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BB REMEDIAL 2

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Mason learns that a cause of permanent deferral of blood donation is:

a)

History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

b)

Residence in an endemic malaria region

c)

Diabetes

d)

History of jaundice of uncertain cause

2.

Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

a)

32-year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously

b)

19-year old sailor named Avery who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his medication 9 months previously

c)

45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and still taking antibiotics.

d)

22-year old college student named Scarlett who has a temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) and states that she feels well, but is nervous about donating

3.

Charlotte is considering donating blood, but she is unsure if she is eligible. Which one of the following constitute permanent rejection status of a donor?

a)

2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously

b)

Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

c)

A tattoo 5 months previously

d)

Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

4.

According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

a)

Liam received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

b)

Maya traveled to an endemic area for malaria 9 months previously

c)

Aria had a spontaneous abortion 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

d)

Resides with a known hepatitis B patient

5.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Anika learned that all donor blood testing must include

a)

Serological test for syphilis

b)

Direct antiglobulin test

c)

Anti-CMV testing

d)

Complete Rh phenotyping

6.

During a biology lab, Luna learned about the rejuvenation of unit red blood cells, a method used to:

a)

Remove antibody attached to RBCs

b)

Inactivate viruses and bacteria

c)

Restore 2, 3 DPG and ATP normal levels

d)

Filter blood clots and other debris

7.

Avery is studying the effects of ATP loss on cell membranes in her biology lab. She learns that the loss of ATP leads to:

a)

An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability

b)

An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability

c)

A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability

d)

A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability

8.

During a biology class, Harper learned that the majority of normal adult hemoglobin consists of:

a)

Two alpha chains and two beta chains

b)

Two alpha chains and two gamma chains

c)

Two alpha chains and two delta chains

d)

Four beta chains

9.

During a biology lab, Abigail and her classmates learned about the storage of red blood cells (RBCs). Their instructor explained that when RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means:

a)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

b)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

c)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

d)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

10.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Emma learns about the different anticoagulant-preservatives used to store blood. She asks, "Which of the following anticoagulant-preservatives provide a storage time of 21 days at 1–6C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?"

a)

ACD

b)

CP2D

c)

CPD

d)

All of the above

11.

During a routine check-up, Dr. Smith informs Maya that a unit of whole blood or packed RBCs in an adult should increase the hematocrit level by _____ or the hemoglobin level by _________.

a)

3%, 10-15 g/L

b)

3%, 1.0-1.5 g/L

c)

10-15 g/L, 3%

d)

1.0-1.5 g/L, 3%

12.

During a laboratory experiment, Sophia noticed that a certain substance binds ionized calcium and serves as an anticoagulant.

a)

Adenine

b)

Glucose

c)

Citrate

d)

Oxalate

13.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, volunteers are tasked with testing if the blood drawn from donors like David could potentially transmit a disease to recipients.

a)

Donor history questionnaire

b)

Physical examination

c)

Donor Screening

d)

Compatibility testing

14.

During a medical procedure, Benjamin underwent a treatment that involves withdrawal, processing, and reinfusing of blood to him simultaneously and does not involve cycles or passes.

a)

Continuous flow centrifugation

b)

Intermittent Flow Centrifugation

c)

Filtration

d)

Filtration and centrifugation

15.

Ava has been diagnosed with polycythemia vera, a condition that causes her platelet counts to be abnormally elevated. Her doctor recommends a specific treatment to help manage her condition.

a)

Neocytopheresis

b)

Leukapheresis

c)

Erythrocytapheresis

d)

Plateletpheresis

16.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Elijah learned that the most common cause of post-transfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:

a)

anti-HBc

b)

anti-HCV

c)

Anti-HAV

d)

HBsAg

17.

Mia went for a routine health check-up and was informed that a common screening method for HIV detection is:

a)

Latex agglutination

b)

Radioimmunoassay

c)

Thin-layer chromatography

d)

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

18.

During a biology lab, Zoe learned that the optimum storage temperature for Red Blood cells is:

a)

-80 C

b)

-20 C

c)

-12C

d)

4C

19.

Type of deferral: Aiden, who recently received the Polio (Salk) vaccine, is planning to donate blood.

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

2 weeks

d)

No deferral

20.

Type of deferral: Mucous membrane exposure to blood

a)

1 month

b)

1 year

c)

Permanent Deferral

d)

No deferral

21.

