wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Ultimate Review AP HuG

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following examples shows extensive land use in agriculture?

a)

A cattle feedlot

b)

A greenhouse

c)

An egg-production facility

d)

A sheep ranch

e)

A backyard garden

2.

When a rural settlement pattern has homes close together around a centralized location, such as a church, what kind of pattern is it?

a)

Clustered

b)

linear

c)

dispersed

d)

metes and bounds

e)

monocropping

3.

What is the difference of the patterns in the township-and-range system and the long-lot system?

a)

The township-and-range survey system was more varied in plot size, while the size of plots in the long-lot system was set at 50 acres.

b)

The township-and-range survey system was based on physical features, while the long-lot system was based on a geometric grid pattern

c)

The long-lot survey system created a more uniform division of land, while the township-and- range survey system conformed to physical features on the landscape

d)

The long-lot survey system created less efficient irrigation systems, while the township-and- range system created a grid system for efficient water flow

e)

The township-and-range survey system was based on a geometric grid pattern, while the long-lot system was a rectilinear pattern based upon waterways or roads.

4.

In which of the following world regions has the Green Revolution had the least impact on agriculture?

a)

East Asia

b)

South Asia

c)

Southeast Asia

d)

Central America

e)

Sub Saharan Africa

5.

A set of economic and political relationships that organizes food production from the development of seed to marketing the products is known as

a)

food processing

b)

mechanized farming

c)

mixed crop and livestock farming

d)

agribusiness

e)

commercial farming

6.

Which of the following spatial patterns is best explained by bid-rent theory?

a)

Concentric rings of different agricultural activities surrounding a city in the midwestern US

b)

Rural-to-urban migration increasing the population density to eastern China

c)

Linear settlements located along a major road in a densely forested area of Brazil

d)

Dispersed settlement throughout a large mountainous area of Switzerland

e)

Location of Bodegas in the Bronx

7.

Which of the following correctly explains the placement of an agricultural product within von Thünen’s agricultural land-use model?

a)

Beef cattle are raised close to the market because meat spoils quickly

b)

Grain is grown close to the market because it is bulky to transport

c)

Firewood is harvested far from the market because the best agricultural land is closer to the market

d)

Tomatoes are grown closest to the market because they spoil quicker than beef or grain

e)

Beef cattle are raised close to the market because land is cheapest closer to the market.

8.

Which of the following best explains the economic advantage of the type of farm-produced goods shown in the image?

a)

Compared to fresh produce, these packaged agricultural goods significantly increase the gross national income that is sourced from industrial production and bring financial wealth to farmers

b)

Compared to plain milk or fresh fruit, these value-added agricultural goods significantly increase the price of the farm products sold and increase earnings for farmers.

c)

Compared to factory-made dairy products and condiments, these preservative-free goods have a decreased shelf life, which increases the prices of the goods sold.

d)

Compared to name-brand goods, farm-made agricultural goods are much lower in cost and provide significant value to consumers

e)

Compared to organic foods sold at specialty grocery stores, these goods are sold as natural foods and considered to be of equal value to consumers

9.

Which of the following best explains the spatial patterns illustrated in von Thünen’s model?

a)

The cost-to-distance ratio of the land-rent curve indicates that the highest-cost land is in large-scale plots on the outermost ring of the model.

b)

The cost-of-labor inputs are related to a crop's distance from the market, as more labor-intensive farming is done in large-scale plots far from the market town.

c)

Highly perishable agricultural goods are produced in small-scale plots far from the market town, so that they can be more quickly traded with other communities.

d)

Labor-intensive farming of vegetables is done in small-scale plots in market gardens, while extensive grain crops are grown in large-scale fields far from the market town.

e)

Labor-intensive planting and harvests of wheat and corn are done in small-scale plots in market gardens, while less labor-intensive pasturing of sheep or beef cattle takes place in large-scale plots on the outermost ring of the model.

10.

Sub saharan Africa is known for

a)

commercial crop based agriculture

b)

commercial mixed crop/livestock agriculture

c)

pastoral nomadism

d)

aquaculture

e)

substance agriculture

11.

