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WorksheetsBB REMEDIAL 2
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Mason learns that a cause of permanent deferral of blood donation is:
History of therapeutic rabies vaccine
Residence in an endemic malaria region
Diabetes
History of jaundice of uncertain cause
Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
32-year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously
19-year old sailor named Avery who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his medication 9 months previously
45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and still taking antibiotics.
22-year old college student named Scarlett who has a temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) and states that she feels well, but is nervous about donating
Charlotte is considering donating blood, but she is unsure if she is eligible. Which one of the following constitute permanent rejection status of a donor?
2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
A tattoo 5 months previously
Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?
Liam received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
Maya traveled to an endemic area for malaria 9 months previously
Aria had a spontaneous abortion 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
Resides with a known hepatitis B patient
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Anika learned that all donor blood testing must include
Serological test for syphilis
Direct antiglobulin test
Anti-CMV testing
Complete Rh phenotyping
During a biology lab, Luna learned about the rejuvenation of unit red blood cells, a method used to:
Remove antibody attached to RBCs
Inactivate viruses and bacteria
Restore 2, 3 DPG and ATP normal levels
Filter blood clots and other debris
Avery is studying the effects of ATP loss on cell membranes in her biology lab. She learns that the loss of ATP leads to:
An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability
An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability
A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability
A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability
During a biology class, Harper learned that the majority of normal adult hemoglobin consists of:
Two alpha chains and two beta chains
Two alpha chains and two gamma chains
Two alpha chains and two delta chains
Four beta chains
During a biology lab, Abigail and her classmates learned about the storage of red blood cells (RBCs). Their instructor explained that when RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means:
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Emma learns about the different anticoagulant-preservatives used to store blood. She asks, "Which of the following anticoagulant-preservatives provide a storage time of 21 days at 1–6C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?"
ACD
CP2D
CPD
All of the above
During a routine check-up, Dr. Smith informs Maya that a unit of whole blood or packed RBCs in an adult should increase the hematocrit level by _____ or the hemoglobin level by _________.
3%, 10-15 g/L
3%, 1.0-1.5 g/L
10-15 g/L, 3%
1.0-1.5 g/L, 3%
During a laboratory experiment, Sophia noticed that a certain substance binds ionized calcium and serves as an anticoagulant.
Adenine
Glucose
Citrate
Oxalate
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, volunteers are tasked with testing if the blood drawn from donors like David could potentially transmit a disease to recipients.
Donor history questionnaire
Physical examination
Donor Screening
Compatibility testing
During a medical procedure, Benjamin underwent a treatment that involves withdrawal, processing, and reinfusing of blood to him simultaneously and does not involve cycles or passes.
Continuous flow centrifugation
Intermittent Flow Centrifugation
Filtration
Filtration and centrifugation
Ava has been diagnosed with polycythemia vera, a condition that causes her platelet counts to be abnormally elevated. Her doctor recommends a specific treatment to help manage her condition.
Neocytopheresis
Leukapheresis
Erythrocytapheresis
Plateletpheresis
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Elijah learned that the most common cause of post-transfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:
anti-HBc
anti-HCV
Anti-HAV
HBsAg
Mia went for a routine health check-up and was informed that a common screening method for HIV detection is:
Latex agglutination
Radioimmunoassay
Thin-layer chromatography
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
During a biology lab, Zoe learned that the optimum storage temperature for Red Blood cells is:
-80 C
-20 C
-12C
4C
Type of deferral: Aiden, who recently received the Polio (Salk) vaccine, is planning to donate blood.
1 year
3 years
2 weeks
No deferral
Type of deferral: Mucous membrane exposure to blood
1 month
1 year
Permanent Deferral
No deferral
Charlotte, who received the rubeola vaccine, is wondering how long she should wait before participating in a community event. Those recipient of rubeola vaccine are deferred for:
1 month
2 weeks
No deferral
1 year
Priya, an autologous donor who is pregnant, should be deferred for?
6 months after post-partum
1 year
3 months after post-partum
6 weeks after post-partum
No deferral unless proven risky to the donor.
During a biology class, Evelyn learned about the three areas of RBC biology that are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival and function. However, she was confused about one of the areas that is not essential. Which of the following areas is not crucial for normal erythrocyte survival and function?
RBC metabolism
Hemoglobin structure and function
Normal erythropoietin function
Normal chemical composition and structure of the RBC membrane
During a biology lab, Samuel was curious about how the RBC zeta potential is maintained. He asked his classmates about the components involved in this process.
Spectrin
Protein Band 4.1
Ankyrin
Glycophorin A
Glycophorin B
During a biology lab, Aria and Elijah were discussing the major extracellular anion of the RBC membrane. What did they conclude?
Bicarbonate
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
During a recent blood donation drive at the local community center, Ava was curious about the method used to determine hemoglobin levels in donors. She overheard the staff discussing various methods. Which hemoglobin determination method is commonly used during blood donation?
