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ELECS 38

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When does maximum power transfer happen from the source to the load?

a)

When the source resistance is greater than the load resistance

b)

When the source resistance is less than the load resistance

c)

When there is negligible source resistance

d)

When the source resistance equals the load resistance

2.

A transformer is plugged into a 120 V rms source and has a primary current of 300 mA rms. The secondary is providing 18 V across a 10Ω load. What is the efficiency of the transformer?

a)

88%

b)

90%

c)

92%

d)

95%

3.

The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45. The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH and the second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the mutual inductance between the coils?

a)

3.54 mH

b)

7.88 mH

c)

39.9 mH

d)

189.3 mH

4.

Increasing the number of turns of wire on the secondary of a transformer will

a)

increase the secondary current

b)

decrease the secondary current

c)

have no effect on the secondary current

d)

increase the primary current

5.

What is the turns ratio of the transformer needed to match a 1 kΩ source resistance to a 160Ω load?

a)

2.5:1

b)

0.4:1

c)

6.25:1

d)

16:1

6.

What is the secondary voltage in the given circuit?

a)

13.3 V rms in phase with the primary

b)

120 V rms in phase with the primary

c)

13.3 V rms out of phase with the primary

d)

120 V rms out of phase with the primary

7.

The transformer turns ratio determines

a)

the ratio of primary and secondary voltages

b)

the ratio of primary and secondary currents

c)

the reflected impedance

d)

all of the above

8.

Mutual induction is dependent on

a)

winding ratios

b)

output polarities

c)

dc voltage levels

d)

current changes

9.

What is the current through the load in the given circuit?

a)

500 μA

b)

10 mA

c)

250 mA

d)

1.25 A

10.

What is the power dissipated in the primary of the transformer in the given circuit?

a)

25 mW

b)

500 mW

c)

12.5 W

d)

62.5 W

11.

A special transformer used to convert unbalanced signals to balanced signals is the

a)

balun

b)

autotransformer

c)

center-tapped transformer

d)

step-across transformer

12.

If the load doubled in value in the given circuit, what reflected resistance would the source see?

a)

80 Ω

b)

400 Ω

c)

2 kΩ

d)

10 kΩ

13.

If the primary power of an ideal transformer having a 2:1 voltage ratio is 100 W, the secondary power is

a)

100 W

b)

50 W

c)

75 W

d)

200 W

14.

A transformer has

a)

primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered inputs

b)

primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered outputs

c)

a primary winding used as an output and a secondary winding used as an input

d)

a primary winding used as an input and a secondary winding used as an output

15.

The primary function of the bias circuit is to

a)

hold the circuit stable at VCC

b)

hold the circuit stable at vin

c)

ensure proper gain is achieved

d)

hold the circuit stable at the designed Q-point

16.

A JFET

a)

is a current-controlled device

b)

has a low input resistance

c)

is a voltage-controlled device

d)

is always forward-biased

17.

A source follower has a voltage gain (Av) of

a)

AV = gmRd

b)

AV = gmRS

c)

AV=gmRs / (1+gmRs)

d)

AV=gmRd / (1+gmRd)

18.

The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a(n)

a)

coupling capacitor

b)

dc open

c)

bypass capacitor

d)

ac open

19.

The formula used to calculate the approximate ac resistance of the base-emitter diode (re) is

a)

re 25 mV / IE

b)

re 25 mV x Ic

c)

re 25 mV / IB

d)

re 25 mV / Ic

20.

The signal voltage gain of an amplifier, Av, is defined as:

a)

Av = Vin / Vout

b)

Av = Ic x Rc

c)

Av Rc / RE

d)

Av = Rc / RL

21.

In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to avoid

a)

crossover distortion

b)

unusually high efficiency

c)

negative feedback

d)

a low input impedance

22.

The depletion-mode MOSFET

a)

can operate with only positive gate voltages

b)

can operate with only negative gate voltage

c)

cannot operate in the ohmic region

d)

can operate with positive as well as negative gate voltages

23.

