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WorksheetsBSA 1A FINAL EXAM
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
It refers to the physical and physiological well-being of the animals.
a)
Disease
b)
Mortality
c)
Morbidity
d)
Animal health
2.
Is the number of animals in a herd or flock which are affected by the disease but do not die.
a)
Mortality
b)
Health
c)
Incubation period
d)
Morbidity
3.
Is the number of animals dying from the disease.
a)
Animal health
b)
Morbidity
c)
Enzootic animals
d)
Mortality
4.
Is the period from time of infection to the appearance of symptoms.
a)
Disease occurrence
b)
Sporadic diseases
c)
Hatching period
d)
Incubation period
5.
Is used to describe a disease that is continuously present in a population of animal but does not spread rapidly.
a)
Epizootic
b)
Sporadic
c)
Bacteriostatic
d)
Enzootic
6.
This causative agent of disease exists in various shapes like cocci, bacillus, or spirilla where the cells are arranged in either chains or clusters.
a)
Virus
b)
Fungi
c)
Protozoa
d)
Bacteria
7.
Bacteria that grow in the presence of atmospheric oxygen.
a)
Anaerobic
b)
Anaerobin
c)
Anaerobeak
d)
Aerobic
8.
Coccus is a ________ bacteria.
a)
Rod-shaped
b)
corkscrew-shaped
c)
Egg-shaped
d)
Berry-shaped
9.
Bacillus is a ______ bacteria.
a)
corkscrew-shaped
b)
Egg-shaped
c)
Berry-shaped
d)
Rod-shaped
10.
Spirochetes is a ______ bacteria.
a)
Egg-shaped
b)
Berry-shaped
c)
Rod-shaped
d)
Corkscrew-shaped
11.
These include microscopic organisms like molds and yeasts and macroscopic organisms like mushrooms.
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protozoa
c)
Mycoplasma
d)
Fungi
12.
Are sub-microscopic organism that can be grown using living tissue. It has a DNA or RNA protein capsid(covering).
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protozoa
c)
Fungi
d)
Virus
13.
Is the most primitive member of the animal kingdom.
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungi
d)
Protozoa
14.
Hermaphrodite endoparasitic worms with an elongated flat body and without a body cavity or alimentary canal.
a)
Flukes
b)
Roudworms
c)
Fleas
d)
Flatworms / tapeworms
15.
Free living or parasitic endoparasites, unsegmented and usually cylindrical and elongated in shape and with alimentary canal.
a)
Flukes
b)
Ectoparasites
c)
Flatworms
d)
Roundworms
16.
They have hard external skeletons (exoskeletons) composed of a substance called chitin.
a)
Flukes
b)
Leeches
c)
Earthworms
d)
Arthropods
17.
The disease usually destroys the animal before clinical signs are seen.
a)
Acute
b)
Sub-acute
c)
Chronic
d)
Peracute
18.
Is one that arises within the few hours and progresses rapidly within a matter of some days or at most a few weeks to recovery or death.
a)
Sub-acute
b)
Peracute
c)
Chronic
d)
Acute
19.
All are examples of nutritional disease except.
a)
Rickets
b)
White muscle disease
c)
Anemia
d)
Hernia
20.
Diseases can be spread through blood sucking insects.
a)
false
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
true
21.
Infectious agents gain entrance into the animals through contaminated needles, syringes, equipment.
a)
false
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
true
22.
These are the first line of defense against infectious agents.
a)
Sweat and tears
b)
Lymph
c)
Spleen
d)
Skin and mucous membrane
23.
This is the resetting of the thermo-regulatory mechanism of the body above the normal level due to microorganisms.
a)
Heat
b)
Pain
c)
Immune reaction
d)
Febrile reaction (fever)
24.
The condition of a living organism whereby it resist and overcomes infection or disease.
a)
Heat
b)
Pain
c)
Fever
d)
Immune reaction
25.
Comes about by the animal’s tissues actively participating in production of antibodies.
a)
Passive immunity
b)
Passive activity
c)
Antibodies immunity
d)
Active immunity
26.
It can be acquired by sucking of colostrums and placental transfer (natural) and injection of antiserum (artificial).
a)
Active immunity
b)
Passive activity
c)
Immunity
d)
Passive immunity
27.
The causative agent of this disease is Bacillus anthracis.
a)
Hemorrhagic septicemia
b)
Pullorum
c)
Hog cholera
d)
Anthrax
28.
The causative agent of this disease is Salmonella pullorum.
a)
Fowl cholera
b)
Hog cholera
c)
Anthrax
d)
Pullorum disease
29.
It is an acute pasteurellosis manifested by an acute and highly fatal septicemia principally in cattle and water buffalo.
a)
Cholera
b)
Anthrax
c)
Brucellosis
d)
Hemorrhagic septicemia
30.
The causative agent of this disease is Brucella abortus.
a)
Fowl cholera
b)
Rabies
c)
Pseudorabies
d)
Brucellosis
31.
This is also called contagious abortion.
a)
Fowl cholera
b)
Hog cholera
c)
Pseudorabies
d)
Brucellosis
32.
It is the inflammation of the mammary gland almost always due to the effects of infection by bacterial or mycotic pathogens.
a)
Erysipelas
b)
Infectious coryza
c)
Malignant edema
d)
Mastitis
33.
The causative agent of erysipelas is.
a)
Erysipelotric rusiopatei
b)
Erysiplothrix rhusipathiae
c)
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie
d)
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
34.
It is sometimes called diamond skin disease.
a)
Infectious coryza
b)
Blackleg
c)
Fowl pox
d)
Erysipelas
35.
