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Response to Infection Review

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ticks are an example of this way of transmitting (spreading) disease

a)

Air-borne

b)

Vector

c)

Touching a surface

d)

Contaminated food or water

2.

Sabrina has the flu. Her neighbor suggests she get a prescription for an antibiotic, but Sabrina's mothers says that antibiotics would not help in this situation. Why?

a)

the flu is caused by a virus, and it cannot be treated with an antibiotic.

b)

the flu is caused by a fungus, and it must be treated with antifungal medication

c)

the flu is caused by a parasitic worm, and must be treated with an anti-parasitic medication

d)

the flu is caused by a bacterium, and it cannot be treated with an antibiotic.

3.
Which best distinguishes an infectious disease from a noninfectious disease?
a)
Infectious diseases can be cured with antibiotics; noninfectious diseases cannot.
b)
Infectious diseases can be prevented with vaccines; noninfectious diseases cannot.
c)
Infectious diseases can be spread from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases cannot.
d)
Infectious diseases cannot be transmitted from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases can.
4.

Epidemic measles outbreaks were once common, but their occurrence has greatly diminished. Which BEST explains this?

a)

Children receive immunity to the measles virus from their mothers

b)

idk

c)

The measles vaccine has greatly reduced the number of viral infections

d)

Increased hand washing has greatly reduced the spread of the measles virus

5.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?

a)

redness

b)

heat

c)

swelling

d)

fever

6.

At the beginning of a fever, does a person typically "feel" cold or warm?

a)

cold

b)

warm

c)

neither

7.

The thermostat of the body is reset by a substance called (a)  

8.
Which of the following is the body’s first line of defense against disease?
a)
vaccines
b)
white blood cells
c)
antibodies
d)
skin
9.
The body’s nonspecific defenses against invading pathogens include
a)
antibiotics.
b)
mucus, sweat and tears.
c)
antibodies.
d)
Killer T cells.
10.
Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n
a)
lymph cell
b)
antigen
c)
antibody
d)
neutrop
11.

Histamine is a chemical involved in the second line of defense. Which of the statements about histamine following is false

a)

Histamine promote blood flow to the area

b)

Histamine eats pathogens

c)

Histamine is responsible for swelling

d)

Histamine is responsible for itching

12.

Why would the body benefit from vasodilation as part of its recovery?

a)

Increased blood flow allows delivery of nutrients and blood cells to the damaged site.

b)

It reduces loss of blood.

c)

Increased blood flow will reduce phagocytosis.

d)

It will allow damaged cells from the area to be removed.

13.

When a pathogen is moved from person to person through physical touch (kissing, hugging, close-up sneezing, shaking hands).

a)

Transmission

b)

Translation

c)

Emission

d)

Direct Contact

e)

Indirect Contact

14.

Pathogens spread from person to person by objects (chairs, medical equipment, office supplies, doorknobs, etc.)

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Foodborne Tranmission

e)

Vector-Borne Transmission

15.

Pathogens spread via aerosol droplets or dust

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Foodborne Tranmission

e)

Vector-Borne Transmission

16.

You are bit by a rabid squirrel! Because of this you contract Rabies. What type of transmission is this?

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Foodborne Transmission

e)

Vector-Borne Transmission

17.

You eat at a restaurant. Someone sneezes on their hand and doesn't wash them. They then prepare a salad. The salad is then delivered to your table. Identify the intermediary.

a)

Hand

b)

Human

c)

Salad

d)

Table

18.

Which describes the mode of entry: Respiratory Tract

a)

Pathogens can enter the body via the mouth, nose, and anus and make their way into the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

b)

Pathogens can enter the body via the nose or mouth and enter into the trachea, bronchioles, and lungs.

c)

Pathogens can enter the body through through the vagina or the penis.

d)

Pathogens can enter the body through the urethra and make their way into the bladder, ureter, and kidneys.

e)

Pathogens enter the body through cuts, sores, or bites.

19.