Charlotte, who received the rubeola vaccine, is wondering how long she should wait before participating in a community event. Those recipient of rubeola vaccine are deferred for:

a)

1 month

b)

2 weeks

c)

No deferral

d)

1 year

22.

Priya, an autologous donor who is pregnant, should be deferred for?

a)

6 months after post-partum

b)

1 year

c)

3 months after post-partum

d)

6 weeks after post-partum

e)

No deferral unless proven risky to the donor.

23.

During a biology class, Evelyn learned about the three areas of RBC biology that are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival and function. However, she was confused about one of the areas that is not essential. Which of the following areas is not crucial for normal erythrocyte survival and function?

a)

RBC metabolism

b)

Hemoglobin structure and function

c)

Normal erythropoietin function

d)

Normal chemical composition and structure of the RBC membrane

24.

During a biology lab, Samuel was curious about how the RBC zeta potential is maintained. He asked his classmates about the components involved in this process.

a)

Spectrin

b)

Protein Band 4.1

c)

Ankyrin

d)

Glycophorin A

e)

Glycophorin B

25.

During a biology lab, Aria and Elijah were discussing the major extracellular anion of the RBC membrane. What did they conclude?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

Chloride

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

26.

During a recent blood donation drive at the local community center, Ava was curious about the method used to determine hemoglobin levels in donors. She overheard the staff discussing various methods. Which hemoglobin determination method is commonly used during blood donation?

a)

POCT

b)

Drabskin Method

c)

Copper Sulfate method

d)

CBC

27.

During a lab experiment, Priya measured the specific gravity of a blood sample and found it to be 1.053. This specific gravity is equivalent to _______ of hemoglobin.

a)

125 g/L

b)

13.5 g/dL

c)

120 g/L

d)

12.0 g/dL

28.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Nora learned that a 450 unit of whole blood has a standard anticoagulant content of?

a)

70 mL

b)

14 mL

c)

63 mL

d)

60 mL

29.

Isla is learning about how platelet concentrates are prepared in her biology class. She wonders which method is used to prepare these concentrates.

a)

heavy spin followed by soft spin/light spin

b)

Soft spin followed by hard spin

c)

Either of the two

d)

hard spin only

e)

Soft spin only

30.

During a surgical procedure, Grace's blood is collected from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site and it is re-infused with or without processing via a microaggregate filter to screen out any debris.

a)

Intra-operative Collection

b)

Post-operative Collection

c)

Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

d)

Pre-operative Collection

31.

In a laboratory setting, Arjun is tasked with collecting granulocytes for a research project. He learns that a common sedimenting agent can be used to help red cells form rouleaux, which allows the white blood cells to be harvested more efficiently. What is this sedimenting agent?

a)

Glycerol

b)

Mannitol

c)

hydroxyethyl starch

d)

Corticosteroids

32.

During a blood donation camp at the local community center, Mia learned about the platelet content of a platelet concentrate obtained via plateletpheresis. What is the typical platelet content in such a concentrate?

a)

3.0x 1011

b)

5.5 x1010

c)

3.0 x 1010

d)

5.5 x1011

33.

In a genetics class, Anika is studying the Bombay phenotype. She learns that certain genotypes can lead to this phenotype. Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype?

a)

HH only

b)

HH and Hh

c)

Hh and hh

d)

hh only

34.

Liam is studying the immune response in his biology class. He learns that IgM antibodies, such as those formed against the ABO antigens, have the ability to directly agglutinate red blood cells (RBCs) and cause visible agglutination. Why is this the case?

a)

IgM antibodies are larger molecules and have the ability to bind more antigen

b)

IgM antibodies tend to clump together more readily to bind more antigen

c)

IgM antibodies are found in greater concentrations than IgG antibodies

d)

IgM antibodies are not limited by subclass specificity

35.

During a biology class, Maya learned about blood types and the unique case of Bombay individuals. She wondered, what antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?

a)

Anti-A and anti-B

b)

Anti-H

c)

Anti-A,B

d)

Anti-A, B, and H

36.

During a routine blood test, Abigail's results show that she has developed an acquired B antigen. Which typing results are most likely to occur in her case?

a)

Anti-A 4+, anti-B-3+, A1 cells neg, B cells neg

b)

Anti-A 3+, anti-B neg, A1 cells neg, B cells neg

c)

Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4+

d)

Anti-A 4+, anti-B 4+, A1 cells 2+, B cells neg

37.

