wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam

Total questions: 222

Worksheet time: 2hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Different forms of a gene are called

a)

hybrids

b)

dominant factors

c)

alleles

d)

recessive factors

2.

If a homozygous tall pea plant and a homozygous short pea plant are crossed then

a)

the recessive trait seems to disappear

b)

the offspring are of medium height

c)

no hybrids are produced

d)

all the offspring are short

3.

A Punnett square is used to determine the

a)

probably outcome of a cross

b)

actual outcome of a cross

c)

result of mitosis

d)

result of meiosis

4.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a)

hybrid

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous

d)

genotype

5.

The physical characteristics of an organism are its

a)

genetics

b)

heredity

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

6.

The illustration below represents what stage of meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Metaphase I

7.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of

a)

one haploid cell

b)

three diploid polar bodies

c)

four diploid gamete cells

d)

four haploid gamete cells

8.

To maintain the chromosome number of an organism, the gametes must

a)

become diploid

b)

become recessive

c)

be produced by mitosis

d)

be produced by meiosis

9.

A gene map shows

a)

the number of possible alleles for a gene

b)

the relative locations of genes on a chromosome

c)

where chromosomes are in a cell

d)

how crossing-over occurs

10.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
11.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
12.
Crossing over helps promote 
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
13.
What is the name of the step found above?
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Anaphase I
14.

This law describes how each member of a homologous pair is pulled randomly to one side or another in anaphase I

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Gravity

d)

Law of Mathematical Order

15.

This law describes how each homologous pair separates independently of any other pairs during Anaphase I of meiosis

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Gravity

d)

Law of Mathematical Order

16.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
17.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

18.

Check all that apply.

Reproductive cells are _______.

a)

haploid

b)

gametes

c)

somatic

d)

identical

e)

diverse

19.

The process by which one strain of bacteria is apparently changed into another strain is called

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

transformation

d)

replication

20.

Bacteriophages are

a)

tiny bacteria

b)

enzymes

c)

coils of RNA

d)

viruses

21.

In prokaryotes, DNA molecules are located in the

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoplasm

d)

histone

22.

The diagram below shows which step in the process of DNA?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

transformation

23.
This scientist(s) found a "transforming principle" that changed harmless bacteria into harmful bacteria
a)
Mendel
b)
Avery
c)
Chargraff
d)
Griffith
24.
The scientist(s) who settled the debate about whether it was proteins or DNA that was the genetic material of the cell
a)
Avery
b)
Hershey & Chase
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Griffith
25.
This scientist(s) conducted experiments that involved injecting mice with S bacteria and R bacteria.
a)
Avery
b)
Griffith
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Hershey & Chase
26.
Avery added an enzyme known to break down proteins to his extract, and saw that the bacteria were ____________________
a)
still transformed
b)
not transformed
c)
all killed
d)
all sick
27.
Avery added an enzyme known to break down DNA to his extract, and saw that the bacteria were __________________
a)
still transformed 
b)
not transformed
c)
all sick
d)
all killed
28.
By using radioactive isotopes, Hershey and Chase were able to conclude that __ is/are the carrier(s) of genetic information.
a)
nucleic acid
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Lipids
29.

What are the proper complementary base-pairs?

a)

A--T and G--C

b)

A--G and C--T

c)

G--T and A--C

d)

A--C and T--G

30.

T A G G A C T


The complementary strand is...

a)

T A G G A C T

b)

A T G G T G A

c)

A T C C T G A

d)

T T C C A G T

31.

If a strand of DNA has 39% Cytosine, it has...

a)

39% Adenine

b)

39% Guanine

c)

39% Thymine

d)

39% combined Cytosine and Guanine

32.

What enzymes are involved in DNA replication?

a)

helicase, catalase

b)

RNA polymerase, catalase

c)

helicase, DNA polymerase

d)

DNA polymerase, catalase

33.

How many nucleotide bases are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

34.

Who was credited with the discovery of the structure of the DNA molecule?

a)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

b)

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins

c)

James Watson and Francis Crick

d)

Linus Pauling

35.

A normal human diploid zygote contains

a)

23 chromosomes

b)

46 chromosomes

c)

44 chromosomes

d)

XXY chromosomes

36.