Which describes the mode of entry: Gastrointestinal Tract

a)

Pathogens can enter the body via the mouth, nose, and anus and make their way into the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

b)

Pathogens can enter the body via the nose or mouth and enter into the trachea, bronchioles, and lungs.

c)

Pathogens can enter the body through through the vagina or the penis.

d)

Pathogens can enter the body through the urethra and make their way into the bladder, ureter, and kidneys.

e)

Pathogens enter the body through cuts, sores, or bites.

20.

Which describes the mode of entry: Reproductive Tract

a)

Pathogens can enter the body via the mouth, nose, and anus and make their way into the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

b)

Pathogens can enter the body via the nose or mouth and enter into the trachea, bronchioles, and lungs.

c)

Pathogens can enter the body through through the vagina or the penis.

d)

Pathogens can enter the body through the urethra and make their way into the bladder, ureter, and kidneys.

e)

Pathogens enter the body through cuts, sores, or bites.

21.

Which describes the mode of entry: Urinary Tract

a)

Pathogens can enter the body via the mouth, nose, and anus and make their way into the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

b)

Pathogens can be absorbed through exposed eyes, nose and mouth.

c)

Pathogens can enter the body through through the vagina or the penis.

d)

Pathogens can enter the body through the urethra and make their way into the bladder, ureter, and kidneys.

e)

Pathogens enter the body through cuts, sores, or bites.

22.

Which describes the mode of entry: Skin

a)

Pathogens can enter the body via the mouth, nose, and anus and make their way into the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

b)

Pathogens can be absorbed through exposed eyes, nose and mouth.

c)

Pathogens can enter the body through through the vagina or the penis.

d)

Pathogens can enter the body through the urethra and make their way into the bladder, ureter, and kidneys.

e)

Pathogens enter the body through cuts, sores, or bites.

23.

Which describes the mode of entry: Mucous membranes

a)

Pathogens can enter the body via the mouth, nose, and anus and make their way into the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

b)

Pathogens can be absorbed through exposed eyes, nose and mouth.

c)

Pathogens can enter the body through through the vagina or the penis.

d)

Pathogens can enter the body through the urethra and make their way into the bladder, ureter, and kidneys.

e)

Pathogens enter the body through cuts, sores, or bites.

24.

A secondary immune response occurs when an antigen is encountered on a second occasion, due to exposure to a pathogen that previously caused infection. Which property of some viruses explains the lack of a secondary immune response?

a)

Viruses fail to induce a primary response.

b)

Viruses can have a high mutation rate.

c)

B cells do not interact with viruses.

d)

Antibodies cannot interact with viruses.

25.

Which sequence of events leads to the production of antibodies?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

26.

What first happens to a B lymphocyte when it becomes activated?

a)

It divides by mitosis producing a clone of cells.

b)

It begins transcription and produces antigens.

c)

It differentiates into memory cells.

d)

It produces antibodies using its extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER).

27.

What occurs in the body after the injection of a vaccine containing antigens?

a)

Activated B-cells divide to form memory cells.

b)

The receiver of the vaccine develops passive immunity.

c)

Helper T-cells produce specific antibodies.

d)

Macrophages are cloned and destroy the antigen.

28.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Active immunity is the stimulation of the immune system to produce antigen-specific antibodies.

b)

Vaccines produce immunological memory similar to that acquired by having the natural disease.

c)

The most common way to acquire passive immunity is to have the natural disease.

d)

Killed forms of a microorganism can act as an antigen.

29.

How can active immunity be acquired?

a)

by having the disease

b)

injection of antibiodies

c)

through colostrum (breastmilk)

d)

via plancenta

30.

Which cells activate helper T-cells by antigen presentation?

a)

B-cells

b)

Bacteria

c)

Macrophages

d)

Plasma cells

31.

When a pathogen is ingested by a phagocyte, which event occurs first?

a)

T-cell antivation

b)

memory cell proliferation

c)

antigen presentation by the phagocyte

d)

B-cell activation

32.