This is a toxemia caused by a specific neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani in necrotic tissues.
a)
Blackleg
b)
Botulism
c)
Colibacillosis
d)
Tetanus
36.
It is a food poisoning marked by progressive paralysis caused by ingestion of a toxin of Clostridium botulinum.
a)
Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)
b)
Infectious bursal disease
c)
Tetanus
d)
Botulism
37.
The causative agent of this disease is Escherichia coli.
a)
Brucellosis
b)
Lock jaw
c)
Fowl pox
d)
Colibacillosis
38.
It is sometimes called Aujesky’s disease.
a)
Rabies
b)
FMD
c)
TGE
d)
Pseudorabies
39.
What does TGE stands for?
a)
Transferable Gastritis
b)
Transmissible Gastritis
c)
Tolerable Gastroenteritis
d)
Transmissible Gastroenteritis
40.
It is an infectious dermatitis of sheep and goats that affects primarily the lips of young animals. The disease is usually severe in goats than in sheep.
a)
Fowl pox
b)
PRRS
c)
Foot and mouth disease
d)
Contagious Ecthyma (Orf)
41.
The causal agent of this disease is orthomyxovirus.
a)
PRRS
b)
Chicken pox
c)
African swine fever
d)
Avian influenza
42.
ASF stands for.
a)
African swine fats
b)
African swine fellowship
c)
African swinery fever
d)
African swine fever
43.
It persistently infects its natural hosts, warthogs, bushpigs, and soft ticks of the genus Ornithodoros, which likely act as a vector, with no disease signs.
a)
Hog cholera
b)
Pestivirus
c)
Gumboro disease
d)
African swine fever
44.
This is a disease of the skeletal system, principally of the young animals, resulting from the deficiency of vitamin D and insufficient exposure to sunlight, and characterized by softening and bonding of the bones.
a)
Malignant carbuncle
b)
Osteomalacia
c)
Anemia
d)
Rickets
45.
This disease is caused by deficient bone calcification due to vitamin D deficiency among mature animals.
a)
Malignant carbuncle
b)
Anemia
c)
Rickets
d)
Osteomalacia
46.
Deficiency of elemental iron is the culprit of this disease.
a)
Goiter
b)
Diabetes
c)
Parakeratosis
d)
Anemia
47.
This is one form of conjunctive characterized by a dry and lusterless condition of the eyeball and caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A.
a)
Parakeratosis
b)
Anemia
c)
Color blind
d)
Xerophthalmia
48.
It is a common viral disease of the small intestine that causes vomiting and profuse diarrhea in pigs of all ages.
a)
TBE
b)
FMD
c)
PRRS
d)
TGE
49.
This disease is caused by Pox virus.
a)
Lyssavirus
b)
Mad itch
c)
Infectious bursal disease
d)
Fowl pox
50.
Rabies is sometimes called.
a)
Pseudorabies
b)
Classical swine fever
c)
Avian diphtheria
d)
Hydrophobia
51.
It is an acute febrile disease of cattle and sheep characterized by emphysematous swelling usually in the heavy muscle.
a)
Tetanus
b)
Woolsorter’s disease
c)
Lock jaw
d)
Blackleg
52.
The most common control of diseases is through vaccination.
a)
false
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
true
53.
People are not considered as vector of diseases.
a)
true
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
false
54.
Infectious agents gain entrance into animal’s body through coitus.
a)
false
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
true
55.
Gastrointestinal diseases involve the nerves, spinal cord and brain.
a)
true
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
false
56.
Immune carriers cannot spread diseases.
a)
true
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
false
57.
Is the science that deals with the application of various animal genetic principles purposely to improve or enhance the performance of livestock and poultry species.
a)
Animal science
b)
Animal husbandry
c)
Animal selection
d)
Animal breeding
58.
It is the process in which certain individuals in a population are preferred over the others for the production of the next generation.
a)
Culling
b)
Rouging
c)
Animal husbandry `
d)
Selection
59.
It is sometimes called “The survival of the fittest”.
a)
Culling
b)
Selection
c)
Artificial selection
d)
Natural selection
60.
There is intervention of man in this kind of selection.
a)
Natural selection
b)
Culling
c)
Reduction
d)
Artificial selection
61.
Breeding of closely-related animals.
a)
Cross-breeding
b)
Two-way cross
c)
3-way cross
d)
Inbreeding
62.
Selection on the basis of performance of the ancestors.
a)
Selection index method
b)
Tandem method
c)
Independent culling level method
d)
Pedigree selection
63.
It is the most effective method of selection.
a)
Tandem method
b)
Independent culling level method
c)
Pedigree selection
d)
Selection index method
64.
The rate of physiologic maturity of both male and female animals is retarded slightly by inbreeding.
a)
false
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
true
65.
This is the mating of unrelated individual within a breed commonly for the production of purebreds.
a)
Cross-breeding
b)
Back crossing
c)
3-way cross
d)
Pure-breeding
66.
Is a system of breeding wherein an inferior breed is improved by continued crossing.
a)
Three-way rotation (Crisscross)
b)
Two-way cross
c)
Inbreeding
d)
Upgrading
67.
These white breeds are known for maternal traits except.
a)
Yorkshire
b)
Landrace
c)
Chester white
d)
Duroc
68.
These dark breeds are known for carcass or terminal traits except.
a)
Duroc
b)
Hampshire
c)
Berkshire
d)
Landrace
69.
It generally means the mating of males and females which are considered top in their performance pedigrees.
a)
Back crossing
b)
Two-way cross
c)
Criss-crossing
d)
Top crossing
70.
This mating uses terminal breeds which are known for their growth and meat producing ability.
a)
Pure breeding
b)
Inbreeding
c)
Close breeding
d)
Terminal cross
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