A chart that traces the inheritance of a trait in a family is called a (an)

a)

pedigree

b)

karyotype

c)

genome

d)

autosomal

37.

Traits that are caused by the interaction of many genes are said to be

a)

polyploid

b)

linked

c)

polygenetic

d)

autosomal

38.

An example of a trait that is determined by multiple alleles is

a)

Huntington disease

b)

ABO blood groups

c)

Down syndrome

d)

hemophilia

39.

Most sex-linked genes are found on the

a)

Y chromosome

b)

O chromosome

c)

YY chromosomes

d)

X chromosome

40.

Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is

a)

sex-linked

b)

sex-influenced

c)

fairly common

d)

more common in women than in men

41.

Which parental pair could produce females with colorblindness?

a)

homozygous normal vision mother, father with colorblindness

b)

mother with colorblindness, normal-vision father

c)

heterozygous normal-vision mother, normal vision father

d)

heterozygous normal-vision mother, father with colorblindness

42.

A common genetic disorder characterized by bend and twisted red blood cells is

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

hemophilia

c)

sickle cell disease

d)

muscular dystrophy

43.

A woman is homozygous for A-negative blood type. A man has AB-negative blood type. What is the probability that the couple's child will be type B-negative?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

44.

A child has colorblindness. Which genotype-phenotype combination is NOT possible in the child's parents?

a)

The father does not carry the allele and does not have colorblindness

b)

The mother carries one allele but does not have colorblindness

c)

The father carries one allele but does not have colorblindness

d)

The father carries one allele and has colorblindness

45.
This is a picture of chromosomes arranged in homologous pairs---what is it called? 
a)
Genome
b)
Punnett Square 
c)
Karyotype
d)
Autosomal cells 
46.
Looking at the karyotype, is this person male or female?
a)
There is no way to tell from a karyotype.
b)
Male 
c)
Female 
d)
This person has a genetic disorder
47.
A gene located on the sex chromosome
a)
autosome
b)
sex-linked
c)
genetic disorder
d)
sex gene
48.
What is the probability that a human sperm cell will carry a X chromosome?
a)
50%
b)
100%
c)
25%
d)
0%
49.
Cystic fibrosis is caused by
a)
a small change in the DNA sequence of one gene
b)
nondisjunction during meiosis
c)
crossing-over between sex-chromosomes
d)
the combined effects of many genes
50.
Which term(s) best describes the inheritance of human blood types? 
a)
incomplete dominance and multiple alleles
b)
codominance and epistasis
c)
codominance and multiple alleles
d)
incomplete dominance and codominance
51.

Who observed variations in the characteristics of animals and plants on the different islands of the Galapagos?

a)

James Hutton

b)

Charles Lyell

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Thomas Malthus

52.

In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called

a)

fossils

b)

adaptations

c)

homologous structures

d)

vestigial organs

53.

Which of the following ideas proposed by Lamarck was later found to be INCORRECT?

a)

Acquired characteristics can be inherited

b)

All species were descended from other species

c)

Living things change over time

d)

Organisms are adapted to their environments

54.

Differences among individuals of a species are referred to as

a)

natural variation

b)

fitness

c)

natural selection

d)

adaptation

55.

Which would an animal breeder use to produce cows that give more milk?

a)

overproduction

b)

genetic isolation

c)

acquired characteristics

d)

artificial selection

56.

An inherited characteristic that increases an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is called a(an)

a)

vestigial organ

b)

adaptation

c)

speciation

d)

radiation

57.

The concept that each living species has descended with changes, from other species over time is referred to as

a)

descent with modification

b)

artificial selection

c)

theory of acquired characteristics

d)

natural selection

58.

Structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissues are

a)

vestigial organs

b)

adaptations

c)

homologous structures

d)

fossils

59.

The economist who reasoned that if the human population continued to grow unchecked, eventually there would not be enough resources was

a)

Lamarck

b)

Darwin

c)

Malthus

d)

Lyell

60.

In recent years "SuperBugs" (bacteria that aren't effected by antibiotics) are becoming more and more common. How could natural selection explain this?

a)

Superbugs have developed resistance because they can survive antibiotics and reproduce

b)

Antibiotics cause bacteria to become superbugs

c)

We have always had the same amount of superbugs; modern media just discusses them more.

d)

There is no reliable data on the origin of super bugs.