During a biology class, William was curious about blood groups and asked his classmates, "Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen?"

a)

A1B

b)

A2

c)

B

d)

A1

38.

During a blood donation drive at school, Samuel, who is an A2 person with anti-A1, needs a transfusion. What type of RBCs can be transfused to him?

a)

A only

b)

A or O

c)

B

d)

AB

39.

During a blood transfusion procedure, Nurse Harper finds that all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive. What should she do next?

a)

Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4°C

b)

Retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents

c)

Use polyclonal typing reagents

d)

Report the sample as group AB

40.

Aiden is a medical laboratory technician who has just completed a blood type test on a patient. What should Aiden do if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?

a)

Perform additional testing such as typing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B

b)

Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression

c)

Repeat the test with new reagents

d)

Run an antibody identification panel

41.

During a biology class, Arjun learned that N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that reacts with

a)

Arachis hypogaea

b)

Salvia sclarea

c)

Dolichos biflorus

d)

Ulex europeaus

42.

During a biology lab, Abigail and Benjamin were studying blood types. They wondered, what reaction would be the same for an A1 and an A2 person?

a)

Positive reaction with anti-A1 lectin

b)

Positive reaction with A1 cells

c)

Equal reaction with anti-H

d)

Positive reaction with anti-A,B

43.

Elijah, a female patient at 28 weeks’ gestation, yields the

following results:

Patient cells: Anti-A= 3+ Anti-B=4+

Patient serum: A1 cells= neg B cells= 1+ O cells=1+

Which of the following could be causing the ABO discrepancy?

a)

Hypogammaglobulinemia

b)

Alloantibody in patient serum

c)

Acquired B

d)

Weak subgroup

44.

Avery, a medical student, is analyzing typing results for a patient. The results show:

Patient cells: Anti-A=neg Anti-B=neg

Patient serum: A1 cells=neg B cells=4+

Which condition would most likely be responsible for these typing results?

a)

Immunodeficiency

b)

Masking of antigens by the presence of massive amounts of antibody

c)

Weak or excessive antigen(s)

d)

Impossible to determine

45.

During a blood typing lab, Maya observed the following results: Anti-A=neg0 Anti-B=4+

A1 cells=neg B cells= neg

Which of the following results is most likely discrepant?

a)

Negative B cells

b)

Positive reaction with anti-B

c)

Negative A1 cells

d)

No problem with this typing

46.

SITUATION: An emergency trauma patient requires transfusion. Six units of blood are ordered stat. There is no time to draw a patient sample. O-negative blood is released. When will compatibility testing be performed?

a)

Compatibility testing must be performed before blood is issued

b)

Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is available

c)

Compatibility testing may be performed immediately using donor serum

d)

Compatibility testing is not necessary when blood is released in emergency situations

47.

During a blood donation drive at the local community center, Priya learned about the AABB standards for blood products. She was curious about which of the following practices is acceptable according to these standards.

a)

Rejuvenated RBCs may be made within 3 days of outdate and transfused or frozen within 24 hours of rejuvenation

b)

Frozen RBCs must be prepared within 30 minutes of collection and may be used within 10 years

c)

Irradiated RBCs must be treated within 8 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours

d)

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs must be prepared within 6 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours of preparation

48.

Grace is studying the guidelines for Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) in her medical class. She learns that all of the following statements regarding FFP are true, except:

a)

FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection

b)

After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours

c)

Storage temperature for FFP with a 1-year shelf life is ≤−18°C

d)

When thawed, FFP must be stored between 1°C–6°C

49.

During a recent blood transfusion, Mia discovered that she has anti-IgA antibodies. What component(s) is (are) indicated for her treatment?

a)

Whole blood

b)

Packed RBCs

c)

Washed or deglycerolized RBCs

d)

Granulocytes

50.

During a medical emergency, a doctor is considering the transfusion of an irradiated blood product for a patient named Elijah. The doctor knows that transfusion of an irradiated product is indicated in all of the following conditions except:

a)

Exchange transfusion

b)

Bone marrow transplant

c)

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome

(SCIDS)

d)

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)

51.