What are antibodies?

a)

Organisms or viruses that cause disease

b)

Drugs used to treat bacterial diseases

c)

Substances the body recognizes as foreign

d)

Proteins that bind to foreign substances

33.
These cells activate killer T cells and other helper T cells as well as activate B cells
a)
Helper T Cells
b)
Cytotoxic T Cells
c)
Macrophages
d)
Suppressor Cells
34.
A white blood cell that makes antibodies
a)
T cell
b)
bacteria
c)
B cell
d)
mast cell
35.
These cells remain in the blood stream after an immune response.
a)
Memory B and T Cells
b)
Killer T Cells and B Cells
c)
Helper T  and B Cells
d)
Suppressor Cells and Macrophages
36.
A type of T cell that destroys infected cells is a:
a)
cytotoxic T cell
b)
helper T cell
c)
memory T cell
d)
suppressor T cell
37.

Once a b-cell is activated, it enlarges and divides to produce

a)

t-cells

b)

memory b-cells

c)

plasma cells

d)

helper t-cells

38.

Where do T-lymphocytes mature?

a)

bone marrow

b)

spleen

c)

liver

d)

thymus

39.

Which cells ensure that normal tissue does not get destroyed?

a)

helper t-cells

b)

suppressor t-cells

c)

memory t-cells

d)

lymphocytes

40.

Lymphocytes that reduce the immune response of other cells so immune system does not overreact to an infection are called...?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Killer T cells

c)

Suppressor T cells

d)

Memory T cells

41.

Lymphocytes that survive for years after the infection and speed up any subsequent action of T cells are called...?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Killer T cells

c)

Suppressor T cells

d)

Memory T cells

42.

This type of vaccine uses a live virus that has been weakened or altered in some way.

a)

Toxoid vaccine

b)

mRNA vaccine

c)

Attenuated vaccine

d)

Inactivated vaccine

43.

Vaccines that introduce a small piece of the virus to the host are known as

a)

toxoid vaccines

b)

subunit vaccines

c)

inactivated vaccines

d)

mRNA vaccines

44.
Special proteins produced by the body to attack foreign invaders.
a)
antibodies
b)
antigen
45.
Substances that cause the body to produce antibodies.
a)
antibodies
b)
antigens
46.

Injection of a killed or weakened infectious organism in order to prevent the disease.

a)

Hot Agent

b)

Immunity

c)

Vaccination

47.

Protection against a disease. There are two types, passive and active. This is indicated by the presence of antibodies in the blood and can usually be determined with a laboratory test.

a)

Immunity

b)

Vaccination

c)

Community Immunity

48.

What is herd immunity?

a)

When a herd of animals gather together for protection against a predator

b)

When enough people in a community have immunity (through vaccination or recovery) to protect those who don't have immunity from getting the disease

c)

When anti-vaxxers convince enough people not to get vaccines, allowing a disease so spread in a community again.

d)

When a pathogen passes freely from contagious people to those who are susceptible

49.

How can you get immunity? Check all that apply.

a)

By actually getting the disease and having memory white blood cells that know what antibodies to make for that pathogen

b)

By getting a plasma transfusion of antibodies

c)

By hiding in a bunker

d)

By getting a vaccine for that disease that will help you develop memory white blood cells that know what antibodies to make for that pathogen.

50.

What can impact the percentage of people that need to be vaccinated for herd immunity to be achieved? Check all that apply.

a)

How spread out the population is

b)

How effective the vaccine is

c)

How much autism it causes

d)

How infectious a disease is.

51.
Vaccines stimulate the body to produce...
a)
autoimmune diseases
b)
helper t-cells
c)
fever
d)
antibodies
52.
What is the function of innate immune response?
a)
Act very rapid as a first line of defense to eliminate the infection
b)
Trap microbes so they cannot spread in our body freely
c)
Coordinate and support adaptive immunity
d)
All of the above
53.
What is the main advantage of live attenuated vaccine?
a)
It provides more durable immunity; boosters may be required, though less frequently than would otherwise be necessary.
b)
It is safer than other kinds of vaccines.
c)
It does not cause any severe side effects or complications.
d)
It is suitable for people with any type of health.
54.
Which is not true about subunit vaccines?
a)
They can be designed using molecular biology technique
b)
They are less harmful than live attenuated vaccine.
c)
They generally are made of polypeptide or oligopeptide.
d)
They provide lifetime protection.
55.
Since we have our immune system to protect us from disease, why do we still need a vaccine?
a)
Because some diseases are too severe for our immune system.
b)
Because adaptive immunity takes days to weeks to initiate a response and sometimes it is too late.
c)
Because some people are immune deficient or have weak immune systems.
d)
All of the above
56.
After an initial infection, B-cells recognize the measles virus. How is this helpful in human immune response? 
a)
The B-cells use this recognition to defend the body against other pathogens, such as bacteria.
b)
 The B-cells more quickly recognize and respond to any other virus that invades the body.
c)
The B-cells produce antibodies more quickly if the measles virus is encountered again.
d)
The B-cells transfer this recognition to T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.
57.