61.

Which of these is an example of natural selection?

a)

The largest animal in a population will have more opportunities for reproduction.

b)

Several species of organisms work together so that they all succeed.

c)

One species takes all the resources in an environment leaving none for others.

d)

Organisms that are best suited to an environment tend to survive and reproduce more often.

62.
Which of the following explains adaptation.
a)
An individual organism changes to meet its needs in the environment. These changes pass down to their offspring.
b)
The species as a whole changes their characteristics.
c)
Beneficial traits allow organism to survive and pass on those traits
d)
New characteristics arise in a species as needed.  If these traits are helpful, they are passed down.
63.

How does embryology support the Theory of Evolution?

a)

It shows that embryos who develop similarly share a common ancestor

b)

It shows that embryos who develop similarly are not related to one another

c)

It shows that organisms have the ability to evolve, or change, over time

64.
Choose which scientist corresponds best with the statement: 
use or disuse
a)
Darwin 
b)
Lamarck
65.
What do we call differences among heritable traits?
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Evolution
d)
Speciation
66.
Lamarck’s ideas about evolution include the concept that differences among the traits of organisms arise as a result of
a)
continual increases in population size.
b)
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c)
an unchanging local environment.
d)
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
67.
In comparing Malthus's theory to actual world food production and population growth during the past half-century, the principal difference is that:
a)
actual food production has been much higher than Malthus predicted.
b)
actual population growth has been much higher than Malthus predicted.
c)
Malthus's theory predicted much higher population growth than has actually occurred.
d)
population increased geometrically while food production increased arithmetically.
68.

Populations are controlled by war, disease & famine.

a)

Malthus

b)

Hutton

c)

Lyell

d)

Lamarck

e)

Wallace

69.

Sent Darwin and essay with similar ideas as what Darwin proposed.

a)

Malthus

b)

Hutton

c)

Lyell

d)

Lamarck

e)

Wallace

70.

Wrote "Principles of Geology". Geologic events that occurred in the past will continue to occur in the future.

a)

Malthus

b)

Hutton

c)

Lyell

d)

Lamarck

e)

Wallace

71.

One of the first theories of evolution. Organisms can acquire traits over their lifetime.

a)

Malthus

b)

Hutton

c)

Lyell

d)

Lamarck

e)

Wallace

72.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
73.

An anatomical feature that no longer seams to have a purpose in the current form of an organism

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

None of the above

74.

Which of the following are vestigial structures humans have? Select all that apply.

a)

Appendix

b)

Tailbone

c)

Forearm bones

d)

Goosebumps

75.

Whales have pelvic bones. What type of structure does this best represent?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

None of the above

76.

The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population forms a

a)

gene pool

b)

niche

c)

phenotype

d)

population

77.

The success of an organism in surviving and reproducing is a measure of its

a)

fitness

b)

polygenic traits

c)

speciation

d)

gene pool

78.

Traits that are controlled by more than one gene, such as human height, are known as

a)

single-gene traits

b)

polygenic traits

c)

recessive traits

d)

dominant traits

79.

The type of selection in which individuals of average size have greater fitness than small or large individuals is called

a)

disruptive selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

genetic drift

80.

The type of selection in which individuals at one end of a curve have the highest fitness is called

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

the founder effect

81.

If coat color in a rabbit population is a polygenic trait, which process might have produced the graph below?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

genetic equilibrium

82.

A random change in a small population's allele frequency is known as

a)

a gene pool

b)

genetic drift

c)

variation

d)

fitness

83.

A change in allele frequency that results from the migration of a small subgroup of a population is called

a)

natural selection

b)

the Hardy-Weinberg principle

c)

the founder-effect

d)

genetic equillibrum

84.

A group of individuals of the same species that interbreed make up a

a)

species

b)

gene pool

c)

population

d)

genetic drift

85.

The evolution of Darwin's finches is an example of

a)

equilibrium

b)

speciation

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

artificial selection

86.

Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?

a)

p2

b)

2pq

c)

q2

d)

p2 + 2pq

87.
What do you call all of the genes in a population?
a)
Gene pool
b)
Relative Frequency
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Allele pool
88.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
89.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
90.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
91.