Three different points are shown on a dc load line. The upper point represents the

a)

minimum current gain

b)

quiescent point

c)

saturation point

d)

cutoff point

24.

Which of the following conditions are needed to properly bias an npn transistor amplifier?

a)

Forward bias the base/emitter junction and reverse bias the base/collector junction.

b)

Forward bias the collector/base junction and reverse bias the emitter/base junction.

c)

Apply a positive voltage on the n-type material and a negative voltage on the p-type material.

d)

Apply a large voltage on the base.

25.

Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function of this stage is to

a)

provide voltage gain

b)

buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load

c)

provide phase inversion

d)

provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response

26.

In order for feedback oscillators to have any practical value, the gain has to be

a)

< 1

b)

self-adjusting

c)

stabilized

d)

nonlinear

27.

To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, you must use a

a)

voltage divider

b)

source resistor

c)

ground

d)

negative gate supply voltage

28.

Intrinsic semiconductor material is characterized by a valence shell of how many electrons?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

29.

Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the:

a)

junction

b)

depletion region

c)

barrier voltage

d)

forward voltage

30.

What is the most significant development in electronics since World War II?

a)

the development of color TV

b)

the development of the diode

c)

the development of the transistor

d)

the development of the TRIAC

31.

What causes the depletion region?

a)

doping

b)

diffusion

c)

barrier potential

d)

ions

32.

What is an energy gap?

a)

the space between two orbital shells

b)

the energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron passing a 1 V electric field

c)

the energy band in which electrons can move freely

d)

an energy level at which an electron can exist

33.

Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a:

a)

covalent bond

b)

crystal

c)

semiconductor

d)

valence orbit

34.

In "n" type material, majority carriers would be:

a)

holes

b)

dopants

c)

slower

d)

electrons

35.

Elements with 1, 2, or 3 valence electrons usually make excellent:

a)

conductors

b)

semiconductors

c)

insulators

d)

neutral

36.

A commonly used pentavalent material is:

a)

arsenic

b)

boron

c)

gallium

d)

neon

37.

Which material may also be considered a semiconductor element?

a)

carbon

b)

ceramic

c)

mica

d)

argon

38.

In "p" type material, minority carriers would be:

a)

holes

b)

dopants

c)

slower

d)

electrons

39.

\What can a semiconductor sense?

a)

magnetism

b)

temperature

c)

pressure

d)

all of the above

40.

When an electron jumps from the valence shell to the conduction band, it leaves a gap. What is this gap called?

a)

energy gap

b)

hole

c)

electron-hole pair

d)

recombination

41.

Forward bias of a silicon P-N junction will produce a barrier voltage of approximately how many volts?

a)

0.2

b)

0.3

c)

0.7

d)

0.8

42.

Which semiconductor material is made from coal ash?

a)

germanium

b)

silicon

c)

tin

d)

carbon

43.

When and who discovered that more than one transistor could be constructed on a single piece of semiconductor material:

a)

1949, William Schockley

b)

1955, Walter Bratten

c)

1959, Robert Noyce

d)

1960, John Bardeen

44.

When is a P-N junction formed?

a)

in a depletion region

b)

in a large reverse biased region

c)

the point at which two opposite doped materials come together

d)

whenever there is a forward voltage drop

45.

A P-N junction mimics a closed switch when it:

a)

has a low junction resistance

b)

is reverse biased

c)

cannot overcome its barrier voltage

d)

has a wide depletion region

46.

Solid state devices were first manufactured during:

a)

World War 2

b)

1904

c)

1907

d)

1960

47.

Electron pair bonding occurs when atoms:

a)

lack electrons

b)

share holes

c)

lack holes

d)

share electrons

48.

How many valence electrons are in every semiconductor material?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

49.

What is a type of doping material?

a)

extrinsic semiconductor material

b)

pentavalent material

c)

n-type semiconductor

d)

majority carriers

50.

Minority carriers are many times activated by:

a)

heat

b)

pressure

c)

dopants

d)

forward bias