Where are squatter settlements are located in the Latin American urban model compared with the Southeast Asian urban model?

a)

In both models they are in the same place

b)

In both the Latin American and Southeast Asian urban models, squatter settlements are located on the edge/periphery of the city. In the Southeast Asian urban model, squatter settlements are interspersed with new suburbs.

c)

In the Latin American model there are squatter settlements, but the Southeast Asian urban model there are no squatter settlements.

d)

The zone of transition is located in the CBD for the Latin American model, and are located along the water in the Latin American model

12.

Based on the chart, France is considered a country that follows

a)

Central Place Theory

b)

Von Thunen Model

c)

Hoteling Effect

d)

Primate City Rule

e)

Rank City Rule

13.

Comparing the patterns of commercial space and residential space, which of the following examples is the weakest fit for the Burgess concentric zone model?

a)

Urban areas such as London that developed before the Industrial Revolution, where a medieval city center is surrounded by increasingly expensive housing

b)

Urban areas such as the San Francisco Bay area, where there are multiple centers of employment and multiple areas of high-income residences

c)

Cities such as Philadelphia, where residents may be willing to commute long distances in order to live in lower-cost housing

d)

Twin cities such as Minneapolis-Saint Paul, where two Industrial-Era central business districts are surrounded by increasingly expensive housing

e)

Cities such as Toronto, where waves of historical migrations have prompted the expansion of high-income housing on the outer edges of the city

14.

The following chart is an example of

a)

Central Place Theory

b)

Von Thunen Model

c)

Concentric Zone

d)

Latin American Urban Model

e)

Multiple Nuclei Model

15.

Which of the following statements is true about food deserts?

a)

Food deserts are determined by the amount of soil that can be used for agriculture in a given area

b)

Food deserts are determined by the access to food in a desert

c)

Food deserts are determined by the carbohydrate to protein ratio in food sold in stores in a given area

d)

Food deserts are determined by the availability of fresh and healthy food in an area

e)

Food deserts are determined by the distance someone would have to travel to find food in the desert

16.

Which of the following best explains the rapid development of edge cities in the United States Southwest in comparison with other regions of the United States?

a)

Edge cities have not developed in the Midwest region of the United States because residents abandoned the suburbs and moved into the inner cities for less-expensive housing and for jobs that required less commuting.

b)

Edge cities have developed in the Southeast region of the United States, but growth is limited because the government has zoned out commercial buildings at the edge of suburban areas.

c)

Edge cities have not developed in the Mountain West region of the United States because the rugged terrain cannot accommodate large-scale building projects necessary for edge city development; residential development is limited to small villages and remote cabins.

d)

Edge cities have not developed in the New England region of the Unites States because the severe winter weather makes it too expensive to heat large commercial buildings.

e)

Edge cities developed rapidly in the Southwest region of the United States because large numbers of people migrated from the Midwest for the warmer climate and for the jobs resulting when corporations relocated for financial incentives.

17.

Which of the following scenarios is best explained by the concept of range in Christaller’s central place theory?

a)

A major department store opens in a small town because the town does not have any major retailers competing for business.

b)

A consumer purchases gasoline at the nearest town but travels to the nearest city to purchase a new car.

c)

A high rate of rural-to-urban migration occurs in a developing country as people seek jobs in cities.

d)

A consumer purchases a home in the suburbs rather than in the nearest city because the cost of land is lower in the suburbs.

e)

A tech company is headquartered in a more developed country, but its customer service center is located in a less developed country.

18.

According to Rank City Rule, if the largest city has 1 million inhabitants, how large is the 4th largest city?

a)

1 Million

b)

500,000

c)

250,000

d)

200,000

e)

100,000

19.

Which of the following is a primary characteristic of world cities?

a)

They are capital cities in their respective countries and centers of political power.

b)

They are financially and politically connected to global markets and drive the process of globalization.

c)

They are located in the interiors of their respective countries and require sophisticated transportation networks.

d)

They have political dominance within their respective regions and are former centers of colonial power.

20.

Which order following the Concentric Zone Model pattern from the inner to outer ring?

a)

CBD, working class, mixed use, commuters

b)

CBD, mixed-use, new development, a suburban CBD

c)

Mixed residential, middle class, CBD, commuters

d)

CBD, zone of transition, working class homes, commuters

e)

Mixed use, CBD, zone of transition, commuter

21.