If a population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection, which of the following would you predict?

a)

The population will evolve, but much more slowly than normal

b)

The makeup of the population's gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold.

c)

The composition of the population's gene pool will change slowly in a predictable manner.

d)

Dominant alleles in the population's gene pool will slowly increase in frequency while recessive alleles will decrease.

e)

The population probably has an equal frequency of A and a alleles.

92.

Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are now mating only with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

hybrid sterility

c)

temporal isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

93.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
94.
Gentoo penguins will present a mate with a pebble that they find to attract a mate. Emperor penguins have a specific call and movement that they make to attract a mate. Which type of isolation do these penguins demonstrate?
a)
temporal isolation 
b)
behavioral isolation
c)
geographical isolation
d)
anatomical isolation
95.

In the Great Lakes region of North America, gray wolves and coyotes are similar species but do not mate because their breeding periods occur at different times of the year.

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Temporal isolation

96.

The American toad (Anaxyrus americanus) and Fowler's toad (Bufo fowleri) live in the same area. However, The American toad mates in early summer while Fowler’s mates in late summer.

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Temporal isolation

97.

Albert’s squirrel and the Kaibab squirrel are distinct subspecies that live on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon. They were once one species, but now differ significantly, including fur coloring.

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Temporal isolation

98.

Changes in the gene pool over time.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Genetic Variation

c)

Gene Pool

d)

Genetic Drift

99.

Organisms of the same species do not interbreed for various reasons.

a)

Genetic Isolation

b)

Gene Pool

c)

Adaptation

d)

Survival of the Fittest

100.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

101.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

geographic selection

d)

disruptive selection

102.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

disruptive selection

103.

Tall kelp have a distinct advantage over shorter kelp in receiving needed sunlight in their ocean environment

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

sexual selection

e)

artificial selection

104.

Aspen trees that are over 25 m tend to blow over in high winds; aspen that are under 15 m don't get enough sun

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

105.

snails with a forward spiral and snails with a backward spiral have an advantage in their environment

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

106.

Scientists who specialize in the study of fossils are called

a)

biologists

b)

paleontologists

c)

zoologists

d)

anthropologists

107.

Sedimentary rocks form when layers of small particles are compressed

a)

in the atmosphere

b)

in a snowfield

c)

in mountains

d)

under water

108.

Radiometric dating of rock samples

a)

is a method of absolute dating

b)

is a method of relative dating

c)

forms a geologic column

d)

forms a geologic time scale

109.

Half-life is the length of time required for half the atoms in a radioactive sample to

a)

decay

b)

double

c)

expand

d)

be created

110.

Earth's atmosphere contained little or no

a)

hydrogen cyanide

b)

hydrogen sulfide

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

111.

In Miller and Urey's experiments with the origin of life-forms, electric sparks were passed through a mixture of gases to

a)

simulate temperature

b)

simulate sunlight

c)

sterilize gases

d)

simulate lightning

112.

Outlines of ancient cells that are preserved well enough to identify them as prokaryotes are

a)

microfossils

b)

heterotrophs

c)

autotrophs

d)

phototrophic

113.

Which event occurred at the end of the Paleozoic Era

a)

coevolution

b)

mass extinction

c)

punctuated equilibrium

d)

convergent evolution

114.

The process that produces a similar appearance among unrelated groups of organisms is

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

coevolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

mass evolution

115.

As a group, the larger-scale evolutionary changes that take place over long periods of time are called

a)

macroevolution

b)

coevolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

geologic time

116.

_______________________ are the remains or imprints left behind from plants and animals.

a)

Fossil

b)

Record

c)

Papyrus

d)

Quality

117.

Which layer is OLDER? Layer M or Intrusion P?

a)

Layer M

b)

Intrusion P

118.

Analyze the seashell found in the white layer. Which statement is true of the rock layer that contains this fossil?

a)

It could also contain a fossil from the bottom layer.

b)

It is older than the layers below it.

c)

It is younger than the layers above it.

d)

It is older than the layers above it.

119.

