires less processing to preserve since ________________________.

a)

it no longer contains nutrient to support bacterial growth

b)

the low moisture content inhibits bacterial growth

c)

the low pH inhibits bacterial growth

d)

the added sugar inhibits bacterial growth

111.

Which of the following is NOT important consideration for the manufacture of condensed milk?

a)

The number of spores in milk

b)

The number of heat-resistant bacteria in milk

c)

The discolouration of milk due to heat treatment

d)

The ability of the milk to tolerate intensive heat treatment without coagulating

112.

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

a)

Evaporated milk has less water than condensed milk.

b)

Both condensed milk and evaporated milk may have similar total milk solids.

c)

Condensed milk has a lower fat content than evaporated milk.

d)

Condensed milk comes in smaller size containers than evaporated milk

113.

_________________ is the most commonly used industrial process for particle formation and drying and has proven to be the most suitable process for drying of dairy products.

a)

Freeze drying

b)

Spray drying

c)

Hot air drying

d)

Drum drying

114.

Milk powder must have less than _____% moisture by weight.

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

115.

Milk powder can be stored for long periods of time _____________________.

a)

in refrigerated vaults

b)

at temperatures above 50 °C

c)

in an open container in the cabinet

d)

inside a sealed atmosphere of nitrogen or carbon dioxide

116.

____________________ shall be the liquid product prepared by the addition of water to full cream milk powder and shall be subjected to pasteurisation, sterilisation or UHT.

a)

Premixed milk

b)

Recombined milk

c)

Reconstituted milk

d)

Diluted milk

117.

________________ is usually added into milk powder to secure the desired emulsion stability, mouthfeel and particle suspension upon reconstitution.

a)

Sodium chloride

b)

Gellan

c)

Lecithin

d)

Sodium metabisulphite

118.

Skimmed milk powder has a maximum shelf life of about three years, while whole milk powder has a maximum shelf life of six months. Why?

a)

This is because whole milk powder is more susceptible to microbial spoilage

b)

This is because the fat in whole milk powder oxidises during storage, with consequent deterioration in flavour.

c)

This is because whole milk powder has higher microbial load

d)

No. Whole milk powder has same shelf life than skimmed milk powder

119.

In the 2008 Chinese milk scandal, _______________ adulterant was found in milk powder, added to fool tests into reporting higher _____________ content.

a)

melamine; protein

b)

whey; protein

c)

lactose; sugar

d)

vegetable fat; fat

120.

Cheese powder must have less than _____% moisture by weight.

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

121.

Destruction of which enzyme is used as an index of HTST pasteurization?

a)

Catalase

b)

Lipase

c)

Lactoperoxidase

d)

Amylase

122.

Tests for proper pasteurization are based on the activity of which enzyme?

a)

Lactase

b)

Diastase

c)

Phosphatase

d)

Catalase

123.

Which enzyme is tested for cream pasteurization?

a)

Plasmin

b)

Phosphatase

c)

Catalase

d)

Peroxidase

124.

The fat globules in milk when heated to 74℃ show which of the following phenomenon?

a)

Frothing

b)

Evaporation

c)

Cream plug formation

d)

Condensation

125.

What is the result of heat treatment on milk proteins?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Blanching

c)

Froth formation

d)

Creaming

126.

Denature protein contributes to an improvement in the quality of which of the following milk products?

a)

Cultured milk product

b)

Skimmed milk

c)

Ice cream

d)

Cream

127.

What is the effect of heat treatment (temperature above 100℃) on lactose?

a)

Greenish colour

b)

Bluish colour

c)

Brownish colour

d)

Reddish colour

128.

The lactulose content ______ with increased intensity of the heat treatment.

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

remains same

d)

first increase and then decrease

129.

What is the effect of pasteurization on vitamins in milk?

a)

Great loss

b)

Little or no loss

c)

Increase

d)

Sublime

130.

Which of the following mineral is affected by heat treatment in milk?

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium hydroxyphosphate

d)

Zinc

131.

Temperatures above 65° C _______ viscosity of skim milk.

a)

parabolic decrease

b)

linear decrease

c)

constant

d)

increase

132.

Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for thermisation?

a)

72 to 74 °C for 15 to 20 sec

b)

135 to 140 °C for 2 to 4 sec

c)

63 °C for 30 min

d)

57 to 68 °C for 15 sec

133.

Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for LTST pasteurization?

a)

72 to 74 °C for 15 to 20 sec

b)

135 to 140 °C for 2 to 4 sec

c)

63 °C for 30 min

d)

57 to 68 °C for 15 min

134.

Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for HTST pasteurization?

a)

72 to 74 °C for 15 to 20 sec

b)

135 to 140 °C for 2 to 4 sec

c)

63 °C for 30 min

d)

57 to 68 °C for 15 min

135.

Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for UHT pasteurization?

a)

72 to 74 °C for 15 to 20 sec

b)

135 to 140 °C for 2 to 4 sec

c)

63 °C for 30 min

d)

57 to 68 °C for 15 min

136.

Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for sterilisation?

a)

72 to 74 °C for 15 to 20 sec

b)

135 to 140 °C for 2 to 4 sec

c)

63 °C for 30 min

d)

115 – 120 °C for some 20 – 30 min

137.

What is the method of using the heat of a hot liquid, such as pasteurized milk, to preheat cold incoming milk?

a)

Heating

b)

Cooling

c)

Regeneration

d)

Standardization

138.

Zigzag tube in heat treatment is used for which purpose?

a)

Reduce fouling

b)

Mixing of milk

c)

Holding for a long holding time

d)

Discard unwanted milk

139.

Which heat exchanger used for heating and cooling viscous, sticky and lumpy products?

a)

Plate heat exchanger

b)

Tubular heat exchanger

c)

Scraped surface heat exchanger

d)

Spray dryer

140.

The unwanted build-up of material on a surface is called?

a)

Secretion

b)

Plating

c)

Fouling

d)

Layering

141.

The process of raising or lowering the percent of fat in milk or cream to the desired standard is called?

a)

Enrichment

b)

Fortification

c)

Standardisation

d)

Addition/Elimination

142.

Standardization of milk involved which of the following?

a)

Adjustment of fat content

b)

Breakdown of protein

c)

Whitish appearance of milk

d)

Increase in nutritional content of milk

143.

Which of the following method is used in a standardization of milk?

a)

Pearson square method

b)

Donald cube method

c)

Kjeldahl method

d)

Bradford method

144.

Whole milk with 3.9% fat and skimmed milk with 0.04% fat content were used to produce standardised milk with 2.5% fat? How much skimmed milk do you need to produce 2,000 kg of the standardised milk?

a)

725.4 kg

b)

825.4 kg

c)

925.4 kg

d)

715.4 kg

145.

Whole milk with 3.9% fat and skimmed milk with 0.04% fat content were used to produce standardised milk with 2.5% fat? How much whole milk do you need to produce 2,000 kg of the standardised milk?

a)

1,374.6 kg

b)

1,274.6 kg

c)

1,474.6 kg

d)

1,247.6 kg

146.

500 kg of whole milk with 6.5% fat to be standardised to 3.1% fat using skim milk containing 0.05% fat. Therefore, the quantity of skim milk required to be added to 500 kg whole milk will be?

a)

557.38 kg

b)

440.58 kg

c)

575.38 kg

d)

404.58 kg

147.

Which of the following standardisation is more desirable in large-scale operation?

a)

Continuous standardisation

b)

Batch standardisation

c)

No standardisation

d)

Partial standardisation

148.

Disruption of fat globules into much smaller fat globules is defined as ________.

a)

Standardisation

b)

Centrifugation

c)

Homogenisation

d)

Mixing

149.

Homogenization temperature applied normally are ________.

a)

30–40 ℃

b)

50–60 ℃

c)

60–70 ℃

d)

90–100 ℃

150.

Preferred homogenisation pressure is _______.

a)

5–15 MPa

b)

10–25 MPa

c)

25–50 MPa

d)

60–70 MPa

151.

Which of the following is the effect of homogenization on the appearance of milk?

a)

Dusty appearance

b)

Yellowish appearance

c)

Whitish appearance

d)

Transparency

152.

Homogenization has which of the following effects on the physiology of nutrition of milk?

a)

Improved digestibility

b)

Reduced digestibility

c)

Cholesterol

d)

No effect on physiology

153.

Homogenised milk show sensitivity to which enzyme?

a)

Lipases

b)

Tryptases

c)

Amylase

d)

Oxyin

154.

Which of the following packaging material should be used in order to avoid off flavor formation in homogenized milk?

a)

Transparent glass bottles

b)

Transparent pouches

c)

Transparent plastic bottles

d)

Opaque containers

155.

Storage of homogenised milk may lead to which of the following development?

a)

Sediment development

b)

Fat development

c)

Protein development

d)

Cream layer development

156.

In order to prevent sedimentation in homogenised milk which of the following measure prove effective?

a)

Heating of milk

b)

Pasteurisation of milk

c)

Concentration of milk

d)

Filtration/clarification of milk prior to homogenisation

157.

Main function of first stage of homogenisation is _______.

a)

fat globule reduction

b)

separation of clusters of fat into individual fat molecules

c)

oxidation

d)

off-flavour development

158.

Main function of second stage of homogenisation is _______.

a)

fat globule reduction

b)

separation of clusters of fat into individual fat molecules

c)

oxidation

d)

off flavour development

159.

Lack of homogenisation leads to which of the following developments?

a)

Cream layer development

b)

Protein development

c)

Astringency development

d)

Increased fat content

160.

Homogenization reduce the size of fat globules to which size?

a)

Less than 2 µm

b)

Less than 3 µm

c)

Less than 4 µm

d)

Less than 5 µm