A formal culture region is different from vernacular regions because a formal region

a)

has a focal point or node

b)

is one that people believe exists

c)

has selected feature or internal uniformity

d)

does not contain gradations such as core, domain, and sphere

e)

applies only to linguistic religion regions

22.

The map shown below shows which of the following map types?

a)

Chotopleth

b)

Cartogram

c)

proportional symbol

d)

Dot Symbol

e)

Isoline

23.

How does the scale of inquiry impact data?

a)

Maps showing the area of France before and after surveying

b)

Maps of Hudson Bay drawn by Native Americans and by the earliest European travelers

c)

Maps showing New York's population density by counties and the United States population density by state

d)

Maps showing the number of auto thefts per block in Seattle in the decades before and after the Depression

e)

Maps of gang graffiti in Philadelphia

24.

Why are none of the map projections perfect?

a)

a curved surface cannot be represented on a flat surface without distortion

b)

parallels and meridians never cross at right angles on a globe

c)

the grid system is two-dimensional, while the real world is three-dimensional

d)

Earth is not a perfect sphere

e)

latitude lines are shorter than meridian lines

25.

Which o the following is seen in the chart?

a)

Absolute Location

b)

Relative Location

c)

Cultural Landscape

d)

GIS

e)

Cartographic Principles

26.

There are more Yankee Fans in the Bronx than there are in Kansas. This is due to

a)

distance decay

b)

time space compression

c)

contagious diffusion

d)

regionalization

27.

Which of the following is not considered a perceptual region?

a)

Upstate New York

b)

The Midwest

c)

West Virginia

d)

The South

e)

The Middle East

28.

In a pizza place's functional region, the pizza place is considered the

a)

node

b)

hearth

c)

relocation diffusion

d)

relative location

e)

absolute location

29.

The historic diffusion of cultural ideas, agriculture, and diseases brought to the New World is an example of which type of diffusion?

a)

Contagious

b)

Stimulus

c)

Relocation

d)

Hierarchal

e)

Reverse Hierarchal

30.

London has become a world city in part because of its proximity to ports and other places around it that foster development. This reason for London’s historic growth relates to the city’s

a)

Site

b)

Situation

c)

Relative Location

d)

GIS

e)

Nodal Region

31.

If a map shows the number of people per unit of land, which of the following types of data is shown?

a)

Arithmetic density

b)

Physiological density.

c)

Agricultural density

d)

Urban density

e)

Suburban density

32.

If a country is experiencing zero population growth. Which DTM stage are they in?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

33.

Based on the population pyramid below, which of the following will pose the greatest demographic challenge in the next 10 years?

a)

Providing for the needs of an aging population

b)

Finding enough teachers to educate the young

c)

Limiting out migration of the 60 to 64 year old age cohort

d)

Controlling population growth

e)

Providing prenatal medical care

34.

Which of the following patterns can be proven via the following population pyramid?

a)

Levels of education and contraception usage are high among women

b)

Government policies encourage women to have multiple children

c)

The population has a high total fertility rate

d)

Government policies discourage women from having multiple children

e)

The population has a low infant mortality rate

35.

Which of the following statements would Malthus agree with?

a)

the contemporary problem of famine in developing countries is a result of the colonial legacy

b)

the problem of population growth is a result of economic underdevelopment

c)

one way to solve population growth in developing countries is to reduce their foreign debt

d)

famine in developing countries can be explained by examining their patterns of population growth

e)

population growth is helpful to developing countries because it provides a larger rural workforce

36.

In 2018, a large number of migrants from Afghanistan and Iraq applied for asylum in the European Union. Which of the following is a pull factor that explains this migration?

a)

A high rate of natural increase in the Middle East, leading to overpopulation

b)

Armed conflict, driving many people from their home regions in the Middle East

c)

Drought and food shortages in the Middle East, leading many people to search for food security

d)

Immigration reforms and fenced borders around Europe, controlling the flow of migrant workers

e)

Economic growth and employment opportunities in Europe, attracting immigrant workers

37.