What are the relative ages of the features in order from oldest to youngest?

a)

Limestone, Basalt, Fault, Siltstone

b)

Siltstone, Fault, Basalt, Limestone

c)

Limestone, Fault, Basalt, Siltstone

d)

Limestone, Siltstone, Fault, Basalt

120.

Unstable atoms that decay (change) and are considered radioactive

a)

Isotope

b)

Half-Life

c)

Absolute Dating

d)

Radiometric Dating

121.

Length of time for half the atoms of an isotope to decay

a)

Isotope

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radiometric Dating

d)

Absolute Dating

122.

The age of rocks and geologic features compared with other rocks and features nearby.

a)

Relative Age

b)

Absolute Age

123.
According to the graph, what fraction of the original parent isotope still exists after 3 half lives?
a)
0,5000 g
b)
0,2500 g
c)
0,1250 g
d)
0.0625 g
124.

What percentage of the original isotope is left after 2 half-lives?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

125.

The entire history of the Earth can be divided into the Precambrian (ancient) Eon and the Phanerozoic (current) Eon. Which of the following correctly represents the percent of Earth's history occupied by each?

a)

88% Precambrian, 12% Phanerozoic

b)

12% Precambrian, 88% Phanerozoic

c)

81% Precambrian, 19% Phanerozoic

d)

19% Precambrian, 81% Phanerozoic

126.

Earth’s most primitive life forms are represented by:

a)

prokaryotic cells.

b)

plants.

c)

fungi.

d)

tube worms.

127.

Earth's current atmosphere is composed mostly of nitrogen gas. Where did all of this nitrogen come from?

a)

from the breakdown of the ammonia in the early atmosphere

b)

from outer space via comets and asteroid

c)

directly from the Earth's outer core

d)

from the photosynthesis of early bacteria

128.
Which period are we currently in?
a)
Quaternary
b)
Holocene
c)
Jurassic
d)
Tertiary
129.
The apparatus in the experiment was used to mimic what?
a)
proteins
b)
Earth's present conditions
c)
early Earth's conditions
d)
they didn't mean to mimic anything in particular
130.
The gas in the apparatus mimicked? 
a)
space
b)
time
c)
stars
d)
atmosphere
131.
The electrical sparks mimicked?
a)
heat waves
b)
lightening
c)
volcano
d)
hurricane
132.
What was the result of the Miller-Urey Experiment?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
lipids
d)
glucose
133.

"Endosymbiosis" means

a)

Living together

b)

Entering together

c)

Living separately

d)

Joining together

134.

____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.

a)

Nucleus and cell membrane

b)

Chloroplast and mitochondria

c)

Mitochondria and nucleus

d)

Cell wall and chloroplast

135.

Bacteria are an example of a _________ cell.

a)

Eukaryotic

b)

Prokaryotic

c)

animal

d)

plant

136.
Which portion of the timeline is known as the "Age of Mammals"?
a)
Precambrian Time
b)
Paleozoic Era
c)
Mesozoic Era
d)
Cenozoic Era
137.
Which portion of the timeline is known as the "Age of Dinosaurs"?
a)
Precambrian Time
b)
Paleozoic Era
c)
Mesozoic Era
d)
Cenozoic Era
138.
Place the following in order starting with the OLDEST
1  Paleozoic
2  Cenozoic
3  Precambrian
4  Mesozoic
a)
1 3 2 4 
b)
3 1 4 2
c)
4 3 2 1 
d)
2 3 1 4
139.
The mostly deadly Mass Extinction (90% of species) occurs at the end of the...
a)
Paleozoic Era 
b)
Mesozoic Era
c)
Cenozoic Era
d)
Precambrian Time
140.
What is a mass extinction?
a)
When all the species in a particular area on earth suddenly go extinct
b)
When multiple species from all over the earth suddenly go extinct 
c)
When one species goes extinct due to habitat changes
d)
When all life on earth is wiped out 
141.
In convergent evolution, organisms share physical similarities because they 
a)
have a common ancestor
b)
live in the same enviornment
c)
develop homologous structures
d)
are closely related 
142.
a)
The image shows analogous structures.
b)
The image shows convergent evolution.
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation. 
d)
The image shows organisms that are not closely related.
143.
a)
The image shows convergent evolution.
b)
The image shows divergent evolution.
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation.
d)
The image shows homologous structures.
144.
Flying fish, flying birds, and bats are examples of which of the following?
a)
convergent evolution & homologous structures
b)
convergent evolution & analogous structures
c)
divergent evolution & homologous structures
d)
divergent evolution & analogous structures
145.
A bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and get the nectar/pollen inside.  Other insects cannot do this. This adaption is an example of........
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
146.
What is a mass extinction?
a)
When all the species in a particular area on earth suddenly go extinct
b)
When multiple species from all over the earth suddenly go extinct 
c)
When one species goes extinct due to habitat changes
d)
When all life on earth is wiped out 
147.
What type of evolution where there is a sudden, rapid change then no change for a long time?
a)
Co-Evolution
b)
Punctuated Equilibrium
c)
Divergent Evolution
d)
Convergent Evolution
148.