POCT
Drabskin Method
Copper Sulfate method
CBC
During a lab experiment, Priya measured the specific gravity of a blood sample and found it to be 1.053. This specific gravity is equivalent to _______ of hemoglobin.
125 g/L
13.5 g/dL
120 g/L
12.0 g/dL
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Nora learned that a 450 unit of whole blood has a standard anticoagulant content of?
70 mL
14 mL
63 mL
60 mL
Isla is learning about how platelet concentrates are prepared in her biology class. She wonders which method is used to prepare these concentrates.
heavy spin followed by soft spin/light spin
Soft spin followed by hard spin
Either of the two
hard spin only
Soft spin only
During a surgical procedure, Grace's blood is collected from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site and it is re-infused with or without processing via a microaggregate filter to screen out any debris.
Intra-operative Collection
Post-operative Collection
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
Pre-operative Collection
In a laboratory setting, Arjun is tasked with collecting granulocytes for a research project. He learns that a common sedimenting agent can be used to help red cells form rouleaux, which allows the white blood cells to be harvested more efficiently. What is this sedimenting agent?
Glycerol
Mannitol
hydroxyethyl starch
Corticosteroids
During a blood donation camp at the local community center, Mia learned about the platelet content of a platelet concentrate obtained via plateletpheresis. What is the typical platelet content in such a concentrate?
3.0x 1011
5.5 x1010
3.0 x 1010
5.5 x1011
In a genetics class, Anika is studying the Bombay phenotype. She learns that certain genotypes can lead to this phenotype. Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype?
HH only
HH and Hh
Hh and hh
hh only
Liam is studying the immune response in his biology class. He learns that IgM antibodies, such as those formed against the ABO antigens, have the ability to directly agglutinate red blood cells (RBCs) and cause visible agglutination. Why is this the case?
IgM antibodies are larger molecules and have the ability to bind more antigen
IgM antibodies tend to clump together more readily to bind more antigen
IgM antibodies are found in greater concentrations than IgG antibodies
IgM antibodies are not limited by subclass specificity
During a biology class, Maya learned about blood types and the unique case of Bombay individuals. She wondered, what antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?
Anti-A and anti-B
Anti-H
Anti-A,B
Anti-A, B, and H
During a routine blood test, Abigail's results show that she has developed an acquired B antigen. Which typing results are most likely to occur in her case?
Anti-A 4+, anti-B-3+, A1 cells neg, B cells neg
Anti-A 3+, anti-B neg, A1 cells neg, B cells neg
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4+
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 4+, A1 cells 2+, B cells neg
During a biology class, William was curious about blood groups and asked his classmates, "Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen?"
A1B
A2
B
A1
During a blood donation drive at school, Samuel, who is an A2 person with anti-A1, needs a transfusion. What type of RBCs can be transfused to him?
A only
A or O
B
AB
During a blood transfusion procedure, Nurse Harper finds that all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive. What should she do next?
Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4°C
Retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents
Use polyclonal typing reagents
Report the sample as group AB
Aiden is a medical laboratory technician who has just completed a blood type test on a patient. What should Aiden do if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?
Perform additional testing such as typing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B
Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
Repeat the test with new reagents
Run an antibody identification panel
During a biology class, Arjun learned that N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that reacts with
Arachis hypogaea
Salvia sclarea
Dolichos biflorus
Ulex europeaus
During a biology lab, Abigail and Benjamin were studying blood types. They wondered, what reaction would be the same for an A1 and an A2 person?
Positive reaction with anti-A1 lectin
Positive reaction with A1 cells
Equal reaction with anti-H
Positive reaction with anti-A,B
Elijah, a female patient at 28 weeks’ gestation, yields the
following results:
Patient cells: Anti-A= 3+ Anti-B=4+
Patient serum: A1 cells= neg B cells= 1+ O cells=1+
Which of the following could be causing the ABO discrepancy?
Hypogammaglobulinemia
Alloantibody in patient serum
Acquired B
Weak subgroup
Avery, a medical student, is analyzing typing results for a patient. The results show:
Patient cells: Anti-A=neg Anti-B=neg
Patient serum: A1 cells=neg B cells=4+
Which condition would most likely be responsible for these typing results?
Immunodeficiency
Masking of antigens by the presence of massive amounts of antibody
Weak or excessive antigen(s)
Impossible to determine
During a blood typing lab, Maya observed the following results: Anti-A=neg0 Anti-B=4+
A1 cells=neg B cells= neg
Which of the following results is most likely discrepant?Negative B cells
Positive reaction with anti-B
Negative A1 cells
No problem with this typing
SITUATION: An emergency trauma patient requires transfusion. Six units of blood are ordered stat. There is no time to draw a patient sample. O-negative blood is released. When will compatibility testing be performed?