An asylum seeker enters the European Union in France and is temporarily housed in Sweden. He is then granted asylum and is permanently settled in Italy. Which of the following describes this type of migration that is facilitated by the European Union’s open border policies?

a)

Chain migration within the refugee’s family and social network

b)

Guest worker migration based upon the free movement of labor

c)

As an internally displaced person within a single state

d)

Step migration across member states to a final destination

e)

As a rural-to-urban migrant seeking employment opportunities

38.

The demographic transition in Europe during the 19th and early 20th centuries was

a)

a shift in the composition of national populations toward greater ethnic balance

b)

A net population decline resulting from an excess of deaths over births

c)

migration between European countries

d)

large-scale population movements following periods of war or widespread civil unrest

e)

urbanization and falling birth rates

39.

Bangladesh has seen its total fertility rate drop to 2.1, but its population is projected to be higher in 2050 than it is today. Which of the following explains why Bangladesh will continue to experience positive rates of natural increase?

a)

Bangladesh will continue to grow because it will receive a high number of immigrants.

b)

Bangladesh was experiencing low birth rates, but it is predicted to have a baby boom.

c)

Bangladesh’s population will continue to grow as a result of a large youthful population.

d)

Bangladesh will promote pronatalist policies to avoid a diminished workforce.

e)

Bangladesh will continue to grow because a fertility rate of 2.1 is still above replacement level.

40.

Which of the following is not an anti natalist policy?

a)

One Child Policy in China

b)

Do it for Denmark PSA in Denmark

c)

Sex Education in India

d)

Offering birth control in schools in the United States

41.

Which of the following explains the development patterns for a country that has a large proportion of its economy engaged in the secondary economic sector?

a)

The country exhibits extremely high land values as vast acreage is needed for manufacturing plants and luxury housing developments for manufacturing executives.

b)

The country has an aging urban population and is importing day laborers from rural areas to keep up with the demands of production.

c)

The country has a large population of well-educated labor, but it is widely dispersed around the country, distant from manufacturing facilities and employment opportunities.

d)

The country has access to shipping lanes and inexpensive transport options that lead to establishment of factories close to raw materials or to markets, depending on the manufacturing process.

e)

The country has available resources important to manufacturing, such as water and fossil fuels, but access is limited in many areas.

42.

Which of the following best explains the relationship of a country's economic sector employment to its development level?

a)

Semiperiphery countries and periphery countries have the highest percentage of workers in the tertiary sector because of the emphasis on technology development.

b)

Semiperiphery countries and core countries have the highest percentage of workers in the secondary sector because of the economic dominance of manufacturing.

c)

Periphery countries have the highest percentage of workers in the secondary sector because of the availability of natural resources.

d)

Core countries have the highest percentage of workers in the tertiary sector and the lowest percentage of workers in the primary sector because of the economic emphasis on services.

e)

Periphery countries have highest percentage of workers in the tertiary sector and the lowest percentage of workers in the primary sector because of their importance as financial centers.

43.

The higher gross domestic product per capita in some less developed countries such as Brazil, South Africa, and Malaysia is best explained by increases in the value of the country’s

a)

manufacturing output and service industry employment

b)

textile and clothing manufacturing

c)

agricultural land development and the number of farmers

d)

foreign aid payments and food aid from other countries

e)

women-owned business and microloan programs

44.

Which of the following factors best explains a limitation of GDP by country in comparing the level of productivity among countries?

a)

Different agricultural outputs, such as Malaysia, Russia, and Greece

b)

Similar-sized land areas, such as Germany, Italy, and the United Kingdom

c)

Significant petroleum exports, such Iran, Iraq, and Mexico

d)

Similar workforces, such as South Korea, Spain, and France

e)

Different population sizes, such as China, Japan, and the United States

45.

Which of the following statements explains the data relationship between the statistics shown in the table?

a)

A high level of economic development does not guarantee that women will have an equitable position in society.

b)

A high level of economic development guarantees that women will have an equitable position in society.

c)

A high GII score indicates high levels of gender equality and a high level of economic development.

d)

A high GII ranking, in the top 6, indicates a low level of gender equality and a high level of economic development.

e)

A high GII ranking, in the top 6, indicates a high level of gender equality and a low level of economic development.

46.