Evolution occurring gradually and slowly over long periods of time

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Stasis

c)

Punctuated Equilibrium

d)

Gradualism

149.

Which form of evolution can occur quickly?

a)

gradualism

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

allopatric speciation

d)

sympatric speciation

150.

Prokaryotes are unlike all other organisms in that their cells

a)

lack nuclei

b)

have organelles

c)

have cell walls

d)

lack nucleic acid

151.

Archaebacteria that live in oxygen-free-environments include

a)

methanogens

b)

retroviruses

c)

bacteriophages

d)

protists

152.

Which micrograph shows bacillus bacteria?

a)
b)
c)
d)
153.

Bacteria reproduce asexually by

a)

binary fission

b)

spores

c)

conjunction

d)

fixation

154.

The process of converting nitrogen into a form plants can use is known as nitrogen

a)

conjugation

b)

sterilization

c)

decomposition

d)

fixation

155.

Particles made up of nucleic acids, proteins, and in some cases, lipids can reproduce only by infecting living cells are known as

a)

bacteria

b)

capsids

c)

prophages

d)

viruses

156.

The outer protein coat of a virus is a

a)

core of DNA

b)

core of RNA

c)

capsid

d)

membrane envelope

157.

One group of viruses that contain RNA as their genetic information is

a)

oncogenic virus

b)

retroviruses

c)

capsids

d)

prophages

158.

Disease-causing organisms are known as

a)

cocci

b)

bacilli

c)

pathogens

d)

archaebacteria

159.
Viruses are made of
a)
Nucleic Acids and DNA
b)
Nucleic Acids and Proteins
c)
Proteins and Bacteriophages
d)
Proteins and Capsids
160.
A Pathogen is a
a)
disease causing agent
b)
endospore
c)
bacteria
d)
virus
161.
Obligate Anaerobes _____
a)
need oxygen
b)
prefer nitrogen
c)
can only survive in an oxygen free environment
d)
are endospores
162.

Any change, other than an injury, that disrupts the normal functions of a person's body is a

a)

Disease

b)

Pathogen

c)

Toxin

d)

Vector

163.

Disease-causing agents such as viruses, bacteria, and fungi are known as

a)

antibodies

b)

antigens

c)

pathogens

d)

toxins

164.

The germ theory of disease was established by

a)

Steere

b)

Koch

c)

Hooke

d)

Salk

165.

The body's most important nonspecific defense against pathogens is

a)

tears

b)

mucus

c)

saliva

d)

skin

166.

A nonspecific defense reaction to tissue damage caused by injury or infection is known as

a)

the inflammatory response

b)

active immunity

c)

cell-mediated immunity

d)

passive immunity

167.

The swelling and pain associated with inflammation are caused by the

a)

secretion of antibodies

b)

expansion of local blood vessels

c)

secretion of antigens

d)

destruction of bacteria by white blood cells

168.

A protein that helps other cells resist viral infection is

a)

interferon

b)

penicillin

c)

prednisone

d)

histamine

169.

In the illustration below, Label X is point to the ________.

a)

antigen-binding sites

b)

antigens

c)

antibodies

d)

interferons

170.

A substance that triggers an immune response is a (an)

a)

antibody

b)

antigen

c)

B-cell

d)

pathogen

171.

Mast cells release chemicals known as

a)

antibodies

b)

antigens

c)

histamines

d)

pathogens

172.