Compatibility testing must be performed before blood is issued
Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is available
Compatibility testing may be performed immediately using donor serum
Compatibility testing is not necessary when blood is released in emergency situations
During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Priya learned about the AABB standards for blood products. She was curious about which of the following practices is acceptable according to these standards.
Rejuvenated RBCs may be made within 3 days of outdate and transfused or frozen within 24 hours of rejuvenation
Frozen RBCs must be prepared within 30 minutes of collection and may be used within 10 years
Irradiated RBCs must be treated within 8 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours
Leukocyte-reduced RBCs must be prepared within 6 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours of preparation
Grace is studying the guidelines for Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) in her medical class. She learns that all of the following statements regarding FFP are true, except:
FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection
After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours
Storage temperature for FFP with a 1-year shelf life is ≤−18°C
When thawed, FFP must be stored between 1°C–6°C
During a recent blood transfusion, Mia discovered that she has anti-IgA antibodies. What component(s) is (are) indicated for her treatment?
Whole blood
Packed RBCs
Washed or deglycerolized RBCs
Granulocytes
During a medical emergency, a doctor is considering the transfusion of an irradiated blood product for a patient named Elijah. The doctor knows that transfusion of an irradiated product is indicated in all of the following conditions except:
Exchange transfusion
Bone marrow transplant
Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
(SCIDS)
Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
What is the expiration of cryoprecipitate once pooled?
4 hours
6 hours
8 hours
24 hours
12 hours
What is the number of white blood cells permitted in a unit of leukoreduced red cells?
<5 × 1010
<5 × 106
<8.3 × 105
<8.3 × 106
SITUATION: A cancer patient recently developed a severe infection. The patient’s hemoglobin is 8 g/dL owing to chemotherapy with a drug known to cause bone marrow depression and immunodeficiency. Which blood products are indicated for this patient?
Liquid plasma and cryoprecipitate
Crossmatched platelets and washed RBCs
Factor IX concentrates and FFP
Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes
Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?
cryoprecipitate AHF, 4C
FFP, -20C
RBCs, Frozen-40C
Platelet, 37C
The Le gene codes for a specific glycosyltransferase that
transfers an L-fucose to the N-acetylglucosamine on:
Type 1 precursor chain
Type 2 precursor chain
Types 1 and 2 precursor chain
Either type 1 or type 2 in any one individual but not in
both
Secretions of a person with the genes B, Se, and Le contain
which of the following?
B substance, H substance, Lea and Leb substances
B substance, Lea substance
H substance, Lea and Leb substances
H substance, Lea and Leb substances
Secretions of a person with the genes B, sese, and Le
contain which of the following?
B substance, Lea substance
H substance, Lea substance
H substance, Lea and Leb substance
Lea substance
Which of the following best describes MN antigens and
antibodies?
Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally
saline-reactive
Not well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally
saline-reactive
Well developed at birth, not susceptible to enzymes, generally
saline-reactive
Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally
antiglobulin-reactive
Which blood group system is associated with resistance
to P. vivax malaria?
P
Kell
Duffy
Kidd
Which of the following blood group systems is known
for showing dosage?
I
P
Kidd
Lutheran
Which characteristics are true of all three of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka, and anti-K?
Detected at the IAT phase; may cause hemolytic disease of the newborn and hemolytic transfusion reactions
Not detected with enzyme-treated cells
Requires the IAT technique for detection; usually not associated with HDN
Enhanced reactivity with enzyme-treated cells; may cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions
In an emergency situation, Rh negative red cell are transfused into an Rh positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is?
anti-c
anti-d
anti-e
anti-E
Which of the following is MISMATCHED?
Ley : H.pylori
Fy6: P. knowlesii
GPA : P.falciparum
None of the above
McLeod phenotype
Hydatid cyst
Stomach ulcers
Spontaneous abortion
Mycoplasma pneumonia infection
Chronic granulomatous disease
What is the protein carrier for these antigens: Jka and JKb
Urea transporter
Xk protein
Glycophorin B
Glycophorin A
Transfused plasma constituents resulting in immediate erythema, itching, and hives best typify which of the following transfusion reactions
HTR
DHTR
Allergic
Iron overload
Alloimmunization
Under what circumstances must the Rh type be confirmed
Donor unit previously typed as Rh-positive
Donor unit previously typed as Rh-negative
Donor unit previously typed as A-, B-, or O-negative
Donor unit previously typed as A-, B- or O-positive
The following antibodies are generally considered clinically insignificant because they have not been associated with causing increased destruction of RBCs, HDN, or HTR
Anti-Doa and anti-Coa
Anti-Ge3 and anti-Wra
Anti-Ch2 and anti-Kna
Anti-Dib and anti-Yta
Which of the following donors would be deferred indefinitely?
History of syphilis
History of gonorrhea
Accutane® treatment
Recipient of human growth hormone
Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?
Increase in pH
Increase in plasma K+
Increase in plasma Na+
Decrease in plasma hemoglobin