In a number of countries there remains significant inequality between men and women. Based on a comparison of the patterns on the map, which of the following statements draws an accurate conclusion?

a)

Women in Russia have more equality with men than do women in China.

b)

Women in South Africa have less equality with men than do women in Brazil.

c)

Women in India have more equality with men than do women in other Asian countries.

d)

Women in Australia have less equality with men than do women in China

e)

Women in Libya have more equality with men than do women in other African countries.

47.

Which of the following explains how microlending policies can lead to interdependence in the world economy?

a)

Microlending policies increase debt in less developed countries because banks in more developed countries make the loans.

b)

Microlending policies result in decreased infrastructure expenditures in less developed countries because the loans are specifically for improvements in more developed countries.

c)

Increased restrictions for the lending of microloans by banks and international lending agencies make it difficult for less developed countries to succeed in their goals.

d)

Decreased funding opportunities for governments in less developed countries through microlending policies have led to isolationism and decreased trade.

e)

Increased funding opportunities for individuals in less developed countries have led to increased economic stability on a local level and trade opportunities with other countries.

48.

The map shows GDP per capita by country, with darker shading indicating higher GDP per capita. Which of the following best explains a limitation of the map in answering questions about the world’s changing economic landscape?

a)

The map shows all the countries of the world and their level of development according to GDP per capita without regard to the size of the country’s population.

b)

The map suggests that the most productive economies are located mostly in the global north and that the least productive are located mostly in the global south, revealing a global pattern of development.

c)

The map shows GDP at the country scale, which is not appropriate for the analysis of change in the contemporary economic landscape at the global scale.

d)

The map shows economic productivity as GDP per capita in each country for a single year, but does not show change over time that would indicate a level of economic growth or decline.

e)

The map suggests the development of manufacturing-based economies in less developed countries, where GDP per capita is higher than what would be found in agriculture-based economies.

49.

Part of the UN goals is to combat HIV/AIDS, along with other diseases. Which of the following world regions is most likely to benefit most from this goal?

a)

South America

b)

Sub Saharan Africa

c)

South Asia

d)

Australia

e)

Southeast Asia

50.

Which of the following business operations is likely to be found in Silicon Valley, California?

a)

A Coal Mine

b)

A web design company

c)

A Water bottling Plant

d)

A Feedlot

e)

A Car Assembly Plant

51.

In South Africa there are 11 official languages, which has resulted in the country having a difficult time unifying. This is an example of

a)

centrifugal force

b)

assimilation

c)

distance decay

d)

cultural relativism

e)

acculturation

52.

Which of the following best explains the practice of placing indigenous children in boarding schools in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries?

a)

The schools were intended to promote multiculturalism by introducing European culture to indigenous youth

b)

Many schools appropriated indigenous culture by using tribal names for sports teams

c)

The schools were intended to blend indigenous and European cultures through syncretism

d)

The schools were intended to diffuse Christianity and assimilate indigenous youth into European culture

e)

The schools represented a traditional cultural trait of many indigenous societies

53.

In Ghana, buildings still stand that were used during the slave trade. This is an example of

a)

relocation diffusion

b)

stimulus diffusion

c)

sequent occupancy

d)

syncretism

e)

centripetal force

54.

If a country pushes education amongst their female population, what would happen to the population rate?

a)

Birth rates would increase

b)

There would be no change in the population

c)

Birth rates would decrease

d)

Death rates with increase

e)

Death rates would decrease

55.

The map shows the distribution of the language family that has the largest number of speakers in the world. Which statement correctly identifies the language family shown and the method of diffusion that best explains the pattern?

a)

The map shows the distribution of the Amerindian language family, which diffused from its hearth in Canada and spread southward into South America through contagious diffusion and into Europe and Asia through trade and hierarchal diffusion.

b)

The map shows the distribution of the Sino-Tibetan language family, which diffused from its hearth in China and spread into Europe by contagious diffusion and to the Americas through stimulus diffusion.

c)

The map shows the distribution of the Uralic language family, which diffused from its hearth in Iceland and spread into northern Europe through contagious diffusion by Norse trading groups.

d)

The map shows the distribution of the Indo-European language family, which diffused from its hearth in the Caucasus Mountains and spread throughout Eurasia through contagious diffusion and into the Americas, Africa, and Australia through colonialism and relocation diffusion.

e)

The map shows the distribution of the Afro-Asiatic language family, which diffused from it hearth in Egypt and spread throughout the Arabian Peninsula and into Eurasia through contagious diffusion and into the Americas through colonialism and relocation diffusion.