Which of the following was NOT a believed cause of disease prior to the 1870s?

a)

evil spirits

b)

bad smells

c)

bacteria

d)

curses

173.

An animal that carries a pathogen that can infect a human is called a .....

a)

pathogen

b)

disease

c)

vector

d)

biotic agent

174.

The idea that microorganisms cause disease is called________.

a)

disease theory

b)

Koch's postulates

c)

bacteria theory

d)

germ theory

175.

Which scientist worked with broth to discover that the idea of spontaneous generation is wrong?

a)

Koch

b)

Semmelweis

c)

Pasteur

d)

Snow

176.

Which scientist created a set of postulates to identify that germs are responsible for causing diseases?

a)

Pasteur

b)

Semmelweis

c)

Snow

d)

Koch

177.

What can help stop the spread of viruses?

a)

isolating bad air

b)

antibiotics

c)

removing all water pumps

d)

vaccination

178.

Antibiotics will kill which of the following:

a)

viruses

b)

fungus

c)

protists

d)

bacteria

179.

Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease?

a)

Influenza

b)

AIDS

c)

Cancer

d)

Small Pox

180.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...
a)
store genetic information
b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticulum
181.
Disease-causing microorganism, such as a bacterium or fungus.
a)
antigen
b)
prion
c)
pathogen
d)
allergen
182.

Cells that engulf and digest pathogens are

a)

plasma cells

b)

phagocytic cells

c)

helper T cells

d)

antibodies

183.

Which of these words should you include in a description of phagocytosis?

a)

Swallow and Digest

b)

Engulf and Digest

c)

Engulf and Destroy

d)

Digest and Kill

184.
What are the 4 types of pathogens that could cause illness?
a)
animals, bacteria, fungi and plants
b)
bacteria, fungi, nucleus, protist
c)
bacteria, fungi, viruses, protist
d)
bacteria, plants, fungi, protist
185.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which pathogens are spread?

a)

Soil

b)

Water

c)

Person-Person

d)

Infected Animals

e)

Dirty Laundry

186.

A multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that can cause infection, and act as a parasite. Example: athlete's foot, and ringworm.

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungus

d)

Protozoa

187.

Nonspecific responses are quick, fight all invaders, and consist of which of the following?

a)

Intact skin and mucous membranes.

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Antibodies

d)

Memory Cells and Plasma Cells

188.

The first line of defense consists of non specific barriers to block entry into the body. Which of the following is NOT one of those defenses?

a)

Skin

b)

Nasal Hairs

c)

Gastric Juice

d)

Plasma

e)

Ear Wax

189.

When viruses infect body cells, certain host cells produce proteins that inhibit synthesis of viral proteins and help block viral replication. this protein is called

a)

histamine

b)

lysozyme

c)

interferons

d)

amylase

190.

The main role of antibodies is

a)

increase the production of viral proteins

b)

destroy pathogens

c)

tag antigens for destruction by immune cells.

d)

inhabit the production of viral proteins

191.

……………..increase the flow of blood and fluids to the affected area and enlarge blood capillaries

a)

histamine

b)

lysozyme

c)

phagocyte

d)

B cells

192.

The inflammatory response causes infected areas to become

a)

dry and cold

b)

painful, cold and red

c)

red, warm but with no sense of pain

d)

red, warm and painful, or inflamed.

193.

The main working cells of the immune response

a)

B cells

b)

antibodies

c)

T cells

d)

B & T cells

194.

Compounds that block the growth and reproduction of bacteria.

a)

AIDS

b)

HIV

c)

Antibiotics

195.

A condition in which a person's immune system is overly sensitive to environmental substances that are normally harmless.

a)

Allergy

b)

Antigen

c)

Bacteria

d)

Virus

196.
Which is an example of passive immunity?
a)
people being vaccinated against disease
b)
people taking vitamins to boost their immune response
c)
people receiving antibodies from their mothers before birth
d)
people producing antibodies against organisms that cause diseases they have had previosuly
197.
Antibiotics do not work on 
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
fungi
d)
children
198.

A weakened or dead virus can act as a:

a)

Allergen

b)

Virus

c)

Vaccine

d)

Pathogen

199.

When the body launches an immune response against its own cells

a)

Koch's Postulates

b)

Immunity

c)

Vaccine

d)

Autoimmune disease

e)

AIDS

200.