What is the expiration of cryoprecipitate once pooled?

a)

4 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

24 hours

e)

12 hours

52.

What is the number of white blood cells permitted in a unit of leukoreduced red cells?

a)

<5 × 1010

b)

<5 × 106

c)

<8.3 × 105

d)

<8.3 × 106

53.

SITUATION: A cancer patient recently developed a severe infection. The patient’s hemoglobin is 8 g/dL owing to chemotherapy with a drug known to cause bone marrow depression and immunodeficiency. Which blood products are indicated for this patient?

a)

Liquid plasma and cryoprecipitate

b)

Crossmatched platelets and washed RBCs

c)

Factor IX concentrates and FFP

d)

Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes

54.

Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

a)

cryoprecipitate AHF, 4C

b)

FFP, -20C

c)

RBCs, Frozen-40C

d)

Platelet, 37C

55.

The Le gene codes for a specific glycosyltransferase that

transfers an L-fucose to the N-acetylglucosamine on:

a)

Type 1 precursor chain

b)

Type 2 precursor chain

c)

Types 1 and 2 precursor chain

d)

Either type 1 or type 2 in any one individual but not in

both

56.

Secretions of a person with the genes B, Se, and Le contain

which of the following?

a)

B substance, H substance, Lea and Leb substances

b)

B substance, Lea substance

c)

H substance, Lea and Leb substances

d)

H substance, Lea and Leb substances

57.

Secretions of a person with the genes B, sese, and Le

contain which of the following?

a)

B substance, Lea substance

b)

H substance, Lea substance

c)

H substance, Lea and Leb substance

d)

Lea substance

58.

Which of the following best describes MN antigens and

antibodies?

a)

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally

saline-reactive

b)

Not well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally

saline-reactive

c)

Well developed at birth, not susceptible to enzymes, generally

saline-reactive

d)

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally

antiglobulin-reactive

59.

Which blood group system is associated with resistance

to P. vivax malaria?

a)

P

b)

Kell

c)

Duffy

d)

Kidd

60.

Which of the following blood group systems is known

for showing dosage?

a)

I

b)

P

c)

Kidd

d)

Lutheran

61.

Which characteristics are true of all three of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka, and anti-K?

a)

Detected at the IAT phase; may cause hemolytic disease of the newborn and hemolytic transfusion reactions

b)

Not detected with enzyme-treated cells

c)

Requires the IAT technique for detection; usually not associated with HDN

d)

Enhanced reactivity with enzyme-treated cells; may cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions

62.

In an emergency situation, Rh negative red cell are transfused into an Rh positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is?

a)

anti-c

b)

anti-d

c)

anti-e

d)

anti-E

63.

Which of the following is MISMATCHED?

a)

Ley : H.pylori

b)

Fy6: P. knowlesii

c)

GPA : P.falciparum

d)

None of the above

64.

McLeod phenotype

a)

Hydatid cyst

b)

Stomach ulcers

c)

Spontaneous abortion

d)

Mycoplasma pneumonia infection

e)

Chronic granulomatous disease

65.

What is the protein carrier for these antigens: Jka and JKb

a)

Urea transporter

b)

Xk protein

c)

Glycophorin B

d)

Glycophorin A

66.

Transfused plasma constituents resulting in immediate erythema, itching, and hives best typify which of the following transfusion reactions

a)

HTR

b)

DHTR

c)

Allergic

d)

Iron overload

e)

Alloimmunization

67.

Under what circumstances must the Rh type be confirmed

a)

Donor unit previously typed as Rh-positive

b)

Donor unit previously typed as Rh-negative

c)

Donor unit previously typed as A-, B-, or O-negative

d)

Donor unit previously typed as A-, B- or O-positive

68.

The following antibodies are generally considered clinically insignificant because they have not been associated with causing increased destruction of RBCs, HDN, or HTR

a)

Anti-Doa and anti-Coa

b)

Anti-Ge3 and anti-Wra

c)

Anti-Ch2 and anti-Kna

d)

Anti-Dib and anti-Yta

69.

Which of the following donors would be deferred indefinitely?

a)

History of syphilis

b)

History of gonorrhea

c)

Accutane® treatment

d)

Recipient of human growth hormone

70.

Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

a)

Increase in pH

b)

Increase in plasma K+

c)

Increase in plasma Na+

d)

Decrease in plasma hemoglobin