56.

Swahili in East Africa and English in global commerce are examples of

a)

Pidgin Language

b)

Lingua Franca

c)

Standard Language

d)

Creole Language

e)

Official Language

57.

Which of the following elements of the cultural landscape are shown in the image from Granada, Spain?

a)

Spanish conquistadores’ fortifications, architecture, and forestry

b)

Classical Roman fortifications, infrastructure, and art

c)

Buddhist monasteries, gardens, and religious text

d)

Moorish Islamic art, architecture, and script

e)

Portuguese universities, design, and gardens

58.

The map shown was published in the United States in the early twentieth century. The title of the map is an example of

a)

assimilation

b)

cultural relativism

c)

acculturation

d)

cultural diffusion

e)

ethnocentrism

59.

Many people living in west and central African countries such as Niger, Chad, and the Central African Republic speak French. Which of the following best explains this pattern?

a)

The French language originated in west-central Africa and diffused to Europe.

b)

Muslims brought the French language into Africa from France.

c)

Slaves freed from France in the late 1800s relocated to the region that is now Niger and the Central African Republic.

d)

France acquired several countries in Africa as a result of decisions made during the Berlin Conference of 1884.

e)

French diffused hierarchically into the largest cities of Africa after the Second World War.

60.

Which of the following concepts best explains the driving forces of contemporary cultural diffusion?

a)

Cultural convergence

b)

Space-time compression

c)

Syncretism

d)

Cultural divergence

e)

Creolization

61.

Which of the following explains why Korea and Vietnam were viewed as shatterbelts during the

Cold War?

a)

Korea and Vietnam were politically controlled by regional powers.

b)

Korea and Vietnam kept two political adversaries geographically separated.

c)

Korea and Vietnam fragmented into new states due to internal tensions.

d)

Korea and Vietnam tried to control land and sea areas around their states.

e)

Korea and Vietnam experienced conflict due to a dispute between global powers.

62.

Which of the following describes a federal form of governance?

a)

A centralized government creates a barrier to local participation in the political process.

b)

Autonomous regions act outside the authority of a central government.

c)

Federal states encourage devolutionary movements and break apart quickly.

d)

Laws are enacted in a single language to promote cultural unity.

e)

Multiple substates have local control and are unified to pursue common goals at the national level.

63.

The European Union is an example of

a)

supranationalism

b)

nationalism

c)

a fragmented state

d)

a unitary state

e)

a nation-state

64.

The Berlin Conference established the borders of North African countries including Egypt, Libya, and Sudan. The landscape of these countries influenced the types of boundaries imposed by the European colonial powers. Which of the following boundary types best explains the influence of landscape on the political borders of the North African region?

a)

Antecedent, based on tribal cultural boundaries that existed before European colonization

b)

Subsequent, with smaller buffer states placed between larger states to prevent political conflicts

c)

Consequent, accounting for local differences in language and religion during European colonization

d)

Natural, with irregular lines, accounting for regional physical features such as mountains or water

e)

Geometric, with straight lines, disregarding physical features or tribal cultural differences of the areas

65.

Which of the following is South Africa’s former state-sanctioned policy of segregating the races?

a)

Redlining

b)

Gerrymandering

c)

Apartheid

d)

Secularism

e)

Gentrification

66.

Native American tribes are considered

a)

Semi automous

b)

nation-state

c)

multi-state nation

d)

federal government

e)

unitary government

67.

The Kurds are

a)

a nation-state

b)

a stateless nation

c)

devoluted nation

d)

an autonomous region

e)

a multi-state nation

68.

The Berlin Wall fell in 1989, but people in the former East and West Germany still feel its influence. Geographers would say that where the wall once stood now acts as a

a)

superimposed boundary

b)

relict boundary

c)

fortified boundary

d)

antecedent boundary

e)

natural boundary

69.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of devolutionary movements in Spain and

Canada?

a)

There is an economic aspect to the Quebecois independence movement, while the Catalans focus mainly on culture.

b)

Both independence movements utilize cultural distinctiveness as their only reason for seeking independence.

c)

Both independence movements focus on religious differences with the nations they currently belong to

d)

There is an economic aspect to the Catalan independence movement, while the Quebecois focus mainly on cultural differences.

e)

Both independence movements utilize economic power as their main reason for seeking independence

70.