Pathogens that are spread via animals and insects. The animal or insect passes the pathogen to people.

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Foodborne Tranmission

e)

Vector-Borne Transmission

201.

You are bit by a rabid squirrel! Because of this you contract Rabies. Identify the vector.

a)

Human

b)

Squirrel

c)

Rabies

202.

You are bit by a rabid squirrel! Because of this you contract Rabies. Identify the host.

a)

Human

b)

Squirrel

c)

Rabies

203.

The set of reactions of an organism to changes in its internal condition or external environment is called

a)

behavior

b)

learning

c)

conditioning

d)

stimuli

204.

Light, sound, and temperature are examples of

a)

responses

b)

behaviors

c)

circadian rhythms

d)

external stimuli

205.

A dog learns to expect food whenever a bell is rung. This is an example of

a)

insight learning

b)

classical conditioning

c)

migration

d)

instinct

206.

A decrease in response to a stimulus that neither rewards nor harms an animal is called

a)

instinct

b)

operant conditioning

c)

habituation

d)

classical conditioning

207.

Insight learning is common among

a)

dogs

b)

primates

c)

birds and insects

d)

birds only

208.

Study the image above. What type of learning is occurring?

a)

insight learning

b)

imprinting

c)

classical conditioning

d)

operant conditioning

209.

The fact that you sleep at night and attend school during the day is an example of a (an)

a)

migration

b)

circadian rhythm

c)

aggressive behavior

d)

social behavior

210.

Each year, a bird called the American redstart travels from its winter home in South America to its nesting area in New York. This behavior is called

a)

migration

b)

competition

c)

imprinting

d)

courtship

211.

Which of the following is NOT a type of social behavior?

a)

operant conditioning

b)

communication

c)

hunting in a pack

d)

courtship

212.

A system of communication that uses meaningful sounds, symbols, or gestures according to specific rules is called

a)

behavior

b)

language

c)

competition

d)

a signature

213.

Each of the choices below refers to the statement given. Select the best-lettered choice


Statement:

"A rat learns to press a button to get food is"

a)

Insight learning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Classical conditioning

d)

Habituation

214.

Each of the choices below refers to the statement given. Select the best-lettered choice


Statement:

"A dog always salivates at the ringing of a bell"

a)

Insight learning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Classical conditioning

d)

Habituation

215.

Each of the choices below refers to the statement given. Select the best-lettered choice


Statement:

"A chimpanzee stacks boxes in order to reach a banana hanging from the ceiling"

a)

Insight learning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Classical conditioning

d)

Habituation

216.

Each of the choices below refers to the statement given. Select the best-lettered choice


Statement:

"A bird stops responding to a repeated warning call when it is not followed by an attack"

a)

Insight learning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Classical conditioning

d)

Habituation

217.

Which kind of behavior does NOT involve learning?

a)

habituation

b)

trial and error

c)

imprinting

d)

instinct

218.

A male three-spined stickleback fish will attack male red-bellied sticklebacks and models of fishes that have a red underside. It will not attack males or models lacking a red underside. What can you conclude from the three-spined stickleback's behavior?

a)

The stimulus for an attack is a red underside

b)

The stimulus for an attack is aggression

c)

The stimulus for an attack is the presence of a fish with red fins

d)

The stimulus for an attack is the presence of a fish model

219.

Which of the following is NOT an innate behavior?

a)

a dog looking for its food dish

b)

a baby mammal sucking milk

c)

a worm moving away from bright light

d)

a spider spinning a web

220.

A woman moves into a house by a railroad track. After a couple weeks, she no longer notices the sound of the train. Her reaction is an example of

a)

operant conditioning

b)

habituation

c)

imprinting

d)

insight learning

221.

The researcher was trying to find out whether there is a correlation between

a)

the number of a male bird's songs and the number of offspring

b)

the number of a male bird's songs and his attractiveness to females

c)

a male's age and the number of songs he sings

d)

a male's age and when he mates

222.

What can you conclude based on the graph shown above?

a)

Males prefer females that do not sing

b)

Females prefer males that do not sing

c)

Males prefer females with a large number of songs

d)

Females prefer males with a large number of songs