Compounds that block the growth and reproduction of bacteria.

a)

AIDS

b)

HIV

c)

Antibiotics

58.
Which is an example of passive immunity?
a)
people being vaccinated against disease
b)
people taking vitamins to boost their immune response
c)
people receiving antibodies from their mothers before birth
d)
people producing antibodies against organisms that cause diseases they have had previosuly
59.
A secondary immune response will be faster when...
a)
The individual has encountered the pathogen already
b)
The individual's macrophages are on high alert
c)
The individual has encountered the pathogen and has memory B cells circulating
d)
All of the above
60.
Antibiotics do not work on 
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
fungi
d)
children
61.

Which best describes the relationship between antibodies and antigen?

a)

One antibody can affect several different antigens.

b)

Antibodies are specific to one antigen.

c)

Antigens are produced in response to antigen.

d)

Immunity develops when an antigen destroys an antibody.

62.

immunity that occurs when a person's own immune system produces antibodies in response to the presence of a pathogen when a person gets sick

a)

Natural Passive Immunity

b)

Natural Active Immunity

c)

Artificial Active Immunity

d)

Artificial Passive Immunity

63.

immunity in which antibodies are given to a person rather than produced within the person's own body

a)

Artificial Passive Immunity

b)

Natural Passive Immunity

c)

Artificial Active Immunity

d)

Artificial Passive Immunity

64.

Which immunity is present at birth and passed from the mother to the baby through milk and the placenta?

a)

Artificial Active Immunity

b)

Natural Active immunity

c)

Natural passive immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

65.

When the body launches an immune response against its own cells

a)

Koch's Postulates

b)

Immunity

c)

Vaccine

d)

Autoimmune disease

e)

AIDS

66.

Diphtheria is a disease caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. A six month old baby boy, whose mother and father both had diphtheria as children, will develop active immunity against diphtheria if he

a)

is being breast fed

b)

receives a blood transfusion from the father

c)

receives an injection of weakened diphtheria bacteria

d)

receives injections of gamma globulin from the mother

67.
What is the correct order of your body’s lines of defense against a disease?
a)
physical (skin) and chemical barriers, inflammatory response (swelling), immune system
b)
immune system, physical (skin) and chemical barriers, inflammatory response
c)
immune system, inflammatory response, physical (skin) and chemical barriers
d)
physical (skin) and chemical barriers, immune system, inflammatory response  
68.
The inflammatory response can cause
a)
permanent immunity.
b)
pain, swelling and fever.
c)
antibodies to bind to antigens.
d)
killer T cells to attack infected cells.
69.
PROTEINS:
WHICH PROTEINS AFFECT THE HYPOTHALAMUS DIRECTLY?
a)
COMPLEMENT PROTEINS
b)
INTERFERONS
c)
OPSONINS
d)
PYROGENS
70.
WHICH PROCESS REMOVES WASTE MATERIAL FROM WITHIN A CELL AFTER IT HAS DESTROYED A PATHOGEN?
a)
PHAGOCYTOSIS
b)
EXOCYTOSIS
c)
APOPTOSIS
71.
WHICH PROCESS IS ALSO KNOWN AS CELL SUICIDE?
a)
PHAGOCYTOSIS
b)
EXOCYTOSIS
c)
APOPTOSIS
72.

What is the cause of swelling in the area of damaged tissue?

a)

Spilled contents of cells

b)

The release of histamine by mast cells

c)

Phagocytes consume cellular debris and pahtogens

d)

Increased capillary permeability

73.

What chemical do cells release that cause a fever?

a)

Histamine

b)

Pyrogens

c)

Membrane Attack Complex

d)

Opsonins

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