What is true about Northern Ireland?

a)

It is united with the rest of the island to form a sovereign nation-state

b)

It forms its own sovereign nation-state predominately made up of the Irish ethnic group.

c)

It is a frontier that is not formally part of a state, but the United Kingdom claims the area.

d)

It is physically separate from the rest of the United Kingdom, a multinational state.

e)

It is a stateless nation, as the entire island of Ireland is under the control of the United Kingdom.

71.

The geopolitical setting of which of the following countries can be explained by its membership in the Warsaw Pact during the Cold War and its location along the European shatterbelt?

a)

France

b)

Bulgaria

c)

Switzerland

d)

Canada

e)

South Africa

72.

According to the UN’s Convention on the Law of the Seas (UNCLOS), commercial and military ships of foreign countries must refrain from traveling within how many miles of a country’s coast?

a)

5 nautical miles

b)

12 nautical miles

c)

24 nautical miles

d)

100 nautical miles

e)

200 nautical miles

73.

When a sign is at a border it is a

a)

administered boundary

b)

delimited boundary

c)

demarcated boundary

d)

militarized boundary

e)

superimposed boundary

74.

The border between Canada and the United States is all of the following except

a)

a demarcated boundary

b)

a geometric boundary

c)

a contested boundary

d)

a national boundary

75.

Which of the following pairs is not a contested boundary

a)

Israel and Palestine

b)

Sudan and South Sudan

c)

Morocco and Western Sahara

d)

Dominican Republic and Haiti

76.

Rubber, tea, coffee, cocoa, and palm oil is raised in

a)

Mediterranean agricultural areas

b)

areas of shifting cultivation

c)

high latitude zones

d)

market gardens

e)

intensive plantation agriculture

77.

Name the correct regions.

a)

South America

b)

Central America

c)

Latin America

d)

Middle America

78.
a)

Western Asia

b)

Eastern Europe

c)

Western Europe

d)

Southern Europe

79.
Countries controlled by another, more powerful state.
a)
Slav State
b)
Imperialist State
c)
Buffer State
d)
Satellite State
80.

Which of the following was NOT a Germanic speaking people that influenced the English language?

a)

Angles

b)

Saxons

c)

Jutes

d)

Normans

81.

What is the second largest language family?

a)

Indo-European

b)

Afro-Asiatic

c)

Sino-Tibetan

d)

Austronesian

82.
Scale is…                                     
a)
the system used by geographers to transfer locations  from a globe to a map
b)
the extent of spread of a phenomenon over a given area
c)
 the difference in elevation between two points in an area
d)
 the relationship between the length of an object on a map and that feature on the landscape
83.
When the president makes a speech about the implementation of a new program; that is an example of ___________ diffusion
a)
hierarchial
b)
relocation
c)
cultural
d)
contageous
84.
What demographic characteristic does this population pyramid show?
a)
Low population growth
b)
High natural increase
c)
High crude death rate
d)
Low elder dependency ratio
85.

What do each line of the DTM represent?

a)

'A' is birth rate, 'B' is death rate, and 'C' is natural increase rate

b)

'A' is death rate, 'B' is birth rate, and 'C' is total population

c)

'A' is natural increase, 'B' is death rate, and 'C' is total fertility rate

d)

'A' is birth rate, 'B' is natural increase, and 'C' is crude death rate

86.

The Kurdish people are examples of which of the following?

a)

A people with a sovereign state.

b)

A nation.

c)

A stateless nation.

d)

A nation-state.

87.

In which of the following countries is meat the leading source of protein?

a)

China

b)

Canada

c)

Vietnam

d)

Egypt

88.

Name the correct regions.

a)

Polynesia

b)

Southeast Asia

c)

Pacific Asia

d)

Micronesia

89.

Name the correct regions.

a)

Southeast Asia

b)

Southern Asia

c)

Oceania

d)

Micronesia

90.
Which is not used to determine a country's level of development?
a)
per capita GDP
b)
Literacy Rate
c)
Government System
d)
life expectancy
91.

All of the following are forms of commercial agriculture EXCEPT

a)

dairy farming

b)

pastoral nomadism

c)

cattle ranching

d)

specialized fruit production

e)

grain farming

92.

Which of the following crops is grown on the sides of terraced hills to allow flowing water to run over the plants?

a)

Wheat

b)

Rice

c)

Taro

d)

Soybeans

e)

Millet

93.
A region where boundaries are very thinly or weakly developed, zones where territoriality is unclear and not well established.
a)
Frontier
b)
Shatterbelt
c)
Buffer State
d)
Satellite State
94.

Dominant language family in the regions above

a)

Niger - Congo

b)

Indo - European

c)

Latin Americano

d)

Sino - Tibetan

95.

The ethnicity highlighted in the map above is

a)

Asian Americans

b)

African Americans

c)

Hispanic Americans

d)

Native Americans

96.

Which of the following modern trends is most directly responsible for the phenomenon of space-time compression?

a)

Regionalization

b)

Globalization

c)

Periodization

d)

Acculturation

97.

The map shown above best fits which of the following map types?

a)

Choropleth

b)

Dot distribution

c)

Isoline

d)

Cartogram

98.

Globally, the four largest population concentrations are located in

a)

Europe, North America, and East Asia, Latin America

b)

East Asia, Southeast Asia, South Asia and Western Africa

c)

Southeast Asia, Southern Africa, East Asia, Europe

d)

Europe, South Asia, Southeast Asia and East Asia

99.

Taiwan can be considered a sovereign state because

a)

the Nationalist party rules both China and Taiwan.

b)

China recognizes its sovereignty.

c)

its government carries on diplomatic relations with many other countries.

d)

its size meets the minimum geographic requirement for independence.

100.

Name the correct regions.

a)

Siberia/Russia

b)

Northern Asia

c)

Eurasia

d)

Central Asia

101.

Name the correct regions.

a)

North Africa

b)

Sub-saharan Africa

c)

Central Africa

d)

West Africa

102.

The Taliban can be found in...

a)

Saudi Arabia

b)

Israel

c)

Afghanistan

d)

Iraq

103.

This middle eastern country attracts the highest # of Muslim migrants

a)

Saudi Arabia

b)

Egypt

c)

Iraq

d)

Syria

e)

Turkey

104.
Which map would have the smallest scale?
a)
city
b)
state
c)
continent
d)
world
105.
If the physiological density is much higher than the arithmetic density, then a country has:
a)
inefficient farmers.
b)
a large number of farmers.
c)
a small percentage of land suitable for agriculture.
d)
too many people for the available resources.
106.

“Brain drain” migration is thought to be the result of

a)

social and environmental factors in developing countries

b)

the problems people face in source countries, and the allure of a better life

c)

families living in different parts of the world

d)

workers becoming more ambitious

107.

Hong Kong is a ....

a)

Nation-State

b)

Autonomous Region

c)

Semi-Autonomous Region

d)

Multistate Nation

108.

What is an example of a state?

a)

Hawaii

b)

Cherokee Nation

c)

Greenland

d)

Canada

109.

Southwest Asia, Southeast Asia, East Asia, Mesoamerica, and the Sub-Saharan regions were all

a)

Regions where the Third Agricultural Revolution failed

b)

Hearths of plant domestication

c)

Areas for widespread terracing

d)

Sites where the Second Agricultural Revolution began

e)

Leaders in the Columbian Exchange

110.

The building of the Erie Canal in the 1820s to connect New York with the midwest was paid for by the state of New York. It is an example of

a)

a subsidy

b)

an economy of scale

c)

a supply chain

d)

vertical integration

e)

agribusiness

111.
The time it takes for the world population to go from 3 billion to 6 billion or 6 billion to 12 billion is called
a)
overpopulation
b)
doubling time
c)
natural increase
d)
life expectancy
112.
The time it takes for the world population to go from 3 billion to 6 billion or 6 billion to 12 billion is called
a)
overpopulation
b)
doubling time
c)
natural increase
d)